CAP tests Flashcards

1
Q

what is a partial agonist

A

a drug that binds to and activates a given receptor, but only has partial efficacy at the receptor relative to a full agonist

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2
Q

venlafaxine class of drug

A

SNRI

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3
Q

Ix of a direct trauma to the nose causing a visible deformity

A

no Ix - for a simple nasal fracture.

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4
Q

how is the Mx of nasal trauma decided

A

clinical decision whether to manipulate it or not!

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5
Q

what is fetal station in labour

A

the relationship of the fetal head to the mum’s pelvis

- = above the ischial spines 
0 = at the ischial spines 
\+ = below the ischial spines
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6
Q

when is a mid cavity forceps (Haig Ferguson) delivery appropriate

A
  • the head is 1/5th palpable per abdomen
  • the head is not above the ischial spines
  • there is rotation of 45 degrees or less
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7
Q

when is a rotational forceps (Kiellands) delivery appropriate

A
  • direct OP and face deliveries
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8
Q

what is the recommended intervention for a choking conscious baby

A

chest thrusts (not abdo thrusts)

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9
Q

what is a surgeons knot

A

modification to the reef knot

adds an extra half hitch when tying the first throw

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10
Q

do women need to take vit D 10mcg pre-conception

A

no, only during pregnancy

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11
Q

is obesity an indication for taking higher dose folic acid

A

yes, should be on 5mg from 12w pre-conception

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12
Q

Mx of MODY

A

sulphonylurea

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13
Q

‘all my food has a metallic taste, like someone is tyring to poison me’ - example of?

A

gustatory hallucination

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14
Q

what is loosening of associations

A

thought disorder where there is no logical connection between thoughts

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15
Q

what is orange bags used for

A

non sharp clinical waste

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16
Q

most useful technique when assessing AVPU

A

talking to the patient

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17
Q

Mx of lithium toxicity if presenting within 1h

A

gastric lavage

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18
Q

Mx of lithium toxicity if caused by d+v

A

rehydration (dont need to change lithium dose)

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19
Q

dietary change for secondary prevention of CV disease?

A

increase intake of omega-3 fatty acids (oily fish)

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20
Q

neurotransmitter most involved in aversive and defensive systems

A

serotonin

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21
Q

what % of prostate ca patients have locally advanced disease or mets at presentation

A

65%

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22
Q

is prostate ca associated with BPH?

A

no

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23
Q

what area of the prostate does prostate ca arise from?

A

peripheral zone

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24
Q

what directly increases calcium absorption from the gut?

A

vitamin D

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25
Q

what directly increases calcium reabsorption from the kidneys

A

calcium

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26
Q

Abx Mx for a patient on chemo being delivered via PICC line admited with spiking temp. Temp decreases when the PICC line is flushed

A

Teicoplanin - active against aerobic and anaerobic gram +ve bacteria including multi resistant staph

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27
Q

femoral head shows evidence of collapse - Dx?

A

AVN

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28
Q

you are first on the scene following a collision between two cars in a supermarket carpark - first step?

A

assess the scene

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29
Q

is it sometimes appropriate to lie to a family member in order to respect patient’s confidentiality requests?

A

yes

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30
Q

is it appropriate to refuse to speak with an angry relative of a patient?

A

no - might make them more frustrated - it is only acceptable for hospital staff to not accept verbal abuse

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31
Q

what is the treatable pcm overdose level

A

over 100mg/L at 6h

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32
Q

what is the most appropriate monitoring option to assess successfulness of pneumonia Tx

A

resp rate

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33
Q

is CXR a good way to monitor pneumonia Tx a few days after Tx

A

no - unlikely to resolve within a few days of Tx

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34
Q

is listening to the chest a good way to monitor pneumonia Tx during Tx

A

no - will take several days to resolve

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35
Q

most common symptom of poorly controlled asthma in children

A

chronic night cough

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36
Q

most sensitive way to look for a chromosomal imbalance

A

array CGH

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37
Q

Mx of a hypotensive pt with a normal HR

A

alpha agonist - metaraminol

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38
Q

adverse effect most likely to be caused by morphine

A

drowsiness

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39
Q

nerve most at risk during myringoplasty procedure

A

chorda tympanii (immediately beneath the tympanic membrane)

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40
Q

effect of dalteparin on K levels

A

hyperkalaemia

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41
Q

A 50-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with “heartburn,” which he has suffered from for many years and usually self-controls with antacids. However, recently his symptoms have worsened and are disrupting his sleep. He also admits that he occasionally has difficulty swallowing. - Dx?

A

barretts oesophagus

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42
Q

A 70-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with difficulty swallowing and pain on swallowing. He has a long history of Barrett’s Oesophagus, but never attended his review appointments. The only alcohol he drinks is a glass of wine at New Year; he has never smoked. - Dx?

A

adenocarcinoma of the lower 1/3 of the oesophagus

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43
Q

adenocarcinoma arises from what cell type

A

gland cells

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44
Q

squamous cell carcinoma arises from what cell type

A

epithelial cells

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45
Q

what type of cancer is more common at the lower 1/3 of the oesophagus

A

adenocarcinoma

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46
Q

what type of cancer is more common in the upper 2/3 of the oesophagus

A

squamous cell carcinoma

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47
Q

Mx croup

A

oral steroids

48
Q

Mx reactive airways allergy

A

neb salbutamol

49
Q

Ix of brain if suspicion of underlying pathology

A

CT brain

50
Q

ABG in hyperventilation panic attack

A

resp alkalosis

51
Q

PCO2 in severe asthma attack

A

low

52
Q

PCO2 in near fatal asthma attack

A

normal

53
Q

what group of drug interacts with lithium to reduce its secretion

A

NSAIDS

54
Q

complete heart block ECG

A

no correlation between P waves and QRS complexes

55
Q

when are patients at highest risk of neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

when typical antipsychotics are used and physical restraint has been required

56
Q

8 y/o girl stopped growing - most likely cause?

A

hypothyroidism

57
Q

somatisation definition

A

multiple recurrent physical symptoms with no structural cause and persistent refusal to accept reassurance of no structural cause

58
Q

metabolic s/e of carbamazepine

A

hyponatraemia

59
Q

phosphate levels in vit D deficiency

A

low

60
Q

calcium levels in vit D deficiency

A

low

61
Q

alk phos levels in vit D deficiency

A

high - due to osteoblastic activity

62
Q

what happens to blood pressure in preg

A

decreases in 2nd trim - due to expansion of placenta and decrease in peripheral resistance - returns to pre-preg level by third trim

63
Q

what happens to cardiac output in preg

A

increases by 30-50%

64
Q

what happens to GFR in preg

A

increases by 30-50%

65
Q

what happens to erythropoiesis in preg

A

increases by 25%

66
Q

what happens to tidal volume in preg

A

increases

67
Q

what happens to minute volume in preg

A

increases

68
Q

what happens to vital capacity in preg

A

stays the same

69
Q

The preferred measure of central tendency in a normally distributed data set.

A

mean

70
Q

what is neurogenic pruritus

A

caused by an effect on CNS receptors e.g. renal or liver failure, malignancy

71
Q

what is a neuropathic pruritus

A

the nerve receptors themselves are damaged e.g. shingles

72
Q

what is a pruritoceptive pruritus

A

physical irritation in the skin causing the itch e.g. insect bite, eczema

73
Q

cause of pneumonia in an outbreak in a nursing home if received influenza vaccine 5w ago

A

legionella

74
Q

Ix of malrotation

A

upper GI contrast enema

75
Q

2ndary prevention for a pt who has had a stroke with AF

A

warfarin or factor Xa inhibitor (apixaban)

76
Q

what to give a pt before contrast if they are at risk of contrast nephropathy

A

IV NaCl

77
Q

78 y/o lady found collapsed at home and been lying on floor all night. has an AKI but CK high but not in range of rhabdo - whats the cause of her AKI?

A

hypovolaemia - dehydration from lying on floor all night

78
Q

what CK range is diagnostic of rhabo

A

> 10,000

79
Q
which of these is most likely to cause hyponatraemia:
amlodipine 
atenolol 
doxazosin 
bendroflumethiazide 
ramipril
A

bendroflumethiazide

80
Q

Ix for suspected cervical spine #

A

CT scan neck (not cervical spine xray)

81
Q

presentation of ectopic beats

A

feels as if heart stops followed by pounding sensation

82
Q

supraventricular or ventricular ectopic beats - what are more common in young perople

A

supraventricular

83
Q

ventilation in obstructive sleep apnoea

A

CPAP

84
Q

do all pts with AF get Tx

A

no - if its an incidental finding and rate not high and CHADSVASc score 0 then no Tx

85
Q

when is a paralytic ileus most common

A

after an op

86
Q

Mx of a paralytic ileus

A

drip and suck - insert NG tube and fluids

87
Q

presentation of lymphogranuloma venerum

A

proctitis and tender lymphadenopathy

88
Q

what is radiation brachytherapy

A

internal radiotherapy - radioactive implants are put near to the tumour

89
Q

Mx gout

A
  1. NSAIDs, colchicine
90
Q

assessing fluid overload - what gives signs of adequate hydration

A

normal urine output

91
Q

how to bring someones BP up if their fluid status is fine

A

vasoconstrictors e.g. noradrenaline/norepiphrenine

92
Q

Mx of shoulder pain if no Hx of injury and no nerve injury symptoms

A

refer for physio

93
Q

which part of the brain is signs of early Alz disease likely to be seen

A

temporal lobe

94
Q

what type of analgesia should be avoided for post-ops in patients with severe respiratory disease

A

opioid - by any route

95
Q

measurement of carbon monoxide inhalation

A

carboxyhaemoglobin

96
Q

further Ix of pt with unprovoked DVT

A

?underlying malignancy - so do CT abdo pelvis

97
Q

long term medication for pt with mechanical heart valves

A

aspirin and warfarin

98
Q

what is a prospective cohort

A

following a group of individuals to determine how a factor affects outcomes

99
Q

what is a retrospective cohort

A

analysing how a factor has affected outcomes when the event has already happened

100
Q

screening test for haemochromatosis

A

transferrin saturation

101
Q

fasting times for clear liquids and solids pre-op

A

clear liquids - 2h

solids - 6h

102
Q

Ix of a non-functioning thyroid nodule

A

US of neck - cant just leave alone

103
Q

presentation of epididymal cyst

A

separate to the testis
can get above it
transilluminates

104
Q

presentation hyrdocele

A

surrounds the testis
can get above it
transilluminates

105
Q

maintenance fluid requirement for someone with underlying cardiac disease

A

20-25ml/kg

106
Q

A 62 year old man has acute breathlessness with a weak cough, following a recent viral upper respiratory infection. Over the past 4 months, he has
had double vision, limb weakness and slurred speech when tired. - Dx?

A

myasthenia crisis

107
Q

parameter to monitor respiratory function in myasthenic crisis

A

FVC

108
Q

most common pathogen in leg cellulitis

A

s. pyogenes

109
Q

Mx of superficial thrombophlebitis

A

naproxen

110
Q

Mx of venous leg ulcer that is slowly healing with normal ABPI

A

compression stocking

111
Q

recurrent candidiasis - what should u test for

A

diabetes

112
Q

nephrotic syndrome in adults - what Ix should you do

A

renal biopsy - need to find cause

113
Q

ABG in DKA

A

metabolic acidosis

114
Q

ABG in methanol overdose

A

metabolic acidosis

115
Q

ABG in panic attack

A

resp alkalosis, with normal O2

116
Q

ABG in pulmonary embolus

A

resp alkalosis (as a result of being hypoxic - they hyperventilate)

117
Q

ABG in vomiting

A

metabolic alkalosis