CAP test Flashcards

1
Q

where does the venous angle lie?

A

between the subclavian vein and the internal jugular vein.

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2
Q

what does the thoracic duct drain into?

A

left venous angle

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3
Q

what does the right lymphatic duct drain into?

A

right venous angle

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4
Q

what drains into the right atrium?

A

inferior/superior vena cave and the coronary sinus

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5
Q

which vein does the intercostal veins from the anterior aspect of the intercostal spaces drain into?

A

internal thoracic vein

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6
Q

which vein does the intercostal veins from the posterior aspect of the intercostal spaces drain into?

A

azygous vein

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7
Q

which layer lies immediately superficial to the myocardium?

A

visceral serous pericardium

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8
Q

what layer is most closely associated with the route of the phrenic nerve through the chest?

A

fibrous pericardium

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9
Q

what is metaplasia?

A

the change from one mature cell to another

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10
Q

what is hyperplasia?

A

increase in cell number

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11
Q

what is neoplasia?

A

abnormal cell proliferation

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12
Q

what is hypoplasia?

A

decrease in cell number

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13
Q

what is dysplasia?

A

presence of abnormal cells within a tissue

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14
Q

which stage of embryogenesis are the germ layers formed?

A

gastrulation

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15
Q

what is morphogenesis?

A

formation of the body plan

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16
Q

what is organogenesis?

A

development of the primordia of all the organs of the body

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17
Q

Is Km high or low when an enzyme has a high affinity for its substrate?

A

low

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18
Q

what enzyme transcribes genetic material?

A

RNA polymerase

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19
Q

what is FiFo ATPase?

A

a proton pore which utilises the energy yielded from the return of protons along their electrochemical gradient in a condensation reaction with ADP and Pi to yield ATP

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20
Q

why do rapidly contracting cells start producing lactic acid?

A

they require large amounts of energy in the form of ATP. if they can’t produce enough by oxidative phosphorylation these cells require another way of regenerating NAD+, they use lactic acid as a substrate for gluconeogenesis

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21
Q

what are partial agonists?

A

drugs that bind to and activate a given receptor, but have only partial efficacy at the receptor relative to a full agonist

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22
Q

what does SBAR stand for?

A

situation, background, assessment, recommendation

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23
Q

what is the most abundant antibody in the blood?

24
Q

which antibody exists as a dimer and is found in secretions of breast milk, saliva and tears?

25
which antibody is a pentamer?
IgM
26
what anti-microbial proteins are secreted by epithelial cells at mucosal surfaces?
defensins
27
what are defensins?
small cysteine-rich cationic proteins that can bind to microbial cell membranes and assist in killing cells
28
why is a decrease in circulating blood volume during sepsis?
due to endotoxins causing vasodilatation and intravascular fluid leaking into adjacent tissue
29
which types of organisms are endotoxins part of their cell wall?
gram negative
30
what pathology finding would be found on asthmatic inflammation responsive to corticosteroids?
chronic eosinophilic mucosal inflammation
31
which microbe most commonly causes bronchiolitis?
respiratory syncytial virus
32
what is the underlying pathology of sarcoidosis?
non-caseating granulomas develop in many body organs, including the lungs
33
how do you calculate mean arterial blood pressure?
diastolic pressure + 1/3(systolic-diastolic pressure)
34
leads v2-5 are what region most likely site of infarct?
anterior
35
leads v1-3 are what region most likely site of infarct?
anteroseptal
36
leads v4-6,1,aVL are what region most likely site of infarct?
anterolateral
37
leads II,III,aVF are what region most likely site of infarct?
inferior
38
leads v1-2 are what region most likely site of infarct?
posterior
39
what shape is haemoglobin?
tetramer
40
what is the initial management for SVT?
valsalva manoeuvre
41
the rate of rescue breathing in an adult with a respiratory arrest should be?
10 times per minute
42
what would the pulse rate of a person suffering from shock from blood loss be like?
fast
43
which valvular abnormality produces an ejection systolic murmur?
aortic stenosis
44
what medication helps improve survival in chronic congestive heart failure?
ACE inhibitors
45
what causes the rising phase of depolarisation in contractile ventricular muscle?
fast sodium influx
46
what valvular abnormality is likely to present with a mid-diastolic murmur best heard at the apex of the heart when the patient is in the left lateral position?
mitral stenosis
47
which valvular abnormality causes a pan-systolic murmur best heart at the apex of the heart?
mitral regurgitation
48
what is the plateau phase of action potential causes by?
increased calcium influx
49
what is the repolarisation (phase 3) caused by?
increased potassium efflux
50
what is resistance to blood flow inversely proportional to?
radius of a blood vessel to the power of 4
51
which vessel carries blood from the liver (from the stomach, pancreas and bowel) into the IVC?
hepatic vein
52
which vessel is most inferior of the paired anterolateral branches of the abdominal aorta?
gonadal artery
53
what does the coeliac trunk trifurcate into?
common hepatic, splenic and left gastric arteries
54
what is the most common cause of food poisoning?
campylobacter
55
which organism is associated with food poisoning after eating rice which has been stored too long at room temp?
bacillus cereus
56
which organism infection may lead to haemolytic uraemic syndrome?
E. coli 0157
57
how are GI parasites diagnosed?
microscopy by stool