CAR Flashcards

(385 cards)

1
Q

What is the hearts function?

A

mechanical pump

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2
Q

What is arteries function?

A

transport usually oxygenated blood away from the heart

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3
Q

What are veins function?

A

transport usually deoxygenated blood towards the heart

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4
Q

What are capillaries function?

A

they are the site of exchange of substances

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5
Q

What is the function of blood?

A

Transport of cellular components and dissolved substances

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6
Q

What is the function of the lymphatic system?

A

to return tissue fluid to systemic circulation

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7
Q

in brainscape folder match species comparison of circulation

A

fish, mammal, amphibian

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8
Q

what phrase describes mammalian circulation?

A

double closed circulation

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9
Q

Fill in the gaps

The right atrium receives ?????? blood from around the body via the ??????

The left atrium receives ???????blood from the lungs via the ????????

A

deoxygenated, vena cava, oxygenated, pulmonary vein

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10
Q

in blood vessels what is the tunica media?

A

the concentric sheets of smooth muscle

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10
Q

in blood vessels what is the tunica interna?

A

endothelial lining (innermost tunica (layer) of an artery or vein)

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10
Q

what is the lumen of a blood vessel?

A

cavity of the organ

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10
Q

in blood vessels what is the tunica externa/adventitia?

A

connective tissue sheath around vessel

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11
Q

what are elastic arteries?

A

Conducting artery, expand during systole and recoil during diastole

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12
Q

What are muscular arteries

A

Medium sized, changes (vaso constriction/vasodilation) affect blood pressure

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13
Q

Describe capillaries

A

small diameter, endothelial layer only

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14
Q

describe arterioles

A

Small diameter, which changes in response to local conditions e.g. O2 levels

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15
Q

identify structures of the heart diagram in BrainScape folder unanswered

A

look at answered version

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16
Q

What are the 2 atrioventricular valves and which one is on what side?

A

tricuspid (right) mitral/bicuspid (left)

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16
Q

What are the 2 semilunar valves and which one is on what side?

A

pulmonic (right) and aortic (left)

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17
Q

what is meant by a cardiac cycle?

A

Each complete contraction and relaxation of the heart is called a cardiac cycle. There are two main parts to the cardiac cycle: systole and diastole

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18
Q

What is systole?

A

During systole the heart muscle contracts

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19
Q

what is diastole?

A

During diastole the heart muscle relaxes

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20
Q

describe the processes and steps of the cardiac cycle?

A
  • When ventricular pressure becomes lower than atrial pressure the AV valves open
  • Ventricles fill with blood.
    Atria contract and force more blood into ventricles
  • The ventricles contract, increasing the ventricular pressure
  • When the ventricular pressure increases above atrial pressure, the AV valve close
  • When the pressure inside the ventricles exceeds the pressure in the outgoing arteries, the semilunar valves open
  • . As a result of ventricular systole and opening of the semilunar valves, blood flows from ventricles into the arteries
  • Pressure in ventricle drops below aortic pressure. The Semilunar valves close
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21
functions of the cardio-respiratory system
Transport – to and from metabolising tissue Oxygen and carbon dioxide Nutrients Waste Heat Hormones Homeostasis pH, osmolarity, electrolytes etc Infection Other Generate pressure (eg renal filtration)
22
What does heart disease normally involve?
Disease usually involves valve degeneration, and the valve becoming incompetent or diseases of the heart muscle, resulting the heart not contracting well OR not filling well
23
what is cardiac output and stroke volume?
volume delivered into the circulation per minute volume delivered by the ventricle per beat
23
What is heart failure?
Heart failure is a syndrome in which the heart fails to deliver blood effectively to meet the requirements of metabolising tissues
24
What happens during ventricular systole?
Ventricular systole = contraction of ventricles Results in cardiac output Atrioventricular valves close The source of the first heart sound – “Lub”
25
What are important controlling factors of venous return?
Important controlling factors: Sympathetic nervous system Blood volume Muscle (respiratory) pump
26
what is venous return?
process by which deoxygenated blood is returned to the heart
27
what are portal veins?
portal veins are found between two capillary beds (site of diffusion)
28
what is the fancy name for cardiac ultrasound?
echocardiography
29
have a go at labelling the renal portal system in brainscape
look at the labelled version
30
what regulates portal blood flow?
renal portal valve
31
what is the function of the renal portal system
Receives blood from caudal body and returns it to the heart via the kidneys
32
label the 5 zones of the primitive tube from which the mammalian heart develops are very similar to the heart of the primitive fish and anurans in brainscape folder
look at answer
33
How many chambers are in aa fish heart? describe its blood flow
Simple cardiovascular system “2 chambers” to the heart Blood flows in one direction effectively through a single atrium and ventricle (technically there are 6 chambers similar to the primitive tube) Vasculature includes gills to accommodate oxygenation Heart is often positioned ventral and caudal to the gills
34
how many chambers are in an amphibians heart? describe its blood flow?
In anurans we start to see 2 atria – 3 chambers in total Oxygenation occurs from lungs, skin and buccal cavity hence vasculature more complex compared to mammals Heart is mid cranial coelom Like birds they have no diaphragm, hence the term coelom again
35
how many chambers do most reptiles have? describe its blood flow
Most reptiles have 3 chambers, with 2 atria and 1 ventricle. The ventricle is split into 3 sections by folds in the muscle wall Crocodiles are an exception with 4 chambers but distinct differences from mammals still (2 x aortas) All reptiles can shunt blood away from the respiratory tract when needed. For most species the heart is mid cranial coelom, some very cranial (base of the neck). For snakes the heart is often found in the cranial third of the body.
36
What is the cardio-respiratory systems functions?
Transport – to and from metabolising tissue Oxygen and carbon dioxide Nutrients Waste Heat Hormones Homeostasis pH, osmolarity, electrolytes etc Infection Other Generate pressure (eg renal filtration)
37
What is heart failure?
Heart failure is a syndrome in which the heart fails to deliver blood effectively to meet the requirements of metabolising tissues
38
What is name for cardiac contraction and relaxation?
systole and diastole respectfully
39
What does ventricular systole result in?
Ventricular systole = contraction of ventricles Results in cardiac output Atrioventricular valves close The source of the first heart sound – “Lub”
40
What does ventricular diastole result in?
Ventricular diastole = relaxation of ventricles Results in ventricular filling Semi-lunar valves close The source of the second heart sound – “Dub”
41
What are the 2 methods of regulating cardiovascular function? Describe how these work?
regulation of cardiac function and regulation of the vasculature. Regulation of cardiac function Need to consider: Can change heart rate and contractility Electrical activity (Electrophysiology) Assessment of this using an ECG Contractile function control The important role of the autonomic nervous system Hormonal mechanisms (local and systemic) Regulation of the vasculature Autoregulation - local blood flow regulation, intrinsic ability of an organ to maintain a constant blood flow despite changes in perfusion pressure. The important role of the autonomic nervous system Hormonal mechanisms (local and systemic)
42
What does contractility mean?
the strength of contractions
43
What do you have to consider as the heart as a pump?
Cardiac Output (volume delivered into the circulation per minute) Stroke Volume (volume delivered by the ventricle per beat) Other pumping mechanisms (venous) ….and what control these
44
What do you have to consider for the distribution of blood within the heart and vasculature?
Vascular constriction and dilation – arteries AND veins The maintenance of unidirectional flow in vital organs Cardiac valves Vascular valves
45
What is cardiac output?
Is the amount of blood pumped per minute
46
What are the important controlling factors of venous return?
Sympathetic nervous system Blood volume Muscle (respiratory) pump
47
Where are portal veins found?
between 2 capillary beds
48
Look at heart of different animals unlabelled and try and complete in brainscape folder
look at answered version
49
What are the main features of the avian CNS? And where is the heart located?
Main features of the avian CVS: 4 chambered heart similar to mammals mammals AV valves are different in structure compared to mammals The heart is located within the cranial ventral coelom and is surrounded by air sacs Term coelom is used because birds don’t have a diaphragm
50
How to birds mainly increase cardiac output?
By increasing heart rate (115-670BPM)
51
How to birds heart size fluctuate
they increase prior to migration in migratory species
52
Key points surrounding avian cardiac function
Ventricles Left sided ventricular wall 3x thicker than right Empty almost completely on each cardiac cycle Low end-systolic volume
53
What type of animals have a renal portal system? What is its role and function? And what is its clinical importance?
Reptiles, birds, amphibians and most fish – not in mammals Receives blood from caudal body and returns it to the heart via the kidneys It functions to supply blood to renal tubules at all times Portal blood flow regulated by renal portal valve. Alters how drugs will act in these species: for example if injected in caudal half of the body then maybe metabolised before entering general circulation
54
Look at renal portal system unlabelled in BrainScape folder
Look at labelled version
55
Label the 5 primitive zones of the primitive tube
Look at the labelled answered version
56
Important features of the fish cardiac system
Simple cardiovascular system “2 chambers” to the heart Blood flows in one direction effectively through a single atrium and ventricle (technically there are 6 chambers similar to the primitive tube) Vasculature includes gills to accommodate oxygenation Heart is often positioned ventral and caudal to the gills
57
Important features of the amphibian heart
In anurans we start to see 2 atria – 3 chambers in total Oxygenation occurs from lungs, skin and buccal cavity hence vasculature more complex compared to mammals Heart is mid cranial coelom Like birds they have no diaphragm, hence the term coelom again
58
Label components of the amphibians heart (unlabelled)
Look at the answer version
59
Important features of the reptiles heart
Most reptiles have 3 chambers, with 2 atria and 1 ventricle. The ventricle is split into 3 sections by folds in the muscle wall Crocodiles are an exception with 4 chambers but distinct differences from mammals still (2 x aortas) All reptiles can shunt blood away from the respiratory tract when needed. For most species the heart is mid cranial coelom, some very cranial (base of the neck). For snakes the heart is often found in the cranial third of the body.
60
What are the principle functions of the circulatory system
Transport - Delivers O2 from lungs and nutrients from digestive system Removes waste, heat and CO2 from tissues Hormones Protective function – carries WBC and Ig Homeostasis – pH, ions, fluid volume Pressure
61
Complete local circulatory rules Where do the kidney renal artery go to , and the efferent arterioles?
Look at answered version Kidney renal artery to the glomerulus, efferent arterioles takes oxygenated blood to the kidney tissue
62
What percentage is the heart approximately of body weight?
0.75% - relatively larger in smaller animals
63
What are the landmarks of the heart?
Ventral border of the lungs Cardiac notch (L>R) Lungs laterally Phrenic nerve Thymus cranially Diaphragm caudally
64
What does the thymus do?
produces and trains t-cells
65
What does the phrenic nerve innervate?
motor innervation to the diaphragm
66
Complete thorax landmarks diagram
Look at completed version
67
Where does the heart lie in the dog? What percentage of the heart lies to the median plane?
in mediastinum (The mediastinum is a space in your chest that holds your heart and other important structures) 60% is to the left of the median plane
68
Where does the apex of the heart sit? How do the right and left ventricle sit? Is the base dorsal or ventral) What ribs are in the lateral projection of the heart?
Apex sits in sternum – costochondral junction 6 Right ventricle is CRANIAL to left! Base is dorsal Ribs 3-6
69
What is the coronary groove? What do the paraconal groove and subsinual groove mark? Which one is cranial and caudal?
groove that splits the atria from the ventricles. It is also where the coronary arteries sit in Paraconal and subsinuosal groove mark where the septum is. Pulmonary artery is on the right side. Paraconal groove cranially Subsinuosal groove caudally
70
What is the pericardium? and What does it contain?
Sac surrounding the heart Inner visceral layer on surface of the heart Outer parietal layer No significant lumen
71
Where is the intervenous tubercle found and what is its role?
Intervenous tubercule diverts blood into the atrium.
72
What are the 2 names of the vena cava in animals? What does the azygous veins do?
cranial and caudal vena cava, intervenous tubercle sits in the middle of these at the point at which they meet It brings blood back from the thorax
73
What does the trabecula septomarginalis do?
Trabecula septomarginalis (also known as the moderator band) ensures communication is quick on both sides found in the right ventricle
74
75
How many cusps does the tricuspid and bicuspid (mitral valve) have? What is the name for the heart strings?
2 cusps Chordae tendiae - papillary muscles
76
What is the name of the right and left semilunar valves and how many cusps do they have?
R semilunar - pulmonic L semilunar - aortic 3 cusps
77
When do the semilunar valves open
When pressure in ventricles exceeds that of aorta and pulmonary artery
78
What is the myocardium?
The myocardium is the middle muscular layer of the heart, situated between the inner endocardium and the outer epicardium. Also known as the cardiomyocytes
79
What is the epicardium?
The outer layer of the heart wall that protects the inner layers and produces pericardial fluid. Also known as the visceral pericardium
80
What is the endocardium?
The endocardium is the innermost layer of tissue that lines the chambers and valves of the heart. It is composed of a thin, smooth tissue that serves as a barrier between the cardiac muscles and the bloodstream, ensuring efficient blood flow.
81
Describe the structure of cardiomyocytes
Large, cylindrical cells Striated (myofibrils) – like skeletal m. Short, branched fibres Lots of mitochondria
82
What are intercalated discs? and what is there function?
Connect adjacent cardiac muscle cells. Allow for Cell-to-cell communication Required for coordinated muscle contraction
83
What are purkinje fibres and why are they important?
Specialised conducting tissue Deliver electrical activity to myocardium
84
Compare sympathetic nervous system and parasympathetic system in terms of neurons and target sites and regions
Sympathetic nervous system Preganglionic neurons are relatively short and originate from the thoracic and lumber regions of the spinal cord. Postganglionic neurons are relatively long and extend from the sympathetic ganglia to the target organs Parasympathetic nervous systems Preganglionic neurons are relatively long and originate from the brainstem and sacral (relating to the sacrum a triangular-shaped bone at the base of the back) regions of the spinal cord Postganglionic neurons are relatively short and extend from the parasympathetic ganglia to the target tissues.
85
What type of receptors are involved in pre-ganglionic receptors in the SNS and PSNS? What neurotransmitter works on these and what is its designation?
Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors. Worked on by acetylcholine, designation is cholinergic
86
What type of receptors are involved in the adrenal medulla fibre (inner part of your adrenal gland)? What neurotransmitter works on these and what is its designation?
alpha and or beta receptors. Acted on by adrenaline (epinephrine) and its designation is adrenergic
87
What type of receptors are involved in post-ganglionic receptors in the SNS? What neurotransmitter works on these and what is its designation?
alpha and beta receptors. Noradrenaline (norepinephrine), adrenergic
88
What type of receptors are involved in post-ganglionic receptors in the PSNS? What neurotransmitter works on these and what is its designation?
muscarinic acetylcholine receptors, acetylcholine, nicotinic
89
What do alpha and beta receptors cause?
Alpha receptors stimulate effector cells and are responsible for vasoconstriction and increasing blood pressure. Beta receptors relax effector cells and are responsible for vasodilation and decreasing blood pressure.
90
What are adrenergic receptors?
Adrenergic receptors are a class of G protein-coupled receptors that are targets of many catecholamines like norepinephrine and epinephrine produced by the blood. Catecholamines are a monoamine neurotransmitter with a benzene group and two attached hydroxy groups (-OH) right next to each other
91
What are muscarinic acetylcholine receptors?
Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors are a type of acetylcholine receptors that are G protein-coupled receptors.
92
1) In what circumstance is the sympathetic NS activated?
It is activated in situations that require a fight or flight response, such as stress, physical activity, emergency situations and excitement.
93
What outflow from the CNS does the SNS have?
It has a thoracolumbar outflow as the SNS originates from the thoracic (T1 to T12) and lumbar (L1 to L2) segments of the spinal cord.
94
Where are the ganglia located in the SNS?
The ganglia in the SNS are located in specific regions that facilitate the relay of signals from the CNS to target organs. Paravertebral ganglia (sympathetic chain ganglia) are on either side of the spinal column and extend from the base of the skull to the coccyx (tailbone). These are closely associated with the thoracic and lumbar regions of the spinal cord where the preganglionic neurons originate. Prevertebral ganglia are located anterior (towards the front of) to the vertebral column, near major arteries Adrenal medulla acts as a modified ganglion. It releases adrenaline and noradrenaline directly into the blood stream in response to sympathetic stimulation.
95
Complete organisation of the SNS unlabelled version
look at labelled version
96
When is the PSNS system activated?
The PSNS is activated during rest-and-digest situations, promoting relaxation, recovery, and maintenance of the body’s homeostasis. Specific circumstances causing this include relaxation, eating, resting and reproductive activities.
97
How does the outflow differ in the parasympathetic NS?
For PSNS you have a craniosacral outflow, the PSNS originates in the brainstem and the sacral (relating to the sacrum, a triangular-shaped bone at the base of the back) region of the spinal cord.
98
Which cranial nerves are involved in the PSNS?
The preganglionic neurons of the PSNS arise from the cranial nerves (oculomotor, facial, glossopharyngeal and Nictitans) as well as the sacral nerves which arise from the sacral spinal cord segments S2 to S4 and innervate the lower abdominal and pelvic organs.
99
Where are the ganglia located in the PSNS located and how does this differ to the SNS?
In the PSNS, the ganglia are located closer to or within the target organs they innervate. This is different from the SNS, where the ganglia are generally located near the spinal cord.
100
What are the name of the reflexes that acts as neural regulation of the ANS? These work by a feedback cycle that involves which nervous system? What 4 functions are controlled by these reflexes to maintain homeostasis?
autonomic reflexes. Autonomic reflexes regulate various involuntary bodily functions essential for maintaining homeostasis. afferent nervous system 1. Heart rate regulation 2. Respiratory rate 3. Digestive processes 4. Pupil dilation and constriction
101
The SNS has 2 effects on the heart, what are they?
The 2 primary affects the SNS have on the heart is: Increased heart rate (positive chronotropy) – SNS releases norepinephrine which binds to beta-1 adrenergic receptors in the heart. This interaction increases heart rate by accelerating the rate of depolarization of the SA node, the hearts natural pacemaker. Increased force of contraction (positive inotropy) –norepinephrine binding to beta-1 adrenergic receptors also enhances the force of contraction of the heart muscle. This increases the volume of blood ejected with each beat improving the overall cardiac output.
102
What is the effect of the SNS on the lungs?
The SNS has several effects on the lungs, primarily through the activation of beta-2 adrenergic receptors in the bronchial smooth muscles, The main effects: - bronchodilation – SNS stimulates the release of norepinephrine, which binds to the beta-2 adrenergic receptors in the bronchial smooth muscles. This leads to the relaxation of these muscles, causing the airways to widen. Bronchodilation increase the airflow into and out of the lungs, which is especially important during physical activity or stressful situations when the body’s oxygen demand is higher. Decreased secretions –SNS can reduce mucus secretion in the airways, helping to keep them clear and improve airflow. This is achieved by inhibiting the activity of certain glands in the respiratory tract.
103
Compare the length of pre- and post- ganglionic fibres in the SNS?
Pre-G fibres are relatively short in length Post-G fibres are relatively long in length
104
What are baroreceptors involved in? Where are they located?
Blood pressure receptors. Carotid sinus, aortic arch The carotid sinus, also known as the carotid bulb, is a neurovascular structure that appears as a dilation at the bifurcation of the common carotid artery into the internal and external carotid bodies. It is localized near the arterial pulse. Monitor blood pressure going towards the brain. The aortic arch, arch of the aorta, or transverse aortic arch is the part of the aorta between the ascending and descending aorta. Monitor the blood pressure of the blood flowing through the systemic circulation.
105
What processes do chemoreceptors control? What is the location of these chemoreceptors?
They detect changes in the chemical composition of the blood and other bodily fluids. 1. Peripheral chemoreceptors (carotid bodies, aortic bodies) 2. Central chemoreceptors Carotid bodies are small clusters of chemoreceptors located at the bifurcation of the common carotid arteries into the internal and external carotid arteries. They monitor the levels of oxygen, carbon dioxide, and ph in the blood. Aortic bodies are located near the aortic arch and similarly monitor blood levels of oxygen, carbon dioxide and ph. They are less sensitive than carotid bodies but contribute to respiratory regulation. Central chemoreceptors are located on the ventral surface of the medulla oblongata in the brainstem. They primarily monitor the ph of the cerebrospinal fluid which indirectly reflects the levels of carbon dioxide in the blood. These chemoreceptors play a crucial role in regulating the rate and depth of breathing.
106
What happens when blood loss occurs?
Baroreceptors firing frequency falls, which tells the CNS that BP is low, altered impulse frequency to the effector increasing HR and vasoconstriction, compensatory systems are activated
107
Where are the sympathetic cardiac nerves found in the heart?
within the cardiac plexus (network of nerves that innervate the heart)
108
Post ganglionic fibres in the heart go to the SA Node and AV Node (in the walls of the heart), what is the importance of this? What is the term used for this?
Controls rate and rhythm, another term for this (=ve/-ve) cardiac regulation effect
109
Post ganglionic fibres also go to the myocardium, what does this cause? what is another name for this?
Post-G fibres also go to the myocardium  this controls the force of contraction = +ve/-ve intropic effect
110
What does negative chronotropy mean and negative inotropy mean? What system does this affect?
Effects are generally opposite to that of the SNS. Negative chronotropy (decreased heart rate), negative inotropy (reduced force of contraction)
111
What is the effect of the PSNS on the heart and lungs?
Heart- negative chronotropy (decreased heart rate), negative inotropy (slight reduction in contractility) Lungs – bronchoconstriction (narrowing of the airways), increased mucus secretion.
112
In both the sympathetic and parasympathetic system, what receptors are stimulated or inhibited in the lungs?
SNS - B2-adrenergic receptors involved - stimulate bronchodilation by stimulation on bronchial smooth muscle, causing relaxation and inhibition of mucous secretion PSNS -muscarinic receptors - stimulate bronchoconstriction and increased mucus secretion - Ach released from vagus nerve endings binds to m3 receptors on bronchial smooth muscle and glands
113
What is the cardiac plexus?
The cardiac plexus is a network of autonomic nerves located near the base of the heart, mainly around the aortic arch and bifurcation of the trachea. It plays a central role in regulating heart rate, force of contraction, and coronary blood flow.
114
Describe the network of the pre-ganglionic fibres from the recurrent laryngeal and vagal nerves?
Pre-G fibres travel in branches of the recurrent laryngeal and vagal nerves to the cardiac plexus. The post-G fibres end in the atrial walls.
115
What are the effects of increased sympathetic activity on CNS?
Increased sympathetic activity causes an increase in epinephrine in blood and increase in norepinephrine from sympathetic nerve endings. Adrenergic receptors are stimulated and cause an increased generation of cyclic AMP, which causes increased phosphorylation of voltage-gated CA2+ channels and increased phosphorylation of phospholamban. Increased phosphorylation of voltage-gated ca2+ channels cause an increase opening time of the channels and an increase in ca2+ influx from extracellular fluid, which causes an increase an induced ca2+ release from sarcoplasmic reticulum which causes more forceful contraction. Increased phosphorylation of phospholamban causes an increase in transport of ca2+ from cytosol and back to the sarcoplasmic reticulum which causes a shorter contraction time.
116
Normal heart rate for small dogs, medium to large dogs and puppies
90-140BPM for small dogs 60-100BPM for medium to large dogs 120-160BPM for puppies
117
What are heart murmurs?
Heart murmurs are unique heart sounds produced when blood flows across a heart valve or blood vessel. A murmur is an abnormal extra sound, which can sometimes drown out the normal sounds. They most commonly occur between the lub dub and have a shooshing or whooshing quality.
118
What is the normal respiratory rate for puppies and smaller dogs, and for larger dogs
10-20 for larger dogs 20-30 for puppies and smaller dogs
119
What is CRT
Capillary refill time. This is how long it takes the pink colour to return in your pets mouth. Should be less than 2 seconds
120
What is meant by gingivitis?
The inflammation of gums.
121
What causes a heart murmur?
Turbulent flow causes a heart murmur. So not a calm smooth manner. The turbulence occurs because there is a hole in the heart between two chambers or two arteries that are not normally connected: these are mostly ventricular septal defects. Another cause is narrowing (stenosis) within a chamber or vessel through which the blood has to squeeze through.
122
What is the difference between a systolic and diastolic heart murmur?
The difference lies at the timing of the abnormal heart sounds during the cardiac cycle. Systolic heart murmur– occurs between the lub and the dub noise, during ventricular contraction. Diastolic heart murmur – occurs after the dub noise and before the lub noise, during ventricular relaxation.
123
What do we generally mean by blood pressure?
aortic pressure
124
What is a phonogram?
A phonogram shows where in a cycle you can hear the noise of the heart.
125
what is the lub or s1 noise caused by? how about the dub or the s2 noise?
S1 closing of the AV valves S2 closing of the semilunar valves (reverberation from the sudden block of flow)
126
What diagram can illustrate the pressure changes in the heart that occur during a cardiac cycle and when heart sounds occur?
a Wigger's diagram
127
What percentage of time is systole and diastole in a cardiac cycle?
systole 35%, diastole 65%
128
How many noise do you hear in a normal healthy horse per cycle?
4 s1-s4
129
Describes the state of the heart valves during the ejection phase of the cardiac cycle?
Atrioventricular valves closed , semi-lunar valves open
130
What are the 4 phases of the cardiac cycle?
Filling phase (i.e. ‘diastole’) Ventricles fill during diastole (and atrial systole). Isovolumetric contraction phase Ventricles contract, but volume remains constant because the heart valves are closed. Pressure builds. Outflow phase (i.e. ‘systole’) Ventricles contract, valves open, blood into aorta/pulm art. Isovolumetric relaxation Ventricles relax, ready for refill with blood in the next filling phase
131
Which of these events occur during systole and diastole? Isovolumetric contraction, rapid ejection, reduced ejection, atrial systole, isovolumetric relaxation, rapid ventricular filling, diastasis (heart muscle relax and allow chambers to fill with blood)
systole - isovolumetric contraction, rapid ejection, reduced ejection diastole - atrial systole, isovolumetric relaxation, rapid ventricular filling, diastasis
132
What's involved in atrial systole?
Last phase of diastole (ECG (electrodiagram) P to R-wave) Depolarisation of the atria leads to atrial contraction (see the ‘a’ wave on the atrial pressure curve). A tiny amount of ‘topping off’ completely fills the ventricle.
133
What is involved in isovolumetric contraction?
First phase of systole Begins at the peak of the R-wave of the ECG No real change in the volume of the ventricles during this phase First heart sound (‘lub’) = closing of the A-V valves, associated blood turbulence when ventricular pressure exceeds atrial pressure
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What is involved in the rapid injection phase?
During ST segment When ventricular pressure exceeds that in the aorta or the pulmonary artery, semilunar valves open and rapid ejection (2/3) from the ventricles starts ‘c’ wave in the atrial pressure curve is caused by slight (due to papillary muscles) distension of the A-V valves into the atria (normally not measurable)
135
What is involved in the reduced ejection phase?
- Final phase of systole - Coincides with the T-wave of the ECG (ventricular repolarisation) - Blood flow out of the ventricles continues, but more slowly (hence, ‘reduced ejection’) - Eventually, pressure in the ventricle falls below that in the arteries. Semilunar valves close
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What is involved in the isovolumetric phase?
- First phase of diastole - Atria have been filling with blood (atop the closed A-V valves) and atrial pressure has been rising gradually - Blood flow out of the ventricles stops (hopefully the ventricles are sufficiently empty) - 2nd heart sound (‘dup’) occurs when the semilunar valves close
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What is involved in the rapid ventricular filling phase?
- When ventricular pressure falls below atrial pressure, the A-V valves open. - This allows blood to flow from the atria into the ventricles. - sometimes a sound heard – indicative of congestive heart failure ? (atrial press. too high)
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what happens during the isovolumetric contraction phase of the cardiac cycle
Both ventricles contract simultaneously, causing a pressure increase but no change in blood volume in the heart
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Which of the stages of the cardiac cycle corresponds to the ST segment on an ECG?
Rapid Ventricular Ejection
140
What does the venous pulse tell you?
The venous pulse reflects the dynamic changes in pressure and volume in the heart's right atrium and its interaction with venous return
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What does the venous pulse waveform typically consist of?
the venous pulse waveform typically consists of three positive waves (a, c, and v wave) and three descents (x, x’, and y descent), each linked to specific phases of cardiac function…pto
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Venous return plays a key role in forming venous pulses. What happens if venous return is increased or decreased?
Increased venous return elevates right atrial pressure and can exaggerate waveforms. Decreased venous return diminishes the magnitude of the pulses. This interaction highlights the dependency of venous pulses on preload and the heart's ability to manage systemic venous return
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what does the c wave, X descent, X' descent, V wave and y descent in venous pulse reflect?
c wave- tricuspid valve bulging x descent - atrial relaxation x' descent - ventricular systole v wave - atrial filling y descent - ventricular filling
144
What does venous pulse shows and what can careful observations tell you?
The venous pulse is a dynamic reflection of the pressure changes in the right atrium caused by the phases of the cardiac cycle. Careful observation of the venous pulse can offer critical insights into cardiac function and potential pathologies
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What does the ventricular pressure-volume loop represent?
The ventricular pressure-volume (PV) loop graphically represents the relationship between pressure and volume in the left ventricle during a single cardiac cycle. This loop is instrumental in understanding cardiac mechanics, as it delineates the phases of ventricular filling, isovolumetric contraction, ejection, and isovolumetric relaxation
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ventricular pressure-volume loops unlabelled
answered version
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What is more obvious arterial or venous pulse? and when will they be felt?
Arterial pulse will be felt at max ventricular pressure (ejects into arterial network) Venous pulse will reflect atrial pressure (and will not be as obvious)
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what is always filling in the cardiac cycle?
atria are always filling
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What is an angiogram?
An angiogram is a type of X-ray used to examine blood vessels. They don’t show up on ordinary X-rays so a special dye is injected into the area being examined.
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fetal circulation unlabelled version
fetal circulation labelled version
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post-natal circulation unlabelled
labelled version
152
What is the first organ to undergo functional differentiation and how does this work?
the heart CV system begins when cardiogenic plate of mesodermal tissue develops at cranial end of embryonic disc Blood islands form in cranial end of embryo in early w2. Islands form two parallel vascular tubes which are brought to the ventral side of embryo to fuse to form a single tube as embryo folds. Embryo folding at head (and tail) ends. Cephalic folding brings developing cardiac tube into chest region. Neural tube grows quicker than rest of embryo (especially at cranial end due to brain development) and is fixed at two ends so embryo FOLDS (becoming a tubular embryo) Heart falls to right (D-looping)
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What are the Five zones of the primitive cardiac tube, use diagram? What is the importance of these?
- arterial trunk/ truncus arteriosus (origin of the pulmonary artery and aorta) - bulbus cordis form ventricle - ventricle form ventricle - atrium - sinus venosus There are named constrictions. The constrictions later become chambers as the names show. It is formed by the formation of these two tubes on each side that developed in the cardiogenic mesoderm.
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What happens during cardiac looping?
Right horn of sinus venosus becomes incorporated into atrial wall Left horn not incorporated – becomes coronary sinus on atrial surface of heart The whole thing sort of twists just not falling to the right. It just twists and twists even more and then the thing fuses together. Look at cardiac looping image
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How is blood initially received from the body? How does this then change to what we are used to?
It is initially received from the sinus venosus and goes into the primitive atrium. The endocardial cushions, expand and start to separate of the atria from the ventricles below. The endocardial cushions will also from the valve flaps and chordae tendinea (heart strings). Look at endocardial cushions image
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What occurs during interatrial septation?
look at interatrial septation image
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what is a neonate
a newborn baby, particulary during the first 28 days of life
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Why is fetal circulation different?
Fetus ‘breathes’ amniotic fluid (not air, as lungs deflated) Therefore pulmonary artery does not carry oxygen it Is not really needed Fetal blood is oxygen-poor (hypoxaemic) This is normal, but haemoglobin is ‘different’ to pick up oxygen at greater affinity at a lower Partial Pressure of oxygen Fetus swims in amniotic fluid Provides a Stable temperature it is buffering Water helps protect from bumps Fetus is fed parenterally (umbilical cord), not orally Therefore hepatic portal vein is not needed
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Why postnatally do you not want tissues under high blood pressure?
Postnatally the foetus is very fragile, and tissues are fragile you don’t want them under high blood pressure.
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How is the foetus fed and pathway and how is this different?
The foetus is fed parentally (fed nutrition straight into the veins, not going through the gut, GI tract and is then modified by the hepatic portal vein to the liver. First passes through the liver and sort of screens it. None of this happens in the foetus, it is just delivered into the veins as the maternal circulation and then the placenta screen out anything that you don’t want getting through
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What functions does the placenta replace?
Fuel storage/ detoxification in adults fat/muscle/liver Gas exchange in adults lungs Waste removal in adults kidneys/liver lungs and livers: net "receivers" during fetal life, net "providers“ in adult Developing organs, tissues are fragile therefore most blood kept away and pressure low (40-50 mmHg MAP vs. 90-100 mmHg) to prevent tissue damage
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What are the 3 fetal shunts?
1. Ductus venosus 2. Foramen ovale 3. Ductus arteriosus ‘shunt’ – a passage or anastomosis between two natural channels such as blood vessels
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What do the 3 fetal shunts help?
They help during physiological stress during birth. are vital during fetal development to ensure efficient blood circulation before birth. They help bypass certain organs that are not fully functional until after birth. Distribute towards essential organs and away from non-essential organs
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what is the urachus?
The urachus is a fibrous remnant of the allantois. It was a canal that drains the urinary bladder of the fetus that joins and runs within the umbilical cord. The fibrous remnant lies in the space of Retzius, between the transverse fascia anteriorly and the peritoneum posteriorly
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label umbilical arteries
answered version
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What is the ductus venosus and what does it do?
low resistance vessel in liver Links UV to caudal VC DV allows 50% blood to bypass liver DV preferentially streams blood to foramen ovale (Not present in the fetal horse!!) (Not a single shunt in the fetal pig!!)
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ductus venosus unlabelled
labelled version
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What is the ductus venosus?
an effective bypass that saves blood coursing through the whole of liver vasculature (not needed in foetus). It connects the umbilical vein to the caudal vena cava.
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What does the foramen ovale do?
Shunts oxygenated blood straight through RA to LA Pressure differece across foramen ovale keeps it open in foetus patency maintained (kept open) by high blood flow
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what does the ductus arteriosus do?
Shunts blood in pulmonary artery straight to descending aorta Pressure differential between lungs and lower body streams flow back to placenta Allows equivalent ventricular function in foetus – helps develops ventricular musculature and vasculature
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Identify structures contained within the umbilicus and explain their function 
Umbilical vein delivers nutrients TO FETUS… Umbilical arteries delivers blood back TO PLACENTA Urachus fibrous remnant of allantois.
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Trace the path of the ductus venosus and explain the function of this structure
Connects Umbilical Vein with caudal VC. Allows blood to bypass hepatic circulation
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Identify and describe the foramen ovale and ductus arteriosus and explain their function 
Foramen Ovale streams blood from right to left atrium (rather than RV) Ductus Arteriosus streams blood from RV to descending aorta (rather than lungs)
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At birth what changes happens to perform all functions that the placenta did
Fetal lungs were collapsed, now they are air-filled (respiration) Fetal circulation becomes a CLOSED SYSTEM Fetus moves from parenteral to enteral nutrition Fetus now needs to regulate body temp Fetal kidneys now need to process waste.
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Describe the fates of the shunts
Ductus Venosus (DV) Umbilical cord ligated (tied off), DV constricts, ligamentum venosum. Foramen Ovale (FO) Pulmonary resistance decreases, pressure differential causes offset septa to close and fuse. Blood flows to lungs. remnant is called the FOSSA OVALIS Ductus arteriosus (DA) pressure differential causes DA to close and fuse remnant called ligamentum arteriosum (6, right)
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Describe the mechanisms that regulate changes in circulation at birth 
Pressure changes secondary to lung inflation (PaO2 increases) Changes in hormones (cortisol, catecholamines, prostaglandins) Vascular resistance changes Tissue layers pushed together fuse and fibrose, become ligaments
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Explain the consequences of parturition (giving birth) upon the circulatory system and list all the major circulatory changes that occur
all shunts close. Placenta is separated.
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What is the timeframe for closure of the ductus venosus?
functional closure in minutes due to improved pulmonary clearance, no umbilical blood supply anatomical closure within days
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What is the timeframe for closure of the foramen ovale?
Functional closure is relatively quick i.e. hours Anatomic closure is relatively slow (weeks-years) with a small opening persisting in about 25% mammals. Failure to close results in atrial-septal defect ‘Hole in the heart’
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What is the timeframe for closure of the ductus arteriosus?
Functional closure in mins to hours. Anatomic closure may take 2-7 days If closure does not occur, ventricular septal defect = patent ductus arteriosus. Relatively common condition Non-life threatening Reduces efficiency of heart Exertional incompetence
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What anatomic remnants are left from the foetus?
Internal umbilical arteries – round ligaments of the bladder. Internal umbilical vein – round ligament of the liver. 1. ductus venosus becomes ligamentum venosum. 2. foramen ovale becomes fossa ovalis 3. ductus arteriosus becomes ligamentum arteriosum
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What are the physiological changes that occur in the transition from fetal to neonatal life?
Increased oxygenation Haemoglobin alters from fetal to adult Blood pressure increases Enteral intake of nutrients
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What is an endotherm and ectotherm?
Endotherm is an organism that maintains its body at a metabolically favourable temperature, largely by the use of heat released by its internal bodily functions instead of relying on ambient heat. An ectotherm is a animal that is dependent on external sources of body heat. Cold-blooded.
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What is a homeotherm and poikilotherm?
A homeotherm is an animal that maintains its body temperature at a constant level, usually above that of the environment, by its metabolic activity. A poikilotherm is an animal that cannot regulate its body temperature except by behavioural means such as basking or brumation.
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Is it true that all homeotherms are also endotherms and all ectotherms are also poikilotherms?
Yes its true all homeotherms are endotherms and all ectotherms are poikilotherms.
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What are the 4 physical processes of heat exchange? and explain each one?
4 physical processes of heat exchange include conduction, convection, radiation and evaporation. Conduction – heat transfer through direct contact between two objects. E.g. a dog lying on a cold floor. Convection – heat transfer through the movement of air or liquid. E.g. horse exposed to strong winds during cold weather. Radiation – heat transfer in the form of electromagnetic waves. E.g. a dark coloured dog in a hot environment with no shade Evaporation – heat loss through the conversion of water from a liquid to a vapor. E.g. A dog panting excessively in a hot and humid environment.
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What is the rate of heat storage equation?
Rate of heat storage = metabolic rate – (conduction + convection + radiation – evaporation)
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Where is the thermoregulatory centre located – how does it operate?
The thermoregulatory centre is located in the hypothalamus, a small region at the base of the brain. Two types of temperature sensors, peripheral thermoreceptors (in skin and other tissues detect changes in the external environment) and central thermoregulators (monitor the core body temperature). Hypothalamus receives and integrates temperature information from both peripheral and central thermoreceptors. It compares this information to the body’s set point temperature. When the body is too hot, hypothalamus causes vasodilation and sweating to occur. When the body is too cold, hypothalamus cause vasoconstriction, shivering and thermogenesis to occur. Thermogenesis is increased metabolic activity to produce heat.
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List as many mechanisms you can think of by which endotherms respond to cold
Shivering, vasoconstriction, insulation, thermogenesis, behavioural adjustments (seeking shelter, huddling with others, or increasing food intake to generate more body heat)
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List as many mechanisms you can think of by which endotherms respond to heat
Sweating, panting, vasodilation, behavioural adjustments (seeking shade, reducing activity levels, increasing water intake), radiation
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What special adaptations do some animals have to tolerate hot / cold climates?
specific to the type of animal thing back to alevel biology and specific specially adapted species to extreme environments like artic foxes, fennec foxes, whales things like that.
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What is the definition of the following terms? Thermoneutral zone Lower and upper critical temperatures Zone of thermal comfort Thermal set-point
Thermoneutral zone describes a range of temperatures of the immediate environment in which a standard healthy adult can maintain normal body temperature without needing to use energy above and below the normal basal metabolic rate. Lower critical temperature is the lowest ambient temp at which an endothermic animal can maintain its core body temperature without increasing metabolic heat production, Higher critical temp is the highest ambient temp at which an endothermic animal can maintain its core body temperature without expending additional energy for cooling. The lower and upper critical temperatures define the thermoneutral zone. Thermal comfort is the condition of mind that expresses subjective satisfaction with the thermal environment. Thermal set point refers to the target temp that an organisms body aims to maintain. Ideal core temp for physiological processes.
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What happens to the lower critical temperature when a lamb is wet and what does this cause?
When a lamb is wet, the LCT falls more easily, making it harder for the lamb to maintain its body temp without expanding extra energy.
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What has a lower critical temperature a dairy cow or a maintenance cow and why?
High-producing cows generate more metabolic heat, making them more vulnerable to cold stress. Maintenance cows normally have more fat reserves due to not having to deal with the energy demands of milk production. High producing cows can tolerate lower temperatures better due to their higher metabolic heat production.
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symptoms of hypothermia
Low Body Temperature: Normal body temperature for lambs is around 39°C-40°C (102°F). A temperature below 37°C (98.6°F) indicates hypothermia Behavioral Signs: Look for weak, lethargic lambs that are unable or unwilling to suckle. They may also have a hunched posture and hollow flanks. Physical Signs: Cold ears, mouth, and extremities are common indicators
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risk factors for hypothermia
Risk Factors: Weather Conditions: Cold, wet, and windy conditions increase the risk of hypothermia Birth Complications: Lambs that experience difficult births or are born prematurely are more susceptible. Inadequate Colostrum Intake: Lambs that do not receive enough colostrum within the first few hours of life are at higher risk
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actions to take during lambing to deal with hypothermia?
Immediate Actions: Dry the Lamb: Remove the lamb from the ewe and dry it off if it is wet Warm the Lamb: Place the lamb in a warming box or use a heat lamp to gradually raise its body temperature Provide Energy: Administer warm colostrum by stomach tube if the lamb is able to swallow. If the lamb is too weak to suckle, intraperitoneal dextrose may be necessary before warming
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after a lamb has hypothermia how are you going to monitor it and provide aftercare?
Monitoring and Aftercare: Regular Temperature Checks: Monitor the lamb's rectal temperature to ensure it is returning to normal Continued Feeding: Ensure the lamb receives adequate colostrum and continues to feed regularly to maintain energy levels. Shelter and Bedding: Keep the lamb in a warm, dry, and draft-free environment until it is strong enough to return to the ewe
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Preventative measures to prevent lambs having hypothermia?
Preventive Measures: Ewe Nutrition: Ensure ewes receive proper nutrition during the last six weeks of pregnancy to support fetal development and colostrum production Lambing Environment: Provide a clean, dry, and sheltered area for lambing to reduce exposure to cold and wet conditions Colostrum Management: Have frozen colostrum on hand and ensure lambs receive it within the first few hours of life
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What is laid down during the last six weeks of pregnancy that protects new-born lambs from hypothermia?
The last six weeks of pregnancy, is the time of most rapid lamb growth and is when the brown fat is laid down around the lamb’s heart and kidneys. This brown fat is the only energy source for the newborn animal and will keep the lamb alive and vigorous for about five hours after birth. In normal conditions, this is enough time to allow the lamb to dry off and start to suckle. Once suckling properly, the colostrum takes over as the main source of energy.
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When might cooling (in the absence of hyperthermia) be used medically in lambing?
In managing hyperthermia – cooling methods include shade and ventilation, misting systems and cool water baths.
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Why might use of a Bair Hugger sometimes be necessary?
Bair hugger is a forced-air warming device, often needed in the medical setting to manage and maintain a patient’s body temp. In preventing hypothermia during surgical procedures, in critical care, recovery and managing specific conditions like shock and in neontral care.
203
Explain the failure of normal cardiac development that results in CCD
Congenital Cardiac Defects (CCD) arise due to abnormalities in the normal embryologic development of the heart, typically occurring during the first 8 weeks of gestation, when the heart is forming and differentiating. USE failure of development CCD image for help
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Describe the clinical presentation of animals with CCD resulting from a failure of development
Animals with Congenital Cardiac Defects (CCD) resulting from developmental failures often present with a range of clinical signs that reflect impaired cardiac function, altered blood flow, and reduced oxygen delivery.
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Assess the likely effect of CCD on oxygen delivery and cardiac function
Congenital Cardiac Defects (CCD) can severely affect both oxygen delivery and cardiac function, depending on the type, severity, and direction of blood flow changes caused by the defect. effect lower cardiac output, caused by overload or obstruction, outcome is weakness, poor perfusion effect lower oxygenation, caused by Right to Left shunts or pulmonary issues, outcome is cyanosis (blueish decolouration), hypoxemia effect higher pulmonary flow, caused by left to right shunts, outcome is pulmonary oedema, respiratory signs effect myocardial strain, caused by chronic overload, outcome is heart failure, arrythmias
206
Describe the effects of aberrant vascular development?
Aberrant vascular development refers to abnormal formation or remodeling of blood vessels during embryogenesis, and it can significantly disrupt circulatory function, oxygen delivery, and organ development. These abnormalities can involve arteries, veins, or capillaries, and may be isolated or associated with congenital heart defects (CCD). effects altered blood flow patterns, obstruction of vessels, ischemia and tissue hypoxia (insufficient blood flow and insufficient oxygen levels in tissues), congestive signs (improper drainage of blood), heart failure (compensation for abnormal vascular patterns)
207
Describe the structural components of the cardiac conduction system. Where these structures are located and what their individual roles are?
The cardiac conduction system is made up of specialized structures that generate and transmit electrical impulses, ensuring the heart beats in a coordinated and rhythmic way. Its key structural components are: Sinoatrial (SA) Node Located in the right atrium near the superior vena cava. It’s the natural pacemaker of the heart — it initiates electrical impulses that set the heart rate. Atrioventricular (AV) Node Located at the junction between the atria and ventricles. It delays the impulse slightly, allowing the atria to contract fully before the ventricles are stimulated. Atrioventricular (AV) Bundle (Bundle of His) Originates from the AV node. It’s the only electrical connection between the atria and ventricles. Right and Left Bundle Branches These branches run along the interventricular septum. They carry impulses toward the apex of the heart. Purkinje Fibers Spread throughout the ventricular walls. They distribute the electrical impulse to the ventricular muscle, causing the ventricles to contract.
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Describe the functional characteristics that enable and block conduction in the cardiac conduction system
Functional Characteristics that Enable Conduction: Automaticity Cells (especially in the SA node) can spontaneously generate electrical impulses without external stimulation. Conductivity Cells can rapidly transmit electrical signals from one cell to another. Excitability Cells respond to an electrical stimulus by depolarizing and initiating an action potential (electrical signal). Rhythmicity Cells (especially in pacemaker areas) fire impulses in a regular, repeating pattern to maintain steady heartbeats. Synchronization Structures like the AV node and Purkinje fibers ensure that the atria contract first, followed by the ventricles in a coordinated way. Functional Characteristics that Block Conduction: Refractory Periods After an action potential, cells temporarily can't be re-excited. This prevents chaotic, overlapping signals and protects the heart from abnormal rhythms. AV Node Delay The AV node purposely slows down the impulse so the ventricles have time to fill with blood before contracting. Insulating Structures (Fibrous Skeleton of the Heart) There’s a fibrous connective tissue around the heart valves that blocks direct electrical spread from atria to ventricles — ensuring impulses only pass through the AV node. Diseases or Damage (Pathological Block) Conditions like fibrosis, ischemia, or infarction can create abnormal blocks (e.g., AV block), disrupting normal conduction.
209
Describe how cellular and ionic events bring about the cardiac action potential
Phase 4 – Resting Membrane Potential Potassium (K⁺) channels are open, and K⁺ leaks out of the cell. The inside of the cell stays negative compared to the outside (~–90 mV). The cell is ready for stimulation. Phase 0 – Rapid Depolarization When stimulated, voltage-gated sodium (Na⁺) channels open. Na⁺ rushes into the cell. The inside of the cell becomes positive quickly (depolarization). Phase 1 – Early Repolarization Na⁺ channels close (inactivate). Some K⁺ channels open, and K⁺ exits the cell slightly. A small, brief drop in membrane potential occurs. Phase 2 – Plateau Phase Calcium (Ca²⁺) channels open (L-type). Ca²⁺ enters the cell slowly while K⁺ continues to exit. This creates a balance — the membrane potential stays relatively steady. Important: This phase allows time for muscle contraction, so the heart can pump blood. Phase 3 – Final Repolarization Ca²⁺ channels close. More K⁺ exits the cell rapidly. The inside becomes negative again, returning to resting state.
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Describe the effects of sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system on the sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes
Sympathetic Nervous System Effects Neurotransmitter: Norepinephrine (and also epinephrine from adrenal glands) Effects on Sinoatrial (SA) Node: Increases firing rate → Faster heart rate (positive chronotropy) Speeds up the depolarization of pacemaker cells. Effects on Atrioventricular (AV) Node: Increases conduction speed → Signals move through the AV node faster (positive dromotropy) Reduces the AV node delay, speeding up ventricular contraction. Parasympathetic Nervous System Effects Neurotransmitter: Acetylcholine Effects on Sinoatrial (SA) Node: Decreases firing rate → Slower heart rate (negative chronotropy) Slows the rate of spontaneous depolarization in pacemaker cells. Effects on Atrioventricular (AV) Node: Decreases conduction speed → Slower movement of impulses through the AV node (negative dromotropy) Prolongs the AV node delay, slowing ventricular contraction.
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Describe the effects of the ANS on the cardiac action potential and the refractory periods
SNS effects - increases pacemaker depolarization - shortens the action potential duration in atrial and ventricular muscle cells so you have a faster repolarization - overall faster Heartbeat, stronger contractions, quicker readiness for next beat PNS effects - pacemaker cells depolarize more slowly so heart rate decreases - slightly prolongs the action potential duration (especially in the atria and AV node) - prevents rapid firing - overall result slower heartbeat, weaker excitability, longer rest before next impulse
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Which ECG lead should be put on which leg?
LF - YELLOW LH = GREEN RF - RED RH - BLACK
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What does MCV cell you?
average size of red blood cells
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What does MCH tell you?
amount of haemoglobin in red blood cells
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What does MCHC tell you?
average amount of haemoglobin in a red blood cell
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What does an ECG measure?
the electrical activity of the heart
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What are the typical features of an ECG complex? and what do they represent?
P wave (represents the electrical depolarization of the atria in the heart), QRS complex (ventricular depolarization), T wave (repolarization of the ventricles)
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What information can an ECG provide?
Heart beat over a certain time, whether the heart is beating slower or faster than normal, whether there is a regular or irregular rhythm and can show where irregularities in the beat occur.
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How does an ECG compare with the information obtained from a cardiac ultrasound?
In cardiac ultrasound the valves are visible but electrical activity is not visible and the opposite is true for ECG. Therefore by using ECG it is possible to diagnose problems in electrical activity but not if there are problems with the valves and again the opposite for cardiac ultrasound. Ultrasound will also show the movement of blood through the heart.
220
In practise in ECG how many cables are used and how many leads to this produce?
Commonly in practice, 4 electrodes/cables are used to produce 6 leads, or views. Each lead is recording the heart's electrical activity from a different direction –The ECG trace shape is created when the electrical impulse moves towards or away from the electrode:
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in ECG what does the electrical activity towards or away from a lead cause?
- electrical activity towards a lead causes an upward deflection - electrical activity away from a lead causes a downward deflection In practice we mostly concentrate on lead II – most useful for assessing arrythmias
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What does the p section, the QRS section and T section tell you?
P - atrial contraction QRS - contraction of the ventricles T - relaxation of the ventricles
223
What is the cause of myxomatous mitral disease and what is it? and what are the signs?
The cause is unknown, the atrioventricular valves degenerate as the dog gets older. Dogs often have a murmur for a number of years - typically noted over the AV valve initially. Many develop signs of heart failure as they get older.
224
What is the process of angiogenesis?
Angiogenesis: the sprouting of new capillaries from pre-existing vessels
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What is vasculogenesis?
Vasculogenesis: formation of blood vessels from endothelial progenitor cells form a primitive vascular network i.e. angioblasts issued from the mesoderm during embryogenesis.
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Do vasculogenesis and angiogenesis occur at the same time?
they can occur at the same time While vasculogenesis and angiogenesis are different processes, they can occur simultaneously, particularly in embryonic development or in situations like tissue repair. In the early stages of development, vasculogenesis sets up the basic vascular network, and angiogenesis may then follow to refine and expand this network as the tissues grow and need more blood supply. In adults, angiogenesis is more common as it happens in response to the need for new blood vessels in specific tissues or to repair damage, whereas vasculogenesis is usually more limited.
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What are pro-angiogenic factors and give some examples?
they switch on angiogenesis. VEGFA, Hypoxia, Angiopoietins, PDGF, IGF, MMPs, In tegrins
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What are anti-angiogenic factors and give some examples?
these switch off angiogenesis examples include - angiostatin, throm bospondin. PEDF, endostatin, Soluble FLT1
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Explain the principles of angiogenesis and what stages of development is it involved in
Fetal and post-natal development Metabolically active tissue needs to be “close” to a capillary for gaseous exchange Limited in adults Principally in female reproduction i.e. uterine/ovarian changes and placental development Pathology Wound healing Skin / heart disease Tumour development
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What is hypoxia? What is it a strong inducer of?
low levels of oxygen in your blood tissues. It is a strong inducer for the formation of new blood vessels.
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What happens when low levels of oxygen is detected? Describe fully the process.
Angiogenesis occurs in response to hypoxia Hypoxia inducible factor (HIF) is transcribed when low levels of oxygen is detected it causes new blood vessels to be formed.
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What are the two parts that the vascular tree is split into?
1 - the systemic circulation 2- the pulmonary circulation
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What is a portal system?
However a few organs are connected “in series” they obtain their blood “second hand” from the venous outflow of another organ. This is called portal system
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What is the advantage of a portal system?
A portal system permits to transport blood solutes without dilution in the general circulation.
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2 examples of portal systems. and what species are they present in?
Hepatic portal vein in all vertebrate: From the GI to the Liver. Filter newly absorbed compounds Renal portal vein in all vertebrate-not mammals (birds) From the hind limbs to kidney Resorb salt, water…
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vascular tree between species
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What is meant by collateral circulation?
Collateral circulation refers to alternate or backup blood vessels in your body that can take over when another artery or vein becomes blocked or damaged. These then can link back to the original vessel by a anastomosis (bridge)
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What vessels are involved in the delivery system, exchange system and return system? what percentage of blood volume at one time do they contain?
Delivery system: arteries and arterioles High pressure ~15% blood volume Exchange system: capillaries Intermediate pressure ~5% blood volume Return system: venules and veins Low pressure ~80% blood volume (nothing else but a reservoir of blood)
239
label the structure of artery and vein
answered version
240
What is found in the tunica intima
Smooth muscles, collagen, elastin
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what is found in internal elastic lamina?
fibrin
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what is found in tunica media?
smooth muscles, collagen, elastin
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what is found in external elastic lamina?
elastin
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what is found in tunica adventintia (or extema)?
collagen, elastin
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What does elastin do in blood vessels?
elastin forms a network that allows vessels to recoil
246
Compare the relative amount of endothelium in the aorta, artery, arteries, capillary, venule, vein and vena cava
all proportionally equivalent, except arteriole which is lower and capillary which is higher.
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Compare the relative amount of elastin in the aorta, artery, arteries, capillary, venule, vein and vena cava
capillary, venule non existent, arteriole, vein, vena cava relatively low, artery slightly higher, aorta the highest
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Compare the relative amount of smooth muscle in the aorta, artery, arteries, capillary, venule, vein and vena cava
aorta to arteriole it increases. Capillary, venule not present. Vein to vena cava increases.
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Compare the relative amount of collagen in the aorta, artery, arteries, capillary, venule, vein and vena cava
aorta and vena cava is the highest. Vein, artery, arteriole are all on par. venule is lower and capillary is non existent.
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How does blood pressure oscillations change in the vasculation system?
Blood pressure will change along the vascularity’s. Oscillations varies more in the arteries and then drops in the arterioles due to the lower levels of elastin and collagen. Then steeply goes down.
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What does pulse pressure equal?
pulse pressure = systolic pressure - diastolic pressure
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Which blood vessel regulates blood pressure and how? What condition affects this?
The arterioles are composed of smooth muscle cells. These cells can contract in diminishing the radius of arterioles A decrease in the radius results in corresponding increase in blood pressure As a result, contraction of arterioles regulates the blood pressure. They provide the resistance to blood flow. Arterioles with hypotension will be less steep in the drop.
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Why are capillaries so fragile?
they have no collagen or elastin. High pressure would tear apart capillaries. Arterioles are needed before capillaries if not the capillaries would be killed off.
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Mechanisms of nutrient exchange at the capillaries
- diffusion - o2, co2, glucose, hormones, electrolytes - lipid soluble molecules can pass through cell membrane easily (drugs/therapeutics) - water soluble molecules generally require transport mechanisms to enter/exit cells
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What are the 3 types of capillaries and where are they found?
Continuous - continuous lining of endothelial cells except for clefts between cells Found in: majority in the body Fenestrated - Fenestrations are not true holes, but rather windows where the cell membrane is compressed to permit greater fluid transmission Found in: glomerular capillaries in the kidney Discontinuous sinusoid - some wider intracellular gaps permit increased exchange with surrounding tissues Found in: liver, bone marrow, lymphoid tissues, some endocrine glands
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What factors are involved in venous return?
- the venous return depends on the pressure difference between venules and RA (changes in RA pressure changes venous return) - smooth muscles contraction in the tunica media - inspiration/ lower diaphragm/ abdominal compression - existence of venous valves - skeletal muscles - gravitation (upper parts of the body)
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What controls blood distribution and what happens when you start exercising?
Blood circulation is controlled by the brain in the CNS. Blood is diverted from digestion and excretion to the skeletal muscles for exercise.
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What affects the amount of blood pumped by the heart for each cardiac cycle?
stroke volume
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What affects the amount of blood delivered to the tissues?
cardiac output and blood pressure
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What is cardiac output?
The amount of blood pumped in 1 minute
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What happens if stroke volume isn't matched?
The volume entering the lungs must equal the volume entering the systemic circulation. Otherwise: - increase in pressure in venous side - leading to oedema (pulmonary or peripheral), hence - Co is tightly regulated by a range of mechanisms
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What are the 3 factors that affect stroke volume?
preload, afterload and contractility
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What does stroke volume equal?
stroke volume = end distolic volume - end systolic volume
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What is preload?
Preload is what is coming back from the venous system.
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What is contractibility?
Contractility is how hard the heart contracts determines the end diastolic volume.
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What is venous return affected by?
Venous return is affected by central venous pressure. What ever comes in is ejected both arrows should be the same size. It is like an elastic band. More energy put in more gotten out.
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What decreases venous return and what is a result of low venous return?
Bleeding decreases the venous return. If low - ventricular filling is reduced, thus stroke volume reduced.
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What increases venous return and what happens if it is high?
Exercise helps increase the venous return. If high, ventricular filling is increased, hence stroke volume increases
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What is the frank-starling mechanism for preload?
Generally, a linear relationship between preload and stroke volume Ventricular muscle stretching leads to a stronger contractile force The stronger the stretching the stronger the force is up to the limits.
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Describe the length-tension relationship for increased preload and its affects?
increased preload - increased exposure of myosin to actin - increased cross-bridge formation - increased force of contraction
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What are The limits of the Frank-Starling mechanism?
Excessive stretching causes a decrease in cross-bridge formation Laplace’s law In a large sphere, more wall tension is required to generate the same internal pressure as it does in a small sphere as governed by: pressure = tension/radius
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What are the clinical consequences of Laplace's law?
Enlarged heart can become a mechanical disadvantage as the tension generated in the walls has to be greater to form the same pressure to make it empty. clinical implications: Dilated cardiomyopathy, a common cardiac disease in dogs
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What are the 2 factors that influence preload?
Filling time of the heart Low heart rates > longer period for ventricular filling Greater distension of the ventricle Venous return i.e. Pressure difference between venous system and atrium The skeletal muscle pump The respiratory pump Sympathetic nervous system activity Blood volume
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How can the contraction of skeletal muscles lead to increased preload and venous return?
contraction of skeletal muscle - vein compressed (closed) - blood forced to heart - increased pre-load
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how does the increased respiratory pump increase venous return?
during inspiration, diaphragm moves caudally which increases abdominal pressure, thorax pressure reduced which leads to an increased abdominal return of blood which increases preload.
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What is the sympathetic control of venous return?
- venous system acts as a reservoir for blood contains 2/3 of your blood - sympathetic stimulation of venous system causes venous vasoconstriction this increases venous pressure that leads to increased preload
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complete the how stroke volume is increased
look at answered version
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How does the SNS increase stroke volume
Increases noradrenaline that increases calcium conc increasing contractility leading to a greater stroke volume.
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What does the increased contractile force enable the heart to do? What activation does this involve and of what receptors?
Empty more completely and thus there is reduced end systolic volume Handle a greater pre-load and thus creates a greater filling volume Deliver an increased stroke volume, even when increased HR reduces time for ventricular filling To do all this against, if afterload is increased (increased aortic pressure) This involves the activation of 1-adenoreceptors. Beta 1 adrenoreceptors are involved in heart contraction
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contractibility can be manipulated pharmacologically by what type of drugs? How do these work
Inotropes - positive inotropes. positive inotropes lead to phosphorylation of CA2+ channels, which results in faster calcium re-uptake, sensitisation of troponin C to calcium. Increased contractibility. Positive inotropes increase heart contraction (inotropy). Release of calcium leads to an increase in tension of the muscle fibres.
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How does parasympathetic stimulation decrease vascular contractiblity? What does this involve activation of?
- decreased force of contraction - inhibition of noradrenaline release from SNS - also decreases heart rate This involves activation of M2 muscarinic receptors This is the counterbalance system. Acetylcholine receptors. Acetylcholine can decrease force of contraction, inhibition of noradrenaline releases from SNS and it can also decrease heart rate.
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What is the effect of afterload on stroke volume?
Creates the resistance against which ventricle pumps Increased stroke volume leads to increased CO and thus increased afterload Also influenced by pressure of blood in circulation Principally affected by vasomotor tone Primarily arteriolar tone
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What is the normal situation for afterload? and what us the affect for reduced or increased afterload?
Normal - The ejection pressure greater than afterload hence blood is ejected out of heart Reduced afterload More blood can be :ejected Increased afterload: Reduced stroke volume Heart has to work harder to maintain CO. Increased afterload occurs with hypertension. This elevates blood pressure which increases the afterload meaning the heart has to work harder to maintain CO.
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Key points of stroke volume
The normal heart pumps venous return each cycle (This is called intrinsic control) Extrinsic mechanisms can overcome limits of intrinsic control enabling Increased contractility at a given preload Afterload is limiting factor in stroke volume in diseased animals (e.g. high blood pressure)
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What is involved in the control of heart rate and thus cardiac output?
Intrinsic activity from SA (sino-atrial) node Controlled by sympathetic and parasympathetic NS enabling Rapid response (increased or decreased) Tightly regulated to maintain blood pressure Heart rate linked to baroreceptor activity in carotid artery
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What happens if blood pressure is elevated (transient)?
If blood pressure is elevated (transient), then there is Activation of parasympathetic NS that Heart rate slows Reducing cardiac output BP returns to normal
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What happens if blood pressure is low?
Activation of sympathetic NS that Increases heart rate Increases vascular tone Increasing cardiac output Restores blood pressure
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What does blood pressure equal?
Blood pressure (MAP) = CO x total peripheral resistance (TPR)
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What is TPR (total peripheral resistance) influenced by?
TPR is in effect Arterial vascular resistance (tone) and is influenced by: Sympathetic nervous system (α and beta-adrenoceptors) in the vasculature Renin-Angiotensin Aldosterone System (RAAS) Local Endothelial-derived factors affect the degree of afterload
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What does blood flow equal and what does resistance in blood flow proportional to?
Blood flow = pressure difference/ resistance Resistance is proportional to length/ radius to the power of 4
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if radius of blood flow is changes what does the heard try to do
The only way the body can try and counter this is by increasing the pressure difference meaning the heart has to work a lot harder.
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What does pulse pressure equal?
Pulse pressure = PSystolic – PDiasystolic
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What does mean arterial pressure equal?
Mean arterial pressure= (Systolic+2(diastolic))/3
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What is pulse pressure influenced by?
Influenced by: 1- Arterial compliance (aorta) “ability to accommodate the increase in pulse pressure” This decreases with age 2- Stroke volume 3- Consistent high pulse pressure will “age” the heart quicker
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What does a bigger pulse pressure difference mean?
Bigger pulse pressure difference means the heart is having to work harder.
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What does increased preload result in?
increased preload results in increased cardiac output
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Define cardiac output
Cardiac output is the volume of blood ejected from the heart per minute.
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What are the 2 major factors that affect cardiac output?
stroke volume and heart rate
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What is the relationship between end-diastolic volume and the magnitude of stroke volume?
EDV and stroke volume are directly related. As EDV increases, the heart fills with more blood during diastole. Leading to a greater volume of blood being ejected during systole, thereby increasing the stroke volume.
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What is end-diastolic volume?
EDV is the amount of blood in the ventricles of the heart at the end of the diastole, just before the heart contracts.
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What are the two main factors that determine end-diastolic volume?
Venous return – This is the amount of blood returning to the heart from the veins. More venous return means more blood fills the ventricles, increasing EDV. Ventricular compliance – This refers to how easily the ventricles stretch to accommodate incoming blood. A more compliant (flexible) ventricle allows greater filling, leading to a higher EDV.
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Define the Frank-Starling mechanism
The Frank-Starling mechanism is the heart’s way of adjusting its force of contraction based on how much blood fills the ventricles. It states that the more the heart fills with blood during diastole (higher end-diastolic volume, or EDV), the stronger the contraction during systole, leading to an increased stroke volume.
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Define the term contractility
Contractility refers to the inherent strength of the heart's contraction, independent of muscle fiber stretch (Frank-Starling mechanism) and preload (end-diastolic volume). It is influenced by cellular and molecular factors that regulate how forcefully the heart muscle contracts.
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When considering cardiac function, which index is more important for perfusion of peripheral tissues – cardiac output or blood pressure?
Cardia output is generally more important than blood pressure for ensuring adequate delivery of oxygen and nutrients to peripheral tissues. It is more of a direct indicator of tissue perfusion, however maintaining an adequate blood pressure is still necessary to ensure proper circulation. Perfusion is the passage of fluid through the circulatory system or lymphatic system to an organ or a tissue.
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How does contractility of the heart change during physical exercise?
During physical exercise, the contractility of the heart increases, meaning the heart pumps more forcefully. This leads to a greater stroke volume (SV) and cardiac output (CO), ensuring that oxygen-rich blood reaches active muscles.
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How is increased contractility achieved?
Sympathetic Nervous System (SNS) Activation Exercise stimulates the sympathetic nervous system. Norepinephrine (from sympathetic nerves) and epinephrine (from adrenal glands) bind to β₁-adrenergic receptors on heart muscle cells. This increases intracellular calcium (Ca²⁺) levels, leading to stronger and faster heart contractions. Increased Calcium Availability More Ca²⁺ enters cardiac muscle cells via L-type calcium channels. Enhanced Ca²⁺ release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum amplifies contraction strength. More Ca²⁺ reuptake allows for faster relaxation, preparing the heart for the next beat. Decreased Vagal (Parasympathetic) Tone The parasympathetic nervous system (PNS) normally slows the heart via the vagus nerve. During exercise, vagal tone decreases, allowing increased heart rate and contractility.
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What are the effects of increased contractility during exercise?
Effects of Increased Contractility During Exercise: Higher stroke volume (SV) → More blood pumped per beat. Increased cardiac output (CO) → More oxygen and nutrients delivered to muscles. Improved ejection fraction (EF) → More efficient blood ejection from the ventricles. Conclusion: During exercise, the sympathetic nervous system, increased calcium handling, and reduced parasympathetic influence all enhance heart contractility, ensuring sufficient blood supply to meet the body’s increased oxygen demands
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What changes occur in heart rate, venous return, total peripheral resistance, tissue fluid volume and urine output after major haemorrhage? How are these changes regulated? What regulation systems are involved?
A major haemorrhage leads to a significant loss of blood volume, triggering compensatory mechanisms to maintain blood pressure, tissue perfusion, and oxygen delivery. Increased heart rate to compensate for reduced SV Venous return decreases initially and then recovers Total peripheral resistance increases (amount of force exerted on circulating blood by the vasculature of the body) Tissue fluid volume initially decreases then recovers – reduced blood movement causes fluid movement from interstitial spaces into the bloodstream Urine output decreases the body conserves fluid to maintain blood volume Regulation: The baroreceptor reflex (in aortic arch & carotid sinus) detects low BP and activates the sympathetic nervous system (SNS). This increases heart rate (HR) (tachycardia) via β₁-adrenergic receptors to compensate for reduced SV. Regulation: Vasoconstriction of veins (via SNS activation) increases venous return by mobilizing blood from the venous reservoir. Skeletal muscle pump and respiratory pump further aid venous return. Regulation: SNS activation causes vasoconstriction of arterioles, increasing total peripheral resistance (TPR). Angiotensin II (RAAS system) also promotes vasoconstriction Regulation: Capillary hydrostatic pressure drops, promoting fluid reabsorption from interstitial spaces into capillaries (plasma volume expansion). Increased oncotic pressure due to retained plasma proteins further pulls fluid into the circulation. Regulation: Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System (RAAS) Low BP triggers renin release → angiotensin II formation → aldosterone secretion, which increases sodium & water retention. Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) Hypovolemia stimulates ADH release from the posterior pituitary, increasing water reabsorption in the kidneys. Sympathetic vasoconstriction of renal arteries reduces glomerular filtration rate (GFR), further lowering urine output. Blood flow is prioritized to vital organs (heart, brain) at the expense of non-essential tissues (skin, GI tract). Look at major haemorrhage 1 and 2
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What happens to cardiac output in heart failure?
In heart failure, cardiac output is reduced because the heart cannot pump blood effectively to meet the body’s demand. Because SV is reduced due to weak or stiff ventricles Heart fills with more blood but struggles to eject it effectively Compensatory mechanism are initially helpful but then turn to be harmful later on, such as the SNS activation (increases HR but leads eventually to heart exhaustion). RAAS causes vasoconstriction and fluid retention, after increasing afterload and worsening heart function. Ventricular hypertrophy and remodelling the heart adapts but becomes stiff and inefficient.
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fill out sites of blood cell production
answered version
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What is the lifespan for neutrophils, platelets and RBC'S
Neutrophils 6-12 hours Platelets 6-8 days RBC's 110-120 days
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What is the fancy name for the generation of blood leucocytes within bone marrow?
haematapoiesis
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generation of blood cells diagram
answered version
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What is erythropoiesis? What are the key points involved in this process?
development of red blood cells Key points Proliferative pool (maturational division) Maturation pool Marrow transit time: 3-5 days EPO produced in the kidneys in response to tissue hypoxia. EPO stimulates the development of red blood cells. No reticulocytes in horses
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What is granulopoiesis? What are the key points involved?
how neutrophils develop. Key points: Proliferative pool Maturation pool Marrow transit time: ~ 1 week (can be less in inflammation)
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What is the process of lymphopoiesis? What are the key points involved?
how lymphocytes develop. Key points B lymphocytes  produced in the Bone marrow, Peyer’s patches (dogs, pigs and ruminants) and Bursa of Fabricius (birds) T lymphocytes  mature in the Thymus NK  mature in the bone marrow Once mature they colonise the lymphoid organs (e.g., lymph nodes, spleen, MALT)
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What is the process in which we make platelets? What are the key points involved?
thrombopoiesis Key points Endomitosis  nuclear duplication without cell division Cell volume increases with each nuclear duplication Marrow transit time: 7-10 days TPO produced mainly in the liver These cells get bigger as they develop
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What are the cellular components of blood?
Erythrocytes (red blood cells) Platelets (thrombocytes) Leucocytes (WBC’s) Granulocytes (contain large numbers of cytoplasmic granules) Neutrophils Eosinophils Basophils Mononuclear Monocytes Lymphocytes T-cells (50-75%), B-cells (10-40%), NK cells (5-10%) Named on their staining properties
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Names for when WBC's in blood conc are too high or too low?
Leucocytosis – too many Neutrophilia (neutrophilic leucocytosis) Eosinophilia Basophilia Lymphocytosis Monocytosis Leucopenia – too little Neutropenia Eosinopenia Lymphopenia Monocytopenia
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What is the Romanowsky stain effect? and what is it used for?
– a mixture of 2 stains that give a third colour (purple). like diff quick, with eosin and azure Used for the identification of leucocytes
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What are the 3 granulocytes? and what are there characteristics?
Neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils. Neutrophils: lobed nucleus, often connected by thin strands of chromatin, sparse granules Eosinophils, lobed nucleus, dense orange granules, blue cytoplasm Basophils: lobed but not so well defined, dense blue granules with cytoplasm, rare in bloods of mammals Look at granulocytes image
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Key factors of neutrophils
10 – 12 microns. (slightly larger than a red blood cell) Circulate in the blood for minutes up to 6-8 hrs Survive in tissues 1 – 2 days 5 times more neutrophils in BM than blood Actively motile cells - ‘microphages’ (vs macrophages) Neutrophils & macrophages come from a single bipotential stem cell. Their development is influenced by; Granulocyte-Macrophage Colony Stimulating Factor (GM-CSF) Granulocyte-CSF IL-3 Don’t circulate or survive in tissue for very long. Bone marrow is always having to produce them.
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What are neutrophils activities?
Neutrophil activities: Chemotaxis Phagocytosis & killing oxygen-dependent oxygen-independent
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How are neutrophils involved in inflammation?
Neutrophils have selectin receptors that interact with selectins on endothelial cells. IL-1 and TNF induce endothelial cells to express InterCellular Adhesion Molecule (ICAM)-1 and Vascular Cell Adhesion Molecule (VCAM)-1. The interaction between selectins and their receptors slows the cells’ passage. Eventually cells can escape the blood vessel – gaining access to the site of inflammation In most abscesses dying neutrophils make up the majority of pus.
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How is neutrophil levels maintained?
Level in blood is balance of how many produced by bone marrow and how many the tissues are using.
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What are neutrophils called in other species like rabbits, reptiles, avian etc..? What is there difference?
heterophils. They do the same job but the cytoplasm of them isn’t neutral and something else is different. Functionally equivalent, but granules stain red
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different stages involved in neutrophil development in bone marrow
Myeloblast Promyelocyte Myelocyte Metamyelocyte Band neutrophil Segmented neutrophil
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When does neutrophilia occur and what is it?
Often occurs during infection – acute phase Circulating neutrophil numbers increase Begin to see immature neutrophils or ‘band forms’ within the blood – leaving the BM early
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What are the roles and characteristics of eosinophils?
Strongly associated with allergy, parasites & fibrosis Rarely found in healthy blood Specific granules contain: Major basic protein Eosinophil cationic protein Eosinophil peroxidase Eosinophil-derived neurotoxin Enzymes histaminase and collagenase Look at eosinophil species variation image
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What are the roles and characteristics of eosinophils?
Can be weakly phagocytic Surface IgE receptors Specific granules heparin histamine leukotrienes Lysosomes Associated with parasitic infection and allergy Extremely rare in the blood Recruited into tissue
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What are normal ranges of basophils in blood and is basopenia a concern? What is basophilia a sign of?
0-300 per microlitres in blood Basopenia is not cause for concern sign of pathology/disease
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What are the roles and characteristics of mast cells?
Have IgE receptors on their surface and ‘triggered’ when antigens bind surface IgE Granule contents released Particularly involved in the response to allergy and parasitic infections –’worms’ Found in connective tissue NOT blood Rounded nuclei Granular cytoplasm Granules release: Histamine Heparin Proteases (Chymase and/or Tryptase) Leukotrienes ‘slow reacting substance of anaphylaxis’ Eosinophil chemotactic factor Neutrophil chemotactic factor Interleukins, TNF- ; Prostaglandin D
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important information for monocytes?
Arise from same precursors as neutrophils Monocytes present within blood but not tissue Reptiles have additional mononuclear cell - “azurophil” Exit of blood into tissue or lymph node gives rise to macrophages and dendritic cells
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What do macrophages and dendritic cells?
Macrophages Phagocytosis pathogens, foreign bodies, antigen Communicate with T-cells Dendritic Cells Primarily communicate with T-cells
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Where are b-cells produced in birds?
bursa of fabricius
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Where do b-cells develop?
B cells develop in the: bone marrow in some species intestine in some species e.g. sheep
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Where are t-cells produced and where do they learn?
T lymphocytes Develop in bone marrow Always enter thymus for “education”
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Can you see a difference between b-cells and t-cells when doing a smear?
no, also struggle to occasionally identify NK cells because of granules in cytoplasm
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What do cytopathologists review for bone marrow?
Cytopathologists review the proportion of cells, whether we see all the development stages and the type and number of cells.
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What does leukaemia look like?
Neoplasia of the WBC, instead of seeing a mixture of neutrophils, lymphocytes and monocytes, we get one clonal population of cells developing. They become very similar and they're normally bigger cells. Very similar cells to each other, they might look like a monocyte or lymphocyte but we would call that a leukaemia.
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Are band neutrophils or segmented neutrophils young neutrophils?
band neutrophils they lack segmentation of the nucleus
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describe the looks of neutrophils
size 12-15 micrometeres. lobulated nucles 2-4 lobes pale pink or light blue cytoplasm
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describe the looks of basophils and eosinophils
both are 12-20 micrometres in diameter both have a lobulated nucleus basophils the granules are blue eosinophils the granules are orange-red
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describe the looks of monocytes
size 15-20 micrometer irregular shaped nucleus, lacy reticulated chromatin - blue-grey cytoplasm
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describe the looks of lymphocytes
size 9-12 micrometre in diameter nucleus round with condensed chromatin pale blue cytoplasm
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plasma build up
92% water 7% protein 1% other
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what percentage do erythrocytes count for blood cells?
90%
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structure of erythrocytes
Structure: typical lipid bilayer membrane of globular proteins Biconcave disc shape Increases surface area (20-30%) Elasticity/deformability  Passage of capillary diameters as small as 3-4
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What causes swelling and loss of the normal biconcave disc morphology of RBCs?
Failure of Na+ ion movement across erythrocyte cell membranes
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compare erythrocytes of dog and cat?
Dog Uniform size Central pallor (concave) Cat Smaller erythrocytes Anisocytosis (variation in size) Scarce central pallor (less concave)
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compare erythrocytes of horse, ruminant and camelid?
horse - rouleaux formation (clustering of RBCs in standing blood) Ruminant (spiky appearance), variation in size camelid - elipsoid
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What are avain and reptile erythrocytes like?
Nucleated Larger Early stages are rounded and may be binucleate Occasional cells lose their nucleus and are termed erythroplastids.
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what is clustering of RBCs a sign of?
inflammation except horses
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Erythrocytes are metabolically active how do they get their energy?
Erythrocytes are metabolically active. Energy is required to maintain electrolyte gradients across the plasma membrane and of haemoglobin molecules. There are no organelles No mitochondria - Energy is derived by anaerobic metabolism of glucose avoiding consumption of any oxygen they are carrying No nucleus in mammalian erythrocytes – division stem cells Increased space for haemoglobin allows biconcave shape
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what percentage of 02 from lungs to cells is carried in haemoglobin?
98.5% - 1.5% dissolved in blood
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what percentage of co2 from cells to lungs is carried in haemoglobin?
10% 70-85% bicarbonate 5-15% dissolved in blood
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How is bicarbonate formed?
Most bicarbonate is produced in erythrocytes after carbon dioxide diffuses into the capillaries, and subsequently into red blood cells.  Carbonic anhydrase (CA) causes carbon dioxide and water to form carbonic acid (H2CO3), which dissociates into two ions: bicarbonate (HCO3–) and hydrogen (H+).
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haemoglobin blood content
represents 95% of erythrocyte protein (1) Globin two pairs of polypeptides: x2 alpha and x2 beta (97% adult hg) delta (3% adult Hg) gamma (foetal Hg) epsilon (embryonic Hg/yolk sac) (2) central haem group containing an iron atom that can bind a molecule of O2 Each can bind one Look at haemoglobin image
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What happens in high or low oxygen concentration with haemoglobin?
In regions of high oxygen concentration (eg in the lung):  globin releases CO2 and iron binds to O2 (oxyhaemoglobin) In areas of low oxygen concentrations:  O2 is released and CO2 bound (carbaminohaemoglobin)
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What happens in hypoxic tissue (lack of 02)
In hypoxic tissues (lack of O2) a carbohydrate (2,3-diphosphoglyceride) is released  that facilitates release of O2 from erythrocytes. Haemoglobin also binds nitric oxide – a neurotransmitter that causes dilation of blood vessels  permitting maximal tissue perfusion for supply of oxygen/removal of waste products.
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where does erythropoiesis occur?
process occurs in red bone marrow + spleen red bone marrow found at ends of long bones and in flat bones
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In the embryo where does erythropoiesis occur? How about after puberty?
yolk, sac, liver - shift to bone marrow in later foetal stage primarily in marrow of membranous bones nucleated immature RBCs
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structure of bone marrow involved in erythropoiesis
Sinusoidal capillaries with larger intercellular gaps to allow passage of cells Inactive marrow is replaced by fat (yellow marrow) but can regain activity by extension from active tissue and from circulating stem cells.
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during erythropoeisis what happens?
Nucleus becomes progressively smaller Cell size becomes progressively smaller Haemoglobin levels gradually increase
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Formation of erythrocytes requires adequate amounts of
protein iron copper folic acid vitamins (B2, B6, B12)
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iron involved in erythropoiesis is found where
~70% as haemoglobin; ~30% bound to ferritin in macrophages in liver, spleen and bone marrow. Some (<0.1%) bound to protein (transferrin) in plasma.
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causes of iron deficiency
1. Physiological anaemia in newborns Example: piglets Markedly reduced RBC numbers in 1st 2-3 days of life Iron store used up within 1-2 days Sow milk contains very little iron caused by Rapid growth due to breeding 2. Blood loss Internal or external parasites 3. Haemorrhage Internal or external
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what does Erythropoetin (EPO) do
Hormone that controls rate of erythrocyte production
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Where is EPO sourced>
Source early embryonic/foetal/early neonatal life  expressed in yolk sac, liver and kidney (also spleen and bone marrow). adult life  produced in the kidney (renal interstitium
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How is EPO involved in regulating erythrocyte production?
Low kidney oxygen Circulatory failure, anaemia; (normal O2 but low delivery) Hypoxia (low O2) EPO transported by blood to bone marrow EPO binds to receptors on CFU-E (Erythroid cells precursors ) causing increased production of erythrocytes in the bone marrow EPO also accelerates release of reticulocytes  blood It is not the number of erythrocytes that regulates the secretion of EPO but the tissue needs for oxygen!
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how do erythrocytes age?
As they age, normal RBCs: lose sialic acid residues from their surface  exposing galactose moieties that induce their phagocytosis become more fragile. may become swollen due to failure of normal membrane function.
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what is the average life span of erythrocytes?
Average erythrocyte life spans: 70 days - cat 120 days - dog, human 145 - horse 160 days - cattle The normal lifespan of compatible transfused erythrocytes is much shorter!! In dogs it is approximately 21 days.
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how are erythrocytes broken down?
- damaged RBCs phagocytized by macrophage - recycling of haemoglobin
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what happens during Iron metabolism after RBC breakdown?
Free iron is toxic to cells as it acts as a catalyst in the formation of free radicals from reactive oxygen species. Iron molecules released from haem - conveyed to bone marrow by transferrin - stored as insoluble iron in macrophages and hepatocytes as ferritin
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what happens during Iron transport between cells – Transferrin ?
Serum protein involved in iron transport (synthesized in liver) Transferrin-iron complexes bind to cell-surface receptors causing internalisation of transferrin-iron-receptor complex. Low intracellular pH within endosomes cause dissociation of iron from transferrin-receptor-complex The transferrin-receptor complex dissociate at the cell surface recycling the system.
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Intracellular iron storage
Ferritin - the primary intracellular iron-storage protein keeping iron in a soluble and non-toxic form - releases iron in a controlled fashion. It is a buffer against iron deficiency and iron overload. Haemosiderin - Intracellular complex of ferritin, denatured ferritin and other material. - Iron within deposits of hemosiderin is very poorly available to supply iron when needed. Large deposits may lead to organ damage.
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abnormal RBC breakdown
1. Mycoplasma haemofelis (Haemobartonella felis) 2. Neonatal erythrolysis Foals, kittens Blood group incompatibility Maternal antibodies taken up through colostrum lyse RBCs
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on haematology and anaemia
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