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Radiation therapy ARRT exam review > Cancer key factors > Flashcards

Cancer key factors Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common primary brain tumor in children

A

Astrocytoma

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2
Q

What is the most common primary brain tumor in adults?

A

glioblastoma multiforme

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3
Q

overall the most common cancer in brains is

A

metastatic tumors

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4
Q

the most common routes of spread for Cns tumors are local invasion and seeding through

A

Cerebrospinal fluid CSF

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5
Q

the most common area for CSF seeding is in the

A

lumbralsacral area

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6
Q

What is the main pathology for oral cavity cancers

A

Squamous cell carcinomas

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7
Q

Which of the following are included in the main route of lymphatics spread for oral activity?

  1. Buccinator
  2. Supraclavicular
  3. Jugulodigastric
  4. Submandibular
  5. Subdigastic
  6. Submental nodes
  7. Cervical nodes

Hint ( B, J, S, SM, *C)

  • main one
A

1,3,4,6,7

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8
Q

What is the most common site of spread for oral cavity cancers?

A

Cervical lymph nodes

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9
Q

Which of the following parts of the pharynx is located at the level of C2-C3

A

Oropharynx

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10
Q

which of the following parts parts of the pharynx is located posterior to the larynx

A

laryngopharynx

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11
Q

Which of the following parts of the pharynx is located at the level of C1

A

nasopharynx

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12
Q

Which of the following parts of the pharynx is located at the level of C3-C6

A

laryrngopharynx

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13
Q

Which of the following parts of the pharynx is associated with EBV (Epstein bar virus)

A

Nasopharynx

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14
Q

Where is the most common location of cancer in the oropharynx

A

tonsils

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15
Q

Both oropharyngeal and hypopharyngeal cancers are associated with

A

HPV

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16
Q

Which part of pharynx - oraphraynx drains too

( Sg , uc , sm , p )

A

subdigastric, upper cervical, submaxillary and parapharyngeal nodes

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17
Q

Which part of nasopharynx drains to

(c, r , j )

A

Nasopharynx

-cervical nodes, retropharyngeal node (node of Rouviere), and jugulodigastric nodes

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18
Q

Which part of pharynx - hypopharynx drains to

( mc , sd , mj , lj , r )

A

Hypopharynx

-midcervical nodes, superior deep, middle and low jugular nodes; and retropharyngeal node (node of Rouviere)

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19
Q

Which of the following extends from C3-C6

A

Larynx

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20
Q

Which of the following is the false vocal cords

A

Supraglottis

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21
Q

Which of the following is the true vocal cords?

A

Glottis

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22
Q

What is related disease to larynx cancer?

larynx - the hollow muscular organ forming an air passage to the lungs and holding the vocal cords in humans and other mammals; the voice box.

A

HPV

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23
Q

What is the most common pathology of larynx cancer

A

Squamous cell carcinomas

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24
Q

Which of the following does the field size of only 5x5 cm (postage stamp) apply to

A

LArynx

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25
Q

What is the largest of all the salivary glands

A

Parotid

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26
Q

The most common malignant type of salivary gland tumors is?

A

Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

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27
Q

Which best describes how the salivary gland spreads via the nodes

A

Ipsilateral -belonging to or occurring on the same side of the body.

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28
Q

What is the most common type of thyroid cancer

A

papillary

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29
Q

What is the most aggressive thyroid cancer

A

Anaplastic

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30
Q

Which of the following nodes is located below the mastoid tip

A

Jugulodigastric

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31
Q

Which lymph node receives almost all lymph from the head and neck area

  1. Jugulodigastric
  2. Node of Rouviére
  3. Spinal accessory chain
  4. Subdigastric Node
  5. Mastoid node

hint : JS

A

1,4

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32
Q

the breast is positioned between the ___ and the ___ rib.

A

2nd and the 6th rib

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33
Q

What is the name of the connective tissue that extend throughout the breast to help support it

A

Coopers suspensory ligmanets

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34
Q

What is the name of the breast tissue that is close to the axilla

A

Tail of Spence

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35
Q

most common site for breast cancer is the

A

Upper outer quadrant (UOQ)

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36
Q

What is the chemotherapy combination for breast cancer

A

CMF

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37
Q

What chemotherapy agent can be used to treat hormone- receptors - positives and early staged breast cancer

A

Tamoxifen

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38
Q

The following explain what level of the axilla: located under the pectoralis minor muscle

A

level 2

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39
Q

The following explain what level of the axilla: lowest and most superficial; first place for drainage; located lateral to the pectoralis minor muscle

A

Level 1

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40
Q

The following explain what level of the axilla: located superior to the pectoralis minor muscle

A

Level 3

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41
Q

What is the most common type of breast cancer ?

A

infiltrating ductal carcinoma

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42
Q

Regional involvement of the breast spreads to what nodes?

A

Axillary and IM nodes

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43
Q

The lungs are lined by two membranes which is called

A

the pleura

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44
Q

the area where the trachea bifurcates and is located around T4-T5 is called the

A

carina

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45
Q

Where is the location where oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged? (inside lungs)

A

Alveolar ducts

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46
Q

What is the location within the lungs where blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, and nerves gain entry to the lungs

A

Hilum

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47
Q

Which lung cancer is associated with tobacco use

A

Small cell

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48
Q

Which lung cancer is not associated with tobacco use

A

Non- small cell

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49
Q

what is the most common type of lung cancer

A

Adenocarcinoma

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50
Q

which of the following is connected with asbestos exposure?

A

Mesothelioma

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51
Q

Which of the following best describes small cell limited stage?

A

On one side of lung

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52
Q

Which of the following best describes small cell extensive stage

A

On both sides of lung

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53
Q

Which of the following starts around C6 and ends around T10?

A

Esophagus

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54
Q

Which of the following is associated with Barretts Esophagus

A

Adenocarcinomas

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55
Q

Which of the following best describes the metastatic pattern of the esophagus

A

Skip mets

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56
Q

Which of the following histologies are common in the upper and middle sections of the esophagus

A

Squamous cell carcinomas

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57
Q

Which of the following histologies are common in the lower section of the esophagus and GE junction

A

Adenocarcinomas

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58
Q

What is the most common esophageal cancer in the U.S. ?

A

Adenocarcinoma

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59
Q

What layer of the stomach do most tumors start

A

mucosa

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60
Q

What is the most common lymph node involved with stomach cancers

A

Celiac node

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61
Q

What is the most common histology of Stomach cancer

A

Adenocarcinoma

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62
Q

What is the longest part of the GI tract

A

Small bowel

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63
Q

List the three sections of the small intestine in order

A

duodenum, jejunum, ileum

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64
Q

What are the two most common nodes with small intestine cancer

A

Mesenteric and celiac nodes

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65
Q

the colon (large intestine) is divided into how many regions?

A

8 sections

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66
Q

What is the most common histology for small bowel cancer

A

Adenocarcinoma

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67
Q

What is the type of resection that Removes colon, but leaves the sphincter and rectum

A

Anterior resection

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68
Q

What is the type of resection that Removes the anus and part of rectum

A

Abdominoperineal resection

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69
Q

Which of the following is a major risk factor for large bowel cancer

A

polyps

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70
Q

What is the most common histology of large bowel?

A

Adenocarcinoma

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71
Q

Which of the following best describes the large bowel spread pattern

A

via direct extension in a radial style

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72
Q

what is the most common symptom of anal cancer?

A

Rectal bleeding

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73
Q

Anal cancer is associated with?

A

HPV

74
Q

What is the most common histology of anal cancer

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

75
Q

Which of the following is located around L1 L2

A

Pancreas

76
Q

Which location within the pancreas is the most common?

A

HEAD

77
Q

What is the most common surgery for pancreatic cancer?

A

Whippel procedure

78
Q

What is the most common pathology for pancreatic cancer?

A

Ductal cell carcinoma

79
Q

Which lymphatic is most common for adrenal tumors

A

Paraaortic nodes

80
Q

What is the most common pathology for Adrenal tumors

A

Adrenocortical tumors

81
Q

Which is the largest gland in the body

A

liver

82
Q

What is the most common type of Liver cancer

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

83
Q

Which of the following stores bile and empties it into the duodenum when stimulated

A

the. gall bladder

83
Q

What is the most common location of liver cancers

A

Upper right quadrant

84
Q

What is most common pathology for gallbladder cancer

A

Adenocarcinoma

85
Q

Which of the following Bring urine from the renal pelvis to the bladder

A

Ureter

86
Q

What is most common pathology for ureter cancer

A

Transitional cell carcinoma

87
Q

Which of the following is located from around T12 to L3 in the retroperitoneal space

A

Kidney

88
Q

What is most common pathology for Kidney cancer?

A

Renee cell carcinomas

89
Q

Kidney cancers spread via direct extension through

A

renal capsule

90
Q

what is a typical presentation for bladder cancer

A

gross or microscopic hematuria

91
Q

Is the male or female urethra longer?

A

MAle

92
Q

What is most common pathology for bladder cancer

A

Transitional cell carcinoma

93
Q

what is the most common pathology for urethra cancer

A

squamous cell carcinoma

94
Q

The prostate is ___ to the bladder and ____ to the rectum

A

Inferior, anterior

95
Q

which node for prostate cancer is involved with metastasis

A

paralytic nodes

96
Q

What is most common pathology for prostate cancer

A

Adenocarcinoma

97
Q

What location is the most common for prostate cancer for bone metastasis

A

the spine

98
Q

What part of the male reproductive system holds the spermatozoa and produces testorone

A

Testes

99
Q

Which of the following leads to increased risk of testicular cancer

A

Cryptorchidism -a condition in which one or both of the testes fail to descend from the abdomen into the scrotum.

100
Q

What is the common treatment field for testicular cancer

A

Hockey stick

101
Q

hat is most common pathology for testicular cancer

A

Germ cell tumors

102
Q

What is most common pathology for Penile cancer

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

103
Q

What is the innermost layer of the uterus

A

endometrium

104
Q

What is the most common clinical presentation for endometrium cancers?

A

Postmenopausal vaginal bleeding

105
Q

Which of the following is the most common gynecologic malignancy

A

Endometrial cancer

106
Q

All GYN cancer use what staging system

A

FiGo

107
Q

What is most common pathology for Endometrium cancer

A

Adenocarcinoma

108
Q

Which of the following is inferior to the uterus and superior to the vagina

A

cervix

109
Q

What is the opening between the body of the uterus and the cervix

A

Internal Os

110
Q

What is the opening from the cervix leading into the vagina

A

externals Os

111
Q

Which cancer is detected by Pap smear

A

Cervical

112
Q

For HDR which point is explain below for cervical cancer:
2 cm superior to the cervical os and 2 cm lateral to the endocervical canal

A

Point A

113
Q

What is most common pathology for Cervical cancer

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

114
Q

What GYN cancer is the most deadly

A

Ovarian

115
Q

Serum CA-125 is elevated when which of the following is present

A

Ovarian carcinoma

116
Q

Which of the following nodes do cervical cancer primarily spread to

A

periaortic nodes

117
Q

what is most common pathology for ovarian cancer

A

Epithelial carcinoma

118
Q

The vagina is ____to the bladder and _____to the rectum

A

posterior anterior

119
Q

What is the most common location for vaginal cancers

A

posterior wall of the upper third

120
Q

What is clinical presentation of vaginal cancer

A

Vaginal bleeding

121
Q

Most common node involved for vaginal cancer is the

A

inguinal node

122
Q

What is most common pathology for vaginal cancers is

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

123
Q

Most vulvar cancers occur in the

A

labia majora

124
Q

What is most common pathology for vulvar cancer is

A

squamous cell carcinoma

125
Q

Which part of the body had the most bone marrow

A

pelvis

126
Q

Why do most skeletal tumors occur in the distal femur and proximal tibia?

A

because they have the largest growth plates

127
Q

What is the most common clinical presentation of skeletal tumors

A

Pain

127
Q

For skeletal tumors Lymphatic spread is not common unless the tumor occurs in what region of the body

A

Trunk

128
Q

Reed-Sternberg cells indicate what

A

Hodgkin lymphoma

129
Q

Which of the following are B symptoms

A

Fever, night sweats, and 10 percent weight loss within six months

130
Q

Which of the following is a common chemotherapy drug combo for hodgkins lymphoma

A

MOPP

131
Q

Which of the following is true regarding hodgkins lymphoma

A

occurs in bimodal age groups

132
Q

Which of the following fields is used for hodgkins lymphoma

A

Mantle field and inverted Y

133
Q

What is most common pathology for Hodgkin lymmhoma

A

Nodular sclerosino Hodgkins lymphoma (NSHL)

134
Q

Which of the following best describes non- Hodgkins spread pattern

A

Random with no order

135
Q

Which chemotherapy combination is used for NOn-hodgkins lymhoma

A

CHOPP

136
Q

What is most common pathology for Non- hodgkins lymphoma

A

B-cell, diffuse

137
Q

Soft tissue sarcoma most occur in what location in adults

A

Extremities

138
Q

When irradiating sarcomas, it is important that the entire circumference of the extremity or area is

A

not within the treatment field

139
Q

What is most common pathology for STS’s in adults

A

malignant fibrous histiocytoms (MFH)

140
Q

What is most common pathology for STS’s in children

A

rhabdomysarcoma

141
Q

Where is the most common site of rhabdomyosarcoma

A

genitourinary tract

142
Q

where is the most common site of rhabdomysarcoma

A

genitourinary tract

143
Q

which of the following is the most common bone tumor in children

A

osteosarcoma

144
Q

which of the following is the most common bone tumor in adults

A

chondrosarcoma

145
Q

What is staging system for lymphoma

A

ANN Arbor staging system

146
Q

What is staging system for lymphoma

A

ANN Arbor staging system

147
Q

Which of the following has an onion-shaped appearance on radiographic images

A

Ewings sarcoma

148
Q

Which of the following is a malignancy of plasma cells

A

multiple myeloma

149
Q

Multiple myeloma occurs is what type of cells of the bone marrow

A

B-cells

150
Q

When can the patient can be diagnosed with multiple myeloma

A

When 10 percent of bone marrow cells are plasma cells upon aspiration

151
Q

Which of the following cancers lymph node involvement vastely depends on the location of the cancer

A

Skin

152
Q

Which of the following is a Skin cancer in the stem cells of the deepest layer of the skin (stratum basale

A

Basal cell carcinoma

153
Q

Which of the following is a Skin cancer in the superficial layers of the epidermis

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

154
Q

Which of the following is the most common type of skin cancer

A

Basal cell carcinoma

155
Q

Which of the following is the most aggressive skin cancer

A

melanoma

156
Q

what rule should you follow for melanoma

A

ABCD

157
Q

Where are some Common locations for melanomas

A

Face and scalp

158
Q

Which staging system do leukemias use

A

FAB

159
Q

Which of the following is an Overgrowth of cells that are unable to differentiate in response to hormonal signals and cellular interactions

A

AML

160
Q

Which of the following is caused by Abnormal hematopoietic stem cells that contain the Philadelphia chromosome (Phil)

A

CML

161
Q

Which of the following is an overgrowth of unhealthy lymphoblasts, B lymphocytes, or T lymphocytes which limits the growth of healthy cells

A

ALL

162
Q

Which of the following is cause because of Increased number of leukemic cells in the bone marrow, blood, lymph nodes, and spleen

A

CLL

163
Q

Which of the following is the most common in children

A

ALL

164
Q

Which of the following is the most common type of acute leukemia in adults

A

AML

164
Q

Which of the following is associated with Auer rods

A

AML

165
Q

Which of the following does not have any assoication with radiation being a risk factor

A

CLL

165
Q

Which of the following has these three stages
1. Chronic
2. Accelerated
3. Blast Crisis

A

CML

166
Q

Which of the following are not treated with bone marrow transplants

A

CLL

166
Q

Who are the best donors for Bone marrow transplants

A

Identical twins

167
Q

Which type of bone marrow transplant is where the patient’s own bone marrow is reinfused after leukemic cells have been removed

A

Autologous BMT

168
Q

Which type of bone marrow transplant is where bone marrow is donated by a compatible donor (family member or stranger)

A

Allogeneic BMT

169
Q

Which of the following is a Subgroup of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma

A

Mycosis fungicides

169
Q

Which of the following is primary treatment for mycosis fungoides

A

Total-skin electron beam (TSEB)

170
Q

Heterotopic ossification happens in some patients who undergo what type of surgery

A

HIP

171
Q

Which of the following is a Benign condition of uncontrolled growth of connective tissue

A

Keloid

172
Q

When must radiation occur for keloids

A

Within 24 hours of surgery

173
Q

Which of the following is An abnormality where the arteries and veins become tangled and are unable to transfer oxygen and nutrients to vital organs, such as the brain

A

Arteriovenous Malformations (AVM)

174
Q

Which of the following are typically used when treating Arteriovenous Malformations (AVM)

A

SRS

175
Q

which of the following is the most common type of tumor in the head and is benign

A

Meningioma

Radiation therapy ARRT exam review (11 decks)

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