Cancer and Signalling Flashcards

(173 cards)

1
Q

3 Pathology specific sampling methods

A

Cytology sampling: fluid sampling, fine needle aspiration
Tissue sampling: biopsy, resection
Extra tests: immunohistochemistry, genetic profiling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is neoplasia

A

An excessive, irreversible and uncrontrolled growth which persists after withdrawl of the stimuli that caused it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Difference between neoplasia and a tumour

A

Tumour - swelling/lump
Neoplasia - Wider than this as not all neoplasms are guaranteed to cause swelling/lumps e.g. leukaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

3 types of neoplasms

A

Benign disease, dysplasia and malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is hyperplasia

A

Increase in cell number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is hypertrophy

A

Increase in cell size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is atrophy

A

Descrease in cell size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is metaplasia

A

Change from one cell type to another

(eg, from squamous to glandular epithelium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe hypertrophy

A

Increase in cell size
Gene activation, protein synthesis, production of cellular organelles

PI3K/AKT pathway important in physiological hypertrophy

Multiple G protein linked signalling pathways important in pathological hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe Atrophy

A

decrease in stress -> decrease in cell number or size

decrease in cell number : apoptosis
decrease in cell size: ubiquitin-proteasome degradation of cytoskeleton OR autophagy of cellular components by autophagosomes fused to lysosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe Metaplasia

A

Reprogramme of stem cells - different cell type

Can occur across any of the cell categories - commonly epithelium
Can be step on malignany pathway
Example: Barretts oesophagus, Vit A deficiency induced keratomalacia of the conjuctiv, myositis ossificans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is aplasia

A

Failure of cell production in embryogenesis, on a spectrum between agenesis and hypoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is hypoplasia

A

Decrease in cell production during embryogenesis, which leads to a smaller overall organ size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is necrosis

A

uncontrolled cell death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is apoptosis

A

programmed cell death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe benign disease

A

Localised
well encapsulated
slow growing
resemble the tissue of origin
regular nuclei
few mitoses
damage at the local level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is dysplasia

A

Abnormal/atypical cells due to failure of differentiation
In some areas of the body - intraepithelial neoplasia
The more dysplastic = the higher the chance of future malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

2 disordered cellular features of dysplasia

A

Pleomorphic nuclei - irregular and variable size
Mitotic figures - cells dividing in an irregular way (perhaps pulled to three poles)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Describe malignancy

A

invasive
can metastasise
grows fast
may not resemble tissue of origin
shows features of dysplasia
damage at local or distant sites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How can cancers spread through metastasis

A

through lymphatics
through blood
transcoelomic - body cavities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Benign covering epithelia

A

papilloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Benign glandular epithelia

A

Adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Benign solid organ epithelia

A

Adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

malignant covering epithelia

A

carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
malignant glandular epithelia
adenocarcinoma
26
malignant solid organ epithelia
[organ] carcinoma
27
benign smooth muscle
leiomyoma
28
benign skeletal muscle
rhabdomyoma
29
benign bone forming tissue
osteoma
30
benign cartilage
chondroma
31
benign fibrous tissue
fibroma
32
benign bllod vessels
agioma
33
benign adipose tissue
lipoma
34
malignant smooth muscle
leiomyosarcoma
35
malignant skeletal muscle
rhabdomyosarcoma
36
malignant bone forming tissue
osteosarcoma
37
malignant cartilage
chondrosarcoma
38
malignant fibrous tissue
fibrosarcoma
39
malignant blood vessels
angiosarcoma
40
malignant adipose tissue
liposarcoma
41
Malignant lymphoid
Lymphoma
42
Malignant haematopoietic tissue
leukaemia
43
Malignant primitive nerve cells
Neuroblastoma, retinoblastoma etc
44
Malignant glial cells
Gliomas (eg astrocytoma)
45
Malignant melanocyte
malignant melanoma
46
Benign melanocytes
Pigmented naevi (moles)
47
malignant mesothelium
malignant mesothelioma
48
malignant germ cells
teratoma, seminoma
49
benign germ cells
teratoma
50
What does immunochemsitry show us in relation to HER2 of breast cancer
Immunochemsistry shows us where certain proteins are expressed within the cell and in roughly what quantity they are expressed (the darker the brown, the more HER2 there is)
51
Describe Microsatellite instability
occurs when there is a failure of the mechanism to repair damaged DNA in the cell cyle. tIf there is damage to the MMr system, damaged DNA can be passed down to new cells and this can make them prone to mutations causing cancer. The higher chance of mutation caused by the failure of the MMR system is called MSI
52
What is staging
How far has the neoplasm spread through the body
53
Describe TNM classification
Tumour - measures local invasion Node - measure spread to lymph nodes Metastasis - Measures spread to distant tissues
54
Local effects of neoplasms
Generalised symptoms - pain, lump Compression of surrounding structures Ulceration Bleeding/Anaemia Obstruction
55
Metastatic effects of neoplasms
Depends on site Eg, brain mets cause swelling, raised pressure, stroke, seizures etc
56
Systemic effects of neoplasms
Weight loss, loss of apetite, cachexia Fever or feeling non-specifically unwell Infection
57
Para-neoplastic effects of neoplasms
Secretion of excess substances, eg. hormones has systemic effects Raised calcium (leading to confusion) in cencer patients for example
58
Mental health effects of neoplasms
Depression, anxiety, hopelessness, frustration Worsening quality of life
59
What is G0
The pahse when cells are not actively dividing Also known as quiescenceResponse to external signal/mitogenic
60
How long is the cell in G1
11 hours
61
How long is the cell is S phase
8 hours
62
How long is the cell in G2
4 hours
63
How long is the cell in M phase
1 hour
64
What happens in the S phase
Synthesis of DNA
65
What happens in G1
Growth Monitoring of environment RNA and protein synthesis in preparation for S phase Growth-factor dependent
66
what happens in G2
Further growth cell organelle replication preparation for mitosis
67
What happens during prophase
The strands of chromatin shorten, thicken and resolve themselves into recognisable chromosomes. Nuclear envelope dissapears and the spindle microtubules expand into the central region of the cell, attaching to the chromosomes
68
What makes the mitotic spindle
Parallel microtubules assembled between centriole pairs at opposite poles
69
What happens in metaphase
Chromosomes assemble along metaphase plate. Each chromsome is attached to a spindle fibre by bundles of microtubules
70
What happens in Anaphase
Proteolytic cleavage of the proteins that hold the chromatids together, allowing them to be pulled to opposite poles of the spindle.
71
What happens in telophase
Nuclear envelope reforms and chromsomes decondense, spindles disintegrate. 
72
Describe cyclin dependent kinases
regulate progression through the cell cycle serine/theorine kinases activity must be tightly regulated
73
which CDK is involved in G1
cdk4/6
74
which CDK is involved in S
cdk2
75
which CDK is involved in S through to Metaphase
cdk2
76
which CDK is involved in G2 through to anaphase
cdk1
77
which cyclin is associated with G1
cyclinD
78
which cyclin is associated with S
cyclinE
79
which cyclin is associated with S through to metaphase
cyclinA
80
which cyclin is associated with G2 through to anaphase
CyclinB
81
What are cyclins
activator proteins that are up- or down- regulated depending on the phase of the cell cycle Unstable proteins different cyclins associated with different cdks
82
what is cyclin B also known as
Maturation promoting factor (MPF)
83
Causes of cell injury
Mechanical - Trauma Radiation Infection Chemical Hypoxia Genetic - Mutations Drugs
84
2 ways in which cells die
Necrosis and apoptosis
85
Reversible cell injuries
"Cloudy Swelling" - osmotic distrubance Cytoplasmic blebs, disrupted microvilli, swollen mitochondria "Fatty change" - accumulation of lipid vacuoles
86
Cell death by necrosis
injury due to external stimuli uncontrolled cell death always pathological cell contents leak from breakdown of cell membrane often elixits inflammatory response
87
cell death by apoptosis
can be physiological or pathological active controlled or "programmed" cell death cell contents do not leak due to intact cell membrane does not elicit inflammatory response
88
What is karyolysis
Nuclear fading
89
What is pyknosis
nuclear shrinkage
90
what is karyorrhexis
nuclear fragmentation
91
coagulative necrosis
firm, tissue outline retained haemorrhagic: due to blockage of venous drainage gangrenous: larger areas (lower leg)
92
colliquitive necrosis
tissue becomes liquid and its structure is lost e.g infective abcess, cerebral infarct
93
caseous necrosis
combination of coagulative and colliquitive, appearing 'cheese-like' (caseous)
94
fat necrosis
due to action of lipases on fatty tissue
95
effects of necrosis
depends on tissue/organ inflammation - release of cell contents activates inflammation and causes damage.
96
physiological fucntions of apoptosis
embryogenesis: deletion of cell populations cell deletion in proliferating cell populations to maintain constant number of cells deletion of inflammatory cells after response deletion of slef-reactive lymphocytes in thymus (auto-immune disease)
97
pathological targets of apoptosis
viral infection: cytotoxic T-lymphocytes DNA damage Hypoxia/ischaemia Autoimmune disease Graft vs host disease
98
apoptosis morphology
cell shrinkage chromatin condensation membrans of cell remain intact cytoplasmic blebs form and break off to form apoptotic bodies which are phagocytosed by macrophages
99
What are CDKIs
CDK inhibitors small proteins that block cyclin/CDK activity either by forming an inactive complex or by acting as a competitive CDK ligand
100
what are the three CDKI families
p21 CIP p27 KIP p16 INK
101
Inactive MPF form
cdk-1 in a phosphorylated state
102
What does active MPF phosphorylate
Lamins to destroy the nuclear envelope Histones and condensins for chromosome condensation Microtubule-associated proteins (MAPs) for spindle formation
103
What is the restriction point
the checkpoint at G1 after which the cell no longer requires growth factors to complete the cell cycle and commits to cell division. Dependent on the accumulation of cyclin D. Retinoblastoma protein acts as the gatekeeper.
104
Function og epidermal growth factor
EGF re-epithelialsation (keratinocyte proliferation and migration)
105
Function of platelet-derived growth factor
PDGF matrix formation (increased numbers and activity of fibroblasts) Remodelling (production of proteases)
106
Function of vascular endothelial growth factor
VEGF angiogenesis (endothelial cell proliferation and migration)
107
What is E2F
Transcription factor that when the cell cycle is active, it transcribes genes necessary for S phase. It is inhibited in G1 by RB
108
In the presence of growth factors, what does cdk4/6-cyclin D phosphorylate
Retinoblastoma protein. This forces it to dissociate from E2F and allows gene transcription to occur.
109
Describe tumour suppresor genes
TSGs encode normal cell proteins that inhibit cell proliferation and growth of cell. They maintain integrity of the genome Cause cell-arrest in abnormally dividing cells and repair DNA damage RB - blocks entry to the cell cycle p53 - detects DNA damage BRCA1 - DNA repair
110
Describe p53
Transcription factor If it detects low levels of DNA damage it will inhibit the cell cycle and express p21 so DNA repair can occur If it detects high levels of DNA damage it will promote apoptosis.
111
What occurs at the metaphase checkpoint
Anaphase promoting complex APC is inhibited until all chromosomes are attached to spindles.
112
Describe morphogen
Cell signalling molecule that travels from one point to another. Cells near the origin get lots of morphogen and so respond in a particular way that is different to the cells recieving low levels at the second point.
113
What happens when RAS is mutated
Mutated K-RAS is too active and causes cells to grow/divide/survive in the absence of growth signals.
114
Describe Herceptin
Drug used agaisnt breast cancer AKA trastuzumab Targets cell surface growth factor receptor (HER2) Stops growth signalling
115
Describe salbutamol
Asthma reliver Targets beta-2 receptor in lungs (opens them)
116
Describe Gleevec
Protein kinase inhibitor used against CML. Inhibits intracellular protein tyrosine kinase (Bcr-Abl)
117
Describe Avastin
Targets VEGF - signal for angiogenesis (new blood supply for tumour) Inhibits cancer growth
118
2 ways to classify biochemical signals
chemical structure range of action (distance)
119
3 types of hormones
1. Amino-acid derivatives 2. Steroid hormones 3. Eicosanoids (derived from lipids)
120
4 terms to classify signals based on range of action
Endocrine - long distance Paracrine - nearby Juxtacrine - neighbour cell autocrine - same cell
121
3 stages of all signals
1. detect signal/stimulus 2. Transduce the signal from site of detecction to part of cell that will respond 3. Respond - must be coordinated with responses to other signals; and with responses of other cells (tissue/organ/body)
122
Describe hydrophobic signal molecules
Diffuse directly through plasma membrane into cells eg. steroid hormones - bind directly to intracellular receptor proteins - hormone-receptor complex acts as a transcription factor - complex binds to DNA and alters gene expression
123
Describe hydrophillic signalling molecules
Must use a cell surface receptor protein eg. insulin and adrenaline binds to a receptor and activates it bringing about a conformational change that results in a cellular response
124
3 main types of cell surface receptors
1. Ion-channel-linked 2. G-protein-linked 3. Enzyme-linked
125
describe ion channel linked receptors
e.g. glutamate neurotransmitter Ion flow into cell changed the electrical properties of the cell e.g. nerve impulse transmission
126
describe G protein linked rceptor (GPCR)
e.g. adrenaline, serotonin, glucagon Activated G-protein activates enzyme that passes on signal into cell
127
describe enzyme linked receptors
e.g. many growth factors, insulin Signal binds to the inactive receptor it brings the two parts of the receptor together and brings out about enzyme activity activation within the cell.
128
2 main methods of transduction
enzyme cascades and second messengers
129
Describe MAPK cascade
Activated in response to growth factor RTK activation e.g. EGF Relay proteins Grb/Sos activate Ras - Ras is a (proto)oncogene Ras activates a 'Map Kinase cascade' Enzymatic casacde ad so amplification as well as transduction
130
What is a second messenger
Small molecule that is produced in large amounts inside cell after receptor activation
131
Example of secondary messenger transduction
Adrenaline: GPCR -> cAMP -> PKA activation -> effector proteins phosphorylated
132
What is a GPCR
G protein coupled receptors
133
Molecular level responses = changes in...
Gene expression, protein activity, protein binding, protein localisation
134
Describe role of Receptor Tyrosine Kinases in Cancer
Frowth factor/RTK pathways are often overactive in cancer - Activating mutation or overexpression of RTK or other pathway proteins Treatment (anti-cancer drugs) involve inactivating antibodies or small molecule kinase inhibitors.
135
Describe the use of herceptin
AKA trastuzmab Targets HER2 (human EGFR2), antibody drug, against HER2+ breast cancer
136
Describe the use of Avastin
AKA bevacizumab Targets VEGF, antibody drug, against Colorectal cancer (angiogenesis)
137
Describe the use of Iressa
AKA gefitinib Targets EGFR, inhibitor drug, against lung cancer
138
Describe GPCR activation
1. Ligand binding to receptor causes a conformational chnage in cytoplasmic domain. 2. Conformational change allows G-protein to bind/be activated by receptor 3. Activated G-protein activates intracellular enzymes
139
What type of receptor does insulin bind to 
Receptor tyrosine Kinase
140
What are the key components of the signalling pathway through which adrenaline causes release of glucose
GPCR -> cAMP second messenger -> PKA
141
What does the EGF receptor activate
Cell survival, proliferation and invasion via the PI3 Kinase pathway Proliferation and invasion via the KRAS pathway
142
Which serine proteins are binded to p53 to induced cell cycle arrest and apoptosis
Mild genotoxic stress - serine 15 - arrest Severe genotoxic stress - serine 46 (+serine 15 already attached) - apoptosis
143
144
Which lymph nodes are most commonly affected by Breast cancer
Axillary LN Super clavicular LN Cervical LN
145
3 breast cancer subtypes
Oestrogen receptor + Progesterone receptor + HER2 receptor + Can be any combination of these
146
Treatment options for breast cancer
Axillary lymph node removal breast reconstruction Radiotherapy - adjuvant: reduces risk of recurrance - palliative: treats symptoms, especially pain from bone metastases Endocrine treatment: hormones +/- ovarian suppression - tamoxifen, aromatose inhibitors systemic anti-cancer therapy (SACT) - chemotherapy (microtubule inhibitors, DNA damaging agents) - monoclonal antibodies (anti-HER2 drug) - immunotherapy - PARP inhibitors, cdk4/6 inhibitors, antibody drug conjugates (ADCs)
147
Ways to assess treatments for breast cancers
Response rate Time to progression Local or distant recurrence rates Disease-free survival Overall survival
148
Future treatment directions for breast cancer
Better targeted treatments Next generation sequencing to guide treatment options Better management of side effects de-escalation of treatment in patients whose cancers respond well Avoiding uneccessary treatment More effective surveillance
149
Define Metastasis
Multi-step process by which tumour cells move from a primary site to colonise a secondary site.
150
What is cachexia
When the body wastes away due to cancer, despite eating you still lose muslce and fat
151
7 characteristic of metastasis
1. reduced cell-cell adhesion 2. altered cell-substratum adhesion 3. increased motility 4. increased proteolytic ability 5. ability to intravasate and extravasate 6. angiogenic ability (blood supply) 7. ability to proliferate (locally and etopic sites)
152
What is the epethilial-mesenchyme transition
EMT process in which epithelial cells lose their characteristic polarity, diassemble cell-cell junctions and become more migratory
153
Function of e-cadherin
decreased expression in cancers as it is involved in cell-cell junctions. binds cadherins across jucntion and to the actin cytoskeleton via alpha and beta catenon calcium dependent
154
Function of integrin
mediate cell adhesion to the ECM found in hemi-desmosomes and focal adhesions altered integrin expression is frequently detected in tumours
155
examples of integrins
avB3 & a5B1 expressed in melanomas
156
what do proteases expressed by tumours and stroma cells (surrounding tumout) facilitate
- invasion of ECM at primary and secondary sites - digestion of endothelial BM - angiogenesis - activate proteases
157
example of Matrix metalloproteinases
MMP-2 degrades type IV collagen (found in BM)
158
example of serine proteases
urokinase plasminogen activator (uPA) turns plasminogen into plasmin plasmin activates MMPs and degrades ECM
159
example of Cysteine proteases
cathepsin K collagenolytic activity -> matrix degradation
160
3 modes of tumpur spread
lymphatic spread haematogenous spread transcoelomic spread (across the peritoneal cavity)
161
describe the steps in intravasation
1. attachemnt 2. degrade BM 3. diapedesis 4. New blood vessels are leaky 5. assisted by tumour-associated macrophages: chemotactic signals
162
why do most tumour cells not survive transport
shear stress of blood flow immune detection
163
describe the steps in extravasation
1. attachment 2. degrade BM 3. diapedesis 4. blood vessels structurally sound 5. similar mechanism used by WBCs
164
define angiogenesis
new vessles are generated from existing vasculature
165
define vasculogenesis
new vessels are generated from scratch
166
steps of angiogenesis
1. tumour cells detect hypoxia 2. transcription factor HIF induced 3. this transcribes VEGF 4. VEGF secreted and binds to VEGF receptor on endothelial cell 5. once bound it signals, resulting in transcription and protein production for new blood vessels. 6. Integrin migration, sprout formation (proliferation), protease invasion
167
define organotropism
when specific cancers tend to metastasise to a preferred secondary site 'seed and soil' theory (secondary growth of cancer cells (seed) is dependent on the microenvironment of the distant organ (soil))
168
examples of organotropism
Breast carcinoma - bone, lung, brain Colorectal carcinoma - liver and lung
169
function of cancer-associated fibroblast (CAF)
within tumour, manipulated by tumour cells to secrete MMPS, cytokines to recruit IL-8 and VEGF
170
describe pericytes function in cancer
cancer cells manipulate pericytes for poor coverage so that blood vessls arre leaky allowing tumour cell invasion
171
function of Tumour-associated macrophages
produce growth factors and MMPs to promote angiogenesis, cell invasion and intravasation
172
Describe precursor lesions fpr cervical cancer
CIN1 = resolves without treatment, patients are monitored CIN3 = precursor lesion for squamous cell carcinoma Cervical screening programme is used to detect and treat CIN2 and CIN3 CGIN is much less common and is the precursor lesion for adenocarcinoma
173
what is dyskaryosis
when abnormal cells have enlarged, irregular shaped nuclei. cervical cytology Dyskaryosis is graded as mild, moderate or severe depending on the size of the nucleus