NMSK Flashcards

(500 cards)

1
Q

Hypo-

A

Under or below

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2
Q

hyper-

A

above

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3
Q

Epi-

A

upon, on, over, near, at, before, after

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4
Q

supra-

A

above or after

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5
Q

sub-

A

under

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6
Q

osteo-

A

bone

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7
Q

chondr-

A

cartilage

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8
Q

endo-

A

within

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9
Q

ecto-

A

outer, external

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10
Q

-cyte

A

relating to a cell

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11
Q

-itis

A

inflammation or a disease characterised by inflammation

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12
Q

-ectomy

A

exision (surgical removal)

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13
Q

Terms used for describing moving closer and away from the middle of the body

A

lateral and medial

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14
Q

terms used for going towards the topside or belly side

A

Ventral and dorsal (belly side and topside respectively)

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15
Q

What terms are used to describe being close to the beginning or end of the structure (like a arm or leg)

A

proximal and distal

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16
Q

terms used to describe going towards the heard or towards the tail

A

cranial and caudal

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17
Q

what terms are used to describe the palm or the anterior surface of the hand/leg and what is its opposite term

A

palmar and dorsal

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18
Q

terms used to describe the bottom and top of the foot

A

Plantar and dorsal (respectively)

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19
Q

terms used to describe the front or back of the brain

A

rostral and caudal respectively

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20
Q

what term is used to describe being located or directed towards the axis and is located or directed away from the axis

A

Axial and abaxial respectively

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21
Q

what plane runs parallel to the back

A

Dorsal plane

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22
Q

what plane divides the body into top and bottom parts?

A

transverse plane

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23
Q

what plane divides the body into right and left halves? and what is this plane specifically called when the parts are exactly equal?

A

sagittal plan and median plane respectively

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24
Q

What is the tube of solid bone called that surrounds the central cavity filled with bone marrow (fat in older animals)? also what is the name of this part?

A

Cortex and medulla respectively

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25
What are the 3 parts of the bone in terms of sections? and which regions are these?
Epiphysis - rounded end Metaphysis - flared region Diaphysis - shaft Metaphysis is adjacent to epiphysis
26
What are the two types of bone?
Cortical (compact) bone and cancellous (trabecular spongy) bone
27
What are visceral bones?
These are bony formations in soft tissue rather than being part of the skeleton like the os penis bone and os cordis (in the heart of ruminants). os means bone in latin.
28
What are the two classification categories for describing where bones come from and what do they mean?
Axial skeleton and appendicular skeleton Axial skeleton - bones forming the axis or centre of the animal Appendicular skeleton - regions that are attached.
29
What are the two types of bone development and what do they mean?
chondral ossification and membranous ossification chondral ossification - bones ossify from a cartilage precursor (most limb bones) Membranous ossification - bones ossify directly from mesenchymal cells (scapula, most bones of the skull)
30
Bones can be classified on how they developed. Where would you find these two types of bones formed from these processes in terms of weight bearing and why?
Chondral ossification - found in load bearing areas. Often have specific fail/ fracture configuration. Membranous ossification - found in non-load bearing areas. These bones are generally lighter and less dense.
31
What are the 6 types of bones in terms of shape and what does each individual term mean?
long b - inc femur, tibia and fibula short b - inc tarsals and carpals flat b - protect internal organs or provide a connection point for your muscles sesamoid b - small, round bones that are embedded within tendons or ligaments irregular b - unique shapes and can't be classed as the others such as vertebrae pneumatic b - for reducing weight in birds
32
What type of bone is adapted for resisting compression when loaded and acts a lever during movement and resists tension during muscle contraction and how does it do this?
Long bones. - Main part of bone is a column providing strength -expanded ends providing transfer of load
33
what type of bone is found in groups and why? and why is one of its surface always non-articular?
short bones. They are found in groups to disseminate forces through joints One surface is always non-articular for ligament attachment and vasculature
34
What type of bone has jutting processes and what are the point of these?
Irregular bones have various jutting processes for muscle and ligament attachment.
35
What type of bone act as attachments for soft tissues and protect underlying tissues?
flat bones
36
what is the name for bones that contain air sacs?
pneumatic bones Flat bones of the skull- form the paranasal sinuses.
37
what is the function of sesamoid bones and how are these attached?
provide additional strength and reduce wear over joints. Protect and redirect tendons. They are held in place by surrounding tendons or ligaments (patella, fetlock, navicular bone).
38
What is the name of the fibrous connective tissue membrane consisting of two layers regarding bones: an outer fibrous and inner cellular layer? and what does it do?
Periosteum. supplies bones with blood, nerves and cells that help them grow and heal.
39
What is the main structure in the body for support, protection and movement? and what is it made up of?
Compact (cortical) bone. It is made up of concentric bone arranged around a central osteon
40
what is the purpose of an osteon?
provide strength and support to the bone, and help in repair and remodelling of bone tissue.
41
describe the structure of a cancellous (spongy) bone
Light and porous, honeycomb like structure. The bone matrix is organised into 3-dimensional latticework of bony processes called trabeculae, arranged along lines of stress. The spaces between are often filled with marrow and blood vessels.
42
what is the function of cancellous (spongy) bone?
- provides strength and support to the overlying bony cortex whilst minimising weight - vital reservoir for developing red blood cells, platelets, and white blood cells usually surrounded by a shell of compact bone which provides greater strength and rigidity, enables the bone to dampen sudden stress.
43
describe the structure of a medullary cavity and its surrounding layers
A hollow central space found within the shaft (diaysis) of long bones. Its walls are formed by a thin layer of spongy bone which is surrounded by a thick layer of compact bone. The medullar cavity is lined with a thin vascular membrane called the endosteum and contains bone marrow.
44
What is the function of the medullary cavity?
contains bone marrow, which produces blood cells and stores fats and minerals
45
What is a haversian canal and what is its function?
A haversian canal surrounds blood vessels and nerve cells throughout bones and communicates with osteocytes through connections called lacunae.
46
What are the 4 types of tissue?
Epithelial tissue Nervous tissue connective tissue (inc blood tissue) muscle (contractile) tissue
47
What does nervous tissue consist of? Think about which neurological cells are involved in the CNS and PNS and what do they do?
Nerve cells (neurones) + neurological cells. CNS astrocytes (star-shaped) - provide structural and metabolic support to neuron, blood-brain barrier maintenance, regulate neurotransmitter levels, aid in brain and spinal cord repair after injury, regulate blood flow to active brain regions oligodendrocytes - produce + maintain the myelin sheath, provide metabolic + structural support to neurons (particularly axons), regulate of ion movement around axons for optimal signal transmission microglial cells - primary immune cells in CNS, phagocytosis, inflammatory response (release cytokines and signalling molecules to mediate inflammation), synaptic remodelling (during development and in response to neural activity), maintenance (monitor the health of neurons and the CNS environment, maintaining homeostasis) ependymal cells (line the ventricles of the brain and the central canal of the spinal cord) - Producing CSF (cerebrospinal fluid) which cushions the brain and the spinal cord, circulating CSF, create a selectively permeable barrier the CSF and brain tissue, neural stem activity (some ependymal cells have stem-like properties, contributing to neurogenesis (the formation of new neurons) in certain conditions. PNS Satellite cells - found in the ganglia of the PNS, surrounding the neuronal cell bodies. Function: provide structural and metabolic support to neurons, regulate microenvironment (nutrients, ions and neurotransmitters), involved in chronic pain signalling by interacting with sensory neurons, potential role in neural regeneration. Schwann cells - found in the PNS, wrapping around axons (nerve fibres) . Function: form the myelin sheath, provide support and protection for unmyelinated fibres, help guide axon regrowth through Wallerian degeneration, play a role in nerve inflammation and repair.
48
What are the various functions of connective tissues? and where does it originate from in the trilaminar disc of the embryo?
- mechanical and structural support - supports and connects the various parts of the body by 3-dimensional frameworks called stroma - separate tissues and organs Originates from cells of the mesodermal layer of the embryo
49
Describe the structure and function of loose connective tissue, and what does it supply?
Composed of loosely arranged collagen and elastic fibres embedded in a gel-like matrix called ground substance. Its flexibility allows for movement and stretching without comprising the integrity of neighbouring tissues. It also plays an important role in the immune system as it houses immune cells that fight against infections and foreign particles. Additionally, it facilitates the diffusion of nutrients, gases and waste products between blood vessels and surrounding tissues. This type of tissue forms a network that surrounds and supports blood vessels, nerves and organs.
50
What are the two types of dense connective tissue, describe there structure and function and where they are found?
Regular and irregular dense connective tissue. Dense connective tissue is a type of connective tissue primarily composed of type 1 collagen fibres. Fewer cells and less ground substance compared to loose connective tissue. Regular - fibres are arranged in a parallel and organized pattern - Mainly composed of collagen fibres, with some fibroblasts (cells that produce the collagen and other fibres) - provides strength, flexible support from one direction- Found in tendons and ligaments Irregular - fibres are arranged in a more random, less organized pattern - Similar composition to regular dense connective tissue - provides strength in multiple directions as opposed to one - Found in areas that require support and flexibility from various angles, such as the dermis of the skin and the fibrous capsules around organs and joints.
51
what are the 5 main types of connective tissue?
loose connective tissue, dense connective tissue, cartilage, bone and blood.
52
what are the 3 types of cartilage? Describe their structure and function and where they are found?
3 types of cartilage: hyaline, elastic and fibro. Cartilage is made up of the following components specialised cells called chondrocytes and chondroblasts, ECM (which includes glycosaminoglycans (hydrophilic and ideal for attracting water, which contributes to the gel-like consistency of the extracellular matrix (ECM)), proteoglycans (Proteoglycans are proteins covalently linked to GAGs (except hyaluronic acid). They function in hydration, cushioning, and structural support of the ECM) and water) - Hyaline - smooth, glossy appearance due to fine collagen fibres that are not easily visible under a microscope. - provides smooth surfaces for joint movement, flexibility and support - found in the nose, trachea, larynx, ends of long bones (Articular cartilage) and the fetal skeleton - Elastic - contains a high number of elastic fibres in addition to collagen fibres, making it more flexible and resilient. - maintains the shape of structures while providing flexibility - found in the ear (auricle), the epiglottis (part of the larynx), and the eustachian tubes - Fibro - contains thick bundles of collagen fibres, making it very strong and able to withstand heavy pressure - provides strong support and withstands compression - found in the intervertebral discs, the menisci (knee), and the pubic symphysis (joint between the two pelvic bones)
53
What are the two types of bone tissue? and describe their structure and function? And also where it is found?
lamellar bone and trabecular bone - Lamellar- type of mature bone characterised by its organized structure, consisting of parallel layers or lamellae of collagen fibres. - makes up the compact bones in the skeleton, such as the long bones of the legs and arms. replaces woven bone during the process of bone remodelling, ensuring the strength and integrity of the skeletal system. - Trabecular bone- Lighter less dense type of bone found within the interior of bones. It has a porous, honeycomb like structure composed of trabeculae, which are thin rods and plates of bones that form a meshwork - Found at the end of long bones and in the vertebrae. Like at the ends of the femur - Network of spongy bones acts as a shock absorber cushioning the impact forces during locomotion.
54
What is blood made up of? Where is it located and what is its role?
Blood (fluid connective tissue) - Made up of red and white blood cells., plasma and platelets.- Located within your bones, bone marrow. - transportation of substances into and out of the body, regulation of internal body temperature, involved in the immune response
55
compare loose connective tissue to dense connective tissue
LCT has fewer fibres (still has collagen and elastin), more cells and ground substance, less rigid and more easily distorted (still provides resistance when stretched creating a tough barrier).
56
what do chondrocytes do?
produces a matrix in cartilage (ECM) which is made up of type 2 collagen, glycoproteins and water. They synthesize GAG, elastin and collagen to provide cartilage with strength, flexibility, and resilience, regulation of cartilage during embryonic development and postnatal growth, response to mechanical stress.
57
What does cartilage not contain that makes it more flexible than bone?
calcium phosphate
58
What is the composition of blood and to what levels?
Approximately 55% plasma, 45% erythrocytes (red blood cells), 1% leukocytes (white blood cells) and thrombocytes (platelets)
59
How are cells separated in connective tissue?
separated by abundant ECM.
60
What are the 3 main components of connective tissues?
cells, collagen fibres and ground substances (special proteins).
61
What are the name of the cells embedded in cartilage, bone, muscle, tendons?
Cartilage= chondrocytes Bone= Osteoblasts/osteocytes/osteoclasts Muscle= myocytes Tendons= tenocytes (elongated fibrocytes) Osteoclasts ae derived from monocytes ( a white blood cell (WBC) linage)
62
What does ECM consists of? And what is its function? What are the 3 types of specialist cells that maintain the matrix?
ECM consists of collagen (several types, type 1 most common) and elastin fibres, ground substance and water. It gives connective tissue its morphological and functional characteristics. Provides structural support of cells, also guides their division, growth and development. - blasts - cytes and - clasts. - blasts create matrix - cytes maintain matrix (control activity of blasts and clasts) - clasts break down matrix for remodelling
63
What is the difference between fibrous ECM and liquid ECM in structure, function and properties?
Structure - Fibrous ECM is composed mainly of fibrous proteins like collagen, elastin and fibronectin. These proteins form a dense, mesh-like network. - Liquid ECM is found in fluids like blood plasma. It contains a mix of soluble proteins, electrolytes, and other molecules. Function - Fibrous ECM provides structural support and tensile strength to tissues. It's crucial in areas that experience high mechanical stress, such as tendons, ligaments and skin. - Liquid ECM facilitates the transport of nutrients, waste products, and signalling molecules throughout the body. It also helps maintain homeostasis and providing a medium for cellular communication. Properties - Fibrous ECM is highly rigid and strong, capable of withstanding stretching and pressure. It also plays a role in cell adhesion, migration and differentiation. Liquid ECM is more fluid and less structured compared to fibrous ECM. It allows for easy movement and flow of its components.
64
In embryonic development what layer of the germ layer does connective tissue come from?
The mesoderm (middle layer)
65
Where was loose connective tissue found primarily in early embryonic development? What features did it have?
In the umbilical cord. Features: hydrophilic ECM, jelly-like, also known as mucoid connective tissue or Wharton's jelly.
66
what is reticular connective tissue?
Connective tissue is a form of connective tissue with reticular fibres (collagen type III) as the main component. It contains reticular and elastic fibres that are the main element in irregular connective tissues. Reticular fibres form the stroma of the lymphoid system (lymph nodes and spleen). Elastic fibres line intervertebral discs and the wall of the aorta.
67
What are the 2 types of adipose tissue and what is their function? describe their structure and function?
Brown adipose tissue - involved in heat control (insulation) White adipose tissue - energy storage Structure: little ECM surrounding cells, cells full of lipid Function: packaging, protection, insulation
68
Factors to consider before accessing locomotion?
Before you start accessing locomotion. Consider: - Space availability - Surface conditions (firm, level, non-slip) firm surface allows you to access muscular, soft surface: soft tissue and allowing you to listen to footfalls - Age of animal - Any medical conditions - Handler Speed of gait
69
How to access locomotion?
- Visual observations - Locomotion analysis equipment (high speed treadmills, video cameras, data analysis software, force plates) Assess quality and divergence from the norm
70
What is a stride? and what are the 2 phases involved in a stride?
A stride is a complete cycle of movement. E.G. from the setting down of a foot to the next setting down of the same foot 2 phases - stance phase (weight bearing limb) - swing phase (non-weight bearing limb)
71
What is the beat of a walk and sequence of foot falls?
4 beat. RH-RF-LH-LF
72
What is the beat of a trot and sequence of foot falls?
2 beat LH+RF then LF+RH
73
What is the beat of a canter and sequence of foot falls?
3 beat RH,RF+LH,LF or LH,LF+RH,RF
74
What is the beat of a gallop and sequence of foot falls?
fast 4 beat Transverse gallop Horses, cattle, deer, dogs at low speed, LH,RH,LF,RF, suspension phase Rotatory gallop Dogs at high speed, cheetahs, gazelle, running rodents RH,LH suspension phase ,LF,RF, suspension phase Counter-rotatory is opposite of rotatory gallop - greyhounds on the track
75
what neurological sensations are involved in limb coordination?
vision vestibular system - balance mechanoreceptors - touch nociceptors - pain proprioceptors - body position
76
What motor responses are used in limb coordination?
Nervous system: voluntary and involuntary control, reflexes central pattern generators: generate rhythmic motor patterns (Inc respiration). Responsible for producing gaits: walk, trot, canter etc.. Brainstem - The brainstem plays a crucial role in limb coordination by acting as a relay centre for many essential motor functions. It integrates and processes signals between the brain and the spinal cord to facilitate smooth, coordinated movements of the limbs. Cerebellum - balance (continuously processing information related to body position, movement, and coordination) Constant monitoring of muscle length and tension (muscle spindles and golgi tendon organs)
77
Equine adaptations to high speed locomotion
- increased stride length: elongation of distal limb, mobile scapula, increase length of limb, whiplash effect - small motion upper limb > flick of lower limb - minimise mass of limb: most work done by animal during locomotion involves accelerating and decelerating limbs, muscles positioned proximally (near pivot-point), reduced number of bones in limb, adaptations to lower mass (inertia) of lower limb - conservation of energy: whiplash effect of limb, long tendons (transfer load, shock absorbers, energy store), stable joints - relatively rigid spine/sacroiliac junction: large gut, large body mass, transfer of energy from powerful hind quarters, minimise up-and-down movements of body during locomotion (conserves energy)
78
Functional adaptations to high-speed locomotion: canine
- Elongation of limbs with mass being proximal -digitigrade: need claws for catching prey, claws may assist with grip - flexible back: arches & straightens over wide range - increases stride length - tail: assists with balance when out-of-balance
79
clinical consequences of adaptations: equine
- low safety margins: bones and tendons (fractures and tendon strains) - little soft-tissue cover of distal limbs (poor wound/fracture healing) - little soft tissue to absorb impact loads (joint injuries/osteoarthiritis)
80
what are the 2 components of welfare?
physiological components and behavioural components
81
Try and label dog muscle unlabelled in brainscape folder
look at dog muscle labelled answer
82
How to initially set up a microscope?
Initial set up of a microscope 1. Turn on the light and increase the brightness to give a white light output. 2. Rotate the objective Lense to the lowest setting x4 3. Place the side on the stage using the retaining mechanism to hold it in place. Raise or lower the stage to bring the image into focus. 4. Set the eyepieces to the correct width for your eyes so you can look down both together comfortably. Move the, in and out as if you are holding a pair of binoculars and try to create a single round image.
83
how to focus the condenser to make sure the image is in focus?
1. Check that the lowest power objective lense is in place 2. Close the lamp iris on the base of the microscope (where the light comes up) until the edges of the iris appear on the field of vision. 3. Focus the iris by adjusting up and down the substage condenser until the light gives a sharp-edged hexagon shape, which should be in the centre of the stage. 4. Open the lamp iris on the base of the microscope until the iris edges just disappear from your field of view Adjust the condenser aperture to produce the best image
84
what objective lenses are required for urine, parasites and cellular material/microbes?
Objectives required Parasites x4 Urine x10-x40 Cellular material/microbes x10 up to x100 (Oil immersion)
85
What is meant by resolution and magnification?
Resolution is the ability of a microscope to distinguish detail. Magnification is the ability of a microscope to produce an image of an object at a scale larger than its actual size.
86
What are the roles of a skeleton?
Structural (supports the body), Protection of vital organs, locomotion, mineral reservoir
87
What is bone tissue made up of?
organic matrix (osteoid), inorganic matrix, cells (osteocytes, osteoblasts, osteoclasts), vascular spaces
88
What is osteoid? What secretes it and where?
Osteoid is a ground substance in which numerous collagen fibres are embedded. It is synthesised by osteoblasts and secreted onto existing bone surface.
89
What is embedded in osteoid? and what is there role?
collagen type 1 - important structural component around 90% glycoproteins - binds collagen and minerals proteoglycans - bind growth factors bone sialoproteins - associated with cell adhesion
90
What does the inorganic matrix of bone tissue do and what is it composed of?
Bone minerals 60-70% dry weight. Confer hardness and rigidity. Make bone radio-opaque. Composed largely of crystals: hydroxyapatite, carbonate, calcium phosphate
90
What is mineralisation and what is the timeline of mineralisation?
Mineralisation (process at which the sites of newly formed organic bone matrix (osteoid) becomes filled with minerals) commences as soon as osteoid secreted. Reaches 70-80% final in 3 weeks. Takes years to complete.
90
What are the two ways that collagen fibres are deposited in bone formation?
Woven bone - haphazard collagen. quick and dirty formation: young growing animal, fracture repair, etc. mineralises quickly. crossed fibres Lamellar bone (parallel fibre bone) - thin layers of osteoid within which collagen fibres are parallel. Structurally superior. Collagen fibres deposited in different organizational structures.
91
What happens to woven bone?
Woven bone normally mature to stronger lamellar bone.
92
What are osteons and osteoid?
Osteoid is the unmineralized organic portion of the bone matrix, whereas an osteon is the structural unit of compact bone. Osteons are the method to take the blood vessels through the bone.
93
what is the difference between primary and secondary osteons?
Primary osteons are formations characteristics of mature bone. Secondary osteons are formed by replacement of existing bone. These appear differently as osteoclasts when remodelling bone cells first resorb or eat away a section of bone in a tunnel called a cutting bone.
94
Describe the structure of osteonal bone?
Osteonal bone is bone tissue that contains blood vessels surrounded by concentric rings of bone tissue.
94
What is fibrolamellar bone?
Fibrolamellar bone is an impermanent primary bone tissue found in fast growing juvenile mammals. Consists of woven bone interspersed with lamellar bone. It is highly vascular and contains many primary osteons and blood vessels, allowing for rapid bone deposition and growth. Provides strength and flexibility
95
When are primary osteons produced and what do they contain and what are they surrounded by?
Primary osteons are formed during appositional bone growth, when the bone increases in diameter. They run parallel to the long axis of the bone, contain one or more vascular canals and are always surrounded by woven bones.
95
What structure is found at the edge of a secondary osteon?
the cement line
95
what is found in a secondary osteons?
- haversian canal in the centre (containing blood vessels, lymphatics and nerves) - osteocytes in lacuna - canaliculi containing cytoplasmic processes of osteocytes - cement line
96
How are secondary osteons formed?
by coordinated action of osteoclasts and osteoblasts
97
what derives osteoblasts and what do they do? when are they active?
derived from mesenchymal stem cells synthesise and secrete osteoid active in mineralisation process
98
Where are osteocytes found how do they communicate with each other? and what is there role?
Found within the lacunae. They communicate with each other and with other bone cells through canaliculi. In charge of bone remodelling they control osteoblasts and osteoclasts.
99
What is osteoclasts role and what is its characteristics? also what is it derived from?
- responsible for bone resorption, release protons creates acid environment causing demineralisation. Also secretes proteases which destroy organic matrix - large cells, multiple nuclei - derived from bone matrix
100
What are the steps involved in bone modelling and remodelling?
1. Osteoclasts destroy/remove some of the bone 2. Osteoblasts then secrete osteoid and concentric lamellae forms making walls of lamellar bone surrounding a blood vessels 3. Secondary osteon is created
101
What type of bone comes first in the healing process?
Woven bone always come in first for the healing process but then you hope that it will develop to a lamellar bone.
102
What is a stress fracture?
Stress fracture defines a syndrome involving localised bone injury associated with fatigue damage subsequent to repetitive loading.
103
What is meant by strain?
percentage of elongation
104
What is meant by stress?
force per unit area
105
what is meant by yield point on a stress strain graph?
point where structure no longer returns to original shape
106
what is meant by plastic region on a stress strain graph?
Plastic region = structure deformed and moving towards failure
107
What do stress fractures cause and why?
They cause microdamage: Structural damage of various levels, cell death and vascular disruption.
108
Why does remodelling bone eventually contribute to failure?
Remodelling causes increased porosity (empty spaces in a material). Then high strains causes microdamage then the cycle repeats till failure.
109
Where is cartilage found and what is its function?
Cartilage is more pliable than bone. It is found in joints as its function is to provide flexible interface between bones and smooth bearing surface. Flexible support in outer ear, sternum, larynx, cartilage rings of trachea etc.
110
What type of growth is cartilage able to undergo?
interstitial growth (internal expansion)
111
What makes up the matrix of cartilage?
Collagen fibers – Mainly Type II collagen, which provides tensile strength and structure. Proteoglycans – Large molecules like aggrecan, which attract water and help maintain cartilage’s gel-like consistency for shock absorption. Hyaluronic acid – A glycosaminoglycan that forms complexes with proteoglycans to retain water and provide resilience. Glycoproteins – Such as chondronectin, which help anchor chondrocytes to the matrix. Water – Makes up 60-80% of cartilage, aiding in resilience and load distribution.
112
Where is articular cartilage found and why? describe in terms of nerves, blood vessels and lymphatics? what does this cause?
Mechanically unique, hydrated and slippery connective tissue that covers the ends of bones in synovial joints. It is designed to: withstand and distribute load, act as an elastic shock absorber, provide a wear resistant surface to articulating joints self maintaining -avascular -aneural -alymphatic implications for disease and repair
112
What are the 3 types of cartilage?
articular/hyaline, fibrocartilage, elastic
113
What colour is fibrocartilage? Where is it found and why?
white Specialised cartilage in areas requiring tough support or great tensile strength, lines surface of bony grooves for tendon, interface ligament/tendon and bone It contains more collagen vs hyaline cartilage contains type 1 and 2 collagen, lacks a perichondrium (dense layer of connective tissue that surrounds most types of cartilage accept articular and fibrocartilage)
114
What colour is elastic cartilage? where is it found and why?
yellow. Found in the pinna of the ear and several tubes. It keeps tubes permanently open, similar to hyaline but contains elastin scattered through the matrix
115
What is the only type of cell found in cartilage and what is its role?
Chondrocytes are the only cells found in cartilage. Produce and maintain the cartilage matrix. Exist in low density. Must obtain nutrition and O2 by diffusion (cartilage avascular). Chondrocytes continue secreting new matrix when embedded in matrix causing internal expansion (interstitial growth). Chondrocytes are capable of division within matrix.
116
What is membranous and chondral ossification?
Membranous - bones ossify* from mesenchymal cells (scapula, scull bones), found in areas of high load bearing, have fail/fracture configurations that are clean Chondral - bones ossify* from cartilage precursor (most limb bones), found in non-load bearing areas, fracture configuration looks like shattering *ossify means to change into bone or bony tissue
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What are the 6 bone shape classifications?
Long (eg. humorous) Short (eg. carpal bones) Flat (to protect or attach to soft tissue) Sesamoid (provide strength and reduce tendon wear on bone/joints) Irregular (for muscle and ligament attachment) Pneumatic (contain air space)
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What is periosteum? What is the endosteum?
Vessel-rich, bone producing* membrane that covers all of a bone except region with articular cartilage. *Supply blood to the bone which is required for development and remodelling Membrane that lines the marrow cavity and lays down bone, supplied by the nutrient artery
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What is the structure and function of… cortical bone? cancellous bone?
Solid concentric bone arranged around a central osteon. It provides structural support and protection to the bodies bones. Bony trabecular (little beams) with spaces filled with red bone marrow. It provides structural support against stress and flex whilst staying light.
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What is the structure and function of the medullary/marrow cavity?
Hollow bone filled with red and yellow bone marrow. red marrow makes blood cells and the yellow marrow stores fat and minerals.
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What is the nutrient artery?
Vessels in the periosteum supply the blood for the bones via. the nutrient arteries which carry the blood from the vessels to the endosteum.
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What are the functions of these typical long bone features? - The head - Tubercles, trochanters, tuberosites - Fossae - Condyles and epicondyles
Allows a wide range of movement in joints Elevation/raise irregularity in bone that acts as an attachment site for muscles and ligaments Depressed irregularity in bone that acts as an attachment sight for muscles and ligaments Condyles - Provide structural support to bone joints Epicondyles - Allows the attachment of ligaments and tendons
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What are osteoids composed of?
Water, Glycoproteins, Proteoglycans, Bone sialoproteins
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What are the main issues/limitations with bone?
Rigid Hard/Brittle Cannot expand from within/Limited growth
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What happens to woven bone over time?
Is replaced with lamellar bone (not always the case, why some fracture sites are always weaker)
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As bone forms what are the two ways in which the fibres are deposited and organised?
Woven bone (haphazard) - used for growing bone or fracture repair so mineralises quickly Lamellar bone (parallel with bone) - thin layer of osteoid* that collagen fibre grows parallel to, structurally superior.
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What is fibrolamellar bone?
Contains additional fibre making it better at withstanding impact
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What is the main difference between lamellar bone and woven bone?
Lamellar bone contains osteons
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What is the main function of osteons?
To allow blood vessels (and nerves) to run through the bone, these can be seen as the circle in the centre of the osteoblasts
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In an osteons what is the name given to the circle in the centre and what does it contain?
The Haversian canal - contains blood vessels, lymphatics (waste disposal vessels) and nerves
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What is the name given to the line that runs around the outer edge of all osteons?
The cement line
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Where are osteocytes found and what can be seen coming off from them?
Found within the osteoblasts with canaliculi (cytoplasmic processes) running off of them
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What are secondary osteons?
Smaller osteons that come off of the primary osteons into the bone tissue
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What is the main function of osteoclasts and how do they achieve this?
Breaking down the bone and bone reabsorption by releasing protons which create an acidic environment which then leads to demineralisation of the bone. They also secrete proteases which destroys any organic matter.
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Where do osteocytes come from? What method of communication of osteocytes use?
Osteocytes come from differentiated osteoblasts Dendritic processes
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Where do osteoblasts come from?
Mesenchymal stem cells
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What properties do osteoclasts have?
Large cells Lots of nuclei
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Where are osteoclasts derived from?
Bone marrow
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What are the 4(/5) connective tissues?
Epithelial Nervous Connective Muscle (contractile) (- Blood, but this can also be considered connective)
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What are the steps involved in bone modelling and remodelling?
Osteoclasts destroy/remove some of the bone Osteoblasts then secrete osteoid and concentric lamellae forms making walls of lamellar bone surrounding a blood vessels Secondary osteon is created
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How does repetitive strain cause failure?
More stress over time = less elasticity in the bone and more deformation = higher chance of fracture This is referred to as cyclical loading
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What is a stress fracture?
Makes the bone progressively more porous and therefore weak which leads to a large fracture.
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How does remodelling of bone result in a higher chance of failure?
High strains - microdamage - remodelling - increased porosity - fracture
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What does nervous tissue consist of and what is the difference between it in the CNS and PNS?
Nerve Cells and Neuroglial Cells Neuroglial cells in the CNS: - astrocytes - oligodenrocytes - microglial cells - ependymal cells Neuroglial cells in the PNS: - satellite cells - Schwann cells
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What is the function of nervous tissues? Hint: function of neurones and neuroglia cells
Neurons - receive and facilitate nerve impulses - classified based on function and structure Neuroglial cells - supporting cells by facilitating conduction of nerve impulses, immune function, maintenance of neurones
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What are the 4 key functions of connective tissue?
Support Movement Protection Fat/Energy Storage
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What are the 5 main categories of connective tissue? (include subgroups)
Loose (or Areolar) Dense - regular - irregular Cartilage - hyaline - elastic - fibro Bone - lamellar - trabecular Blood (special kind of liquid connective tissue)
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What is the structure and function of LCT, DCT, Cartilaginous and Bone tissue?
LCT Structure = cells found within a network of collagen and elastin fibres Function = loose packing, support, nourishment to associated structures, tissue sliding DCT Structure = matrix composed of collagen and elastin fibres Function = tensile strength and stretch resistance Cartilaginous Structure = depends on cartilage type Function = provides flexibility (as no calcium phosphate) with rigidity, can withstand pressure Bone Structure = collagen network (tensile strength), crystalline (compressive strength), bone cells ( maintenance) Function = provides strength and support
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What are the cells in cartilaginous tissue called and what is their function? What happens to cartilage throughout it’s life (like bone)? Does cartilage have a good vascular supply?
Chondrocytes: produce a matrix made of type ll collagen, glycoproteins and water Broken down and renewed No, its poorly supplied with blood
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What are the differences between LTC and DCT?
Loose has few elastin and collagen fibres - Dense has lots Loose has lots of cells and ground substance - Dense has few cells and less ground substance in the extracellular matrix Loose is less rigid/easily distorted but is still resistance when stretched due to collagens tough barrier - Dense is rigid and hard to distort due to its dense fibre Loose is found in mucosal + submucosal CT of blood vessels, muscle, nerves, organs (kidney, liver) Dense is found in tendons, ligaments, cornea of eye, arteries
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What happens throughout bones life and why is it hard/hardly flexible?
Constantly remodelled Contains calcium phosphate (found as hydroxyapatite) in the extracellular matrix
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What are the 3 main components that make up CT?
Cells Collagen fibres Ground substance (special proteins)
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What is the purpose of the extracellular matrix (ECM) in CT?
Help to separate cells from each other (so not tightly packed), non-living ECM helps classify CT subgroups, structure of the ECM gives CT its morphological and functional characteristics
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What does ECM contain*?
Collagen and elastin fibres - Collagen type l most common it’s strong, flexible but inelastic. - Reticular fibres are fine collagen type lll fibres and these networks fill spaces between tissue and organ. - Elastin has elastic properties but the % varies depending on tissue function Ground substance (non-fibrous protein + other molecules) - amphora’s gel-like substance that surrounds cells - components are hyaluronic acid and proteoglycans Water blood ECM has no collagen fibres
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What is the function of ECm? What produces ECM? Is ECM inert or dynamic?
Structural support of cells, and guides their division, growth and development Specialised cells It is dynamic
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The names of specialist cells that produce ECM end in suffixes that identify the function, what is the function of these suffixes? -blasts -cytes -clasts
-blast = creates matrix -cytes = maintain matrix -clasts = break down matrix for remodelling
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Which of the 3 embryonic layers produces connective tissue?
mesoderm
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What are the 4 types of tissue in embryology? and what is it derived from?
epithelial tissue - derived from all three germ layers connective tissue - primarily derived from the mesoderm Muscle tissue - primarily derived from the mesoderm Nervous tissue - primarily derived from the ectoderm
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During embryonic development where is most connective tissue found and what are its main features? What other names are given to embryonic CT?
During embryonic development, most connective tissue is found in the mesoderm. Main features of embryonic connective tissue: - Loosely packed cells embedded in an abundant extracellular matrix (ECM) - Rich in ground substance, which is composed of glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) and proteoglycans, providing a gel-like consistency - Contains mesenchymal cells, which are pluripotent and capable of differentiating into various cell types (e.g., fibroblasts, chondroblasts, - -osteoblasts, and adipocytes) - Highly vascular, facilitating nutrient exchange and cell migration Other names: Mesenchyme - undifferentiated, pluripotent tissue from which most adult connective tissues originate. Found throughout the embryo, forming the basis for cartilage, bone, and muscle development Wharton's jelly - type of mucous connective tissue found specifically in the umbilical cord, rich in hyaluronic acid and collagen, providing cushioning and protection to the umbilical vessels. Mucous connective tissue - subtype of embryonic CT with a jelly-like consistency. Composed of scattered fibroblast-like cells and gelatinous ECM, primarily located in the umbilical cord (Wharton's jelly)
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What does reticular connective tissue contain? where is it found and what does it do?
composed of reticular fibres (a type of collagen, specifically type III collagen), contains fibroblasts that produce and maintain the fibres Found in lymphoid organs, where it forms a supportive framework.
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What are the two types of adipose tissue and what is its structure and function?
Brown adipose tissue - heat white adipose tissue - energy storage
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What is the structure and function of adipose tissues?
structure - Little ECM surrounding cells, cells full of lipid Function - packaging, protection, insulation
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What are mesenchymal cells surrounded by? How are mesenchymal cells associated?
Mesenchymal cells are surrounded by an amorphous (no desingned shape or form) ground substance composed mainly of hydrated glycosaminoglycans (GAGs), proteoglycans, and glycoproteins, along with a sparse network of reticular fibers (type III collagen). This extracellular matrix (ECM) provides a soft, jelly-like environment that allows the cells to remain loosely associated and mobile. Loosely associated, connected through thin cytoplasmic processes that are embedded in the ECM
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What does all connective tissue contain?
cells, ECM (composed of fibres, ground substance, interstitial fluid - this allows for the exchange of nutrients, gases, and waste products between cells and the bloodstream)
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What are the 3 types of fibre found in CT and an example of where they are found?
Collagen fibres, elastic fibres and reticular fibres. Collagen fibres - provide tensile strength and resistance to stretching. E.g. tendons and ligaments, bone and cartilage, dermis of the skin Elastic fibres - provide elasticity and allows tissues to stretch and recoil. E.g. walls of large arteries, lungs, skin and elastic cartilage Reticular fibres - form a mesh-like network that provides support and structure for soft tissues and organs. E..g. lymph nodes and spleen. liver and bone marrow.
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What is the main structural protein found in connective tissue?
Collagen - consists of three polypeptide chains wound into a helical structure, which gives it strength and stability.
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What structure is collagen found in? How these from collagen fibres? What type of bonds form to stabalise the fibrils and between what?
Consists of three polypeptide chains wound into a triple helix structure, which gives it strength and stability. Repeating sequence of Glycine- X-Y. X is often proline, Y is often hydroxyproline or hydroxylysine. Multiple triple helixes from into collagen fibrils, these then bundle together to form collagen fibres. Covalent cross-links between lysine and hydroxylysine stabalizes the fibrils making it more stable.
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What are the main amino acids in collagen and purpose of these? and what bonds do they have?
Primarily consists of glycine (33%) - smallest amino acid allowing the chains to fit tightly together in the helical structure, proline (10-15%) - introduces kinks in the polypeptide chain, promoting the helical structure, hydroxyproline (post transitionally modified form of proline) - stabilizes the triple helix by forming hydrogen bonds, hydroxylysine (another modified amino acids) - involved in covalent cross-links between collagen molecules, adding strength and flexibility Hydrogen bonds - form between hydroxyproline residues Covalent cross-links - involve lysine and hydroxylysine residues, occur during maturation and strengthen the fibril network Peptide bonds - hold the amino acids together within the chains Van der Waals forces and hydrophobic interactions - contribute to the packing of collagen molecules into fibrils
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How many types of collagen fibres are there?
28 types
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Where is type 1 collagen distributed?
Skin, tendon, organs, mature scar tissue, artery walls, cornea, fibrocartilage, surrounding muscle fibres, organic part of bones and teeth, endomysium
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Where is type 2 collagen distributed?
hyaline cartilage, vitreous humour Vitreous humor is a clear gel that fills the back of the eye and helps maintain its shape and vision
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Where is type 3 collagen distributed?
reticular fibres (organ stroma), granulation tissue Granulation tissue is a type of new connective tissue and microscopic blood vessels that form on the surfaces of a wound during the healing process.
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Where is type 4 collagen distributed?
basal lamina, eye lens, fibration system of capillaries and glomerula
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Where is type 5 collagen distributed?
interstitial tissue (associated with type 1), placenta
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What does GAG stand for? What are GAGs? and how do they work?
Glycosaminoglycans Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) are long, unbranched polysaccharides composed of repeating disaccharide units. They play a critical role in connective tissue function by interacting with water, proteins, and cells. Involved in hydration and lubrication, structural support and cushioning, cell signalling and adhesion, regulation of inflammation. GAGs are highly negatively charged due to the presence of sulfate and carboxyl groups, which attract water molecules. This gives GAGs the ability to retain water, creating a gel-like consistency in the extracellular matrix GAGs combine with proteins to form proteoglycans, which contribute to the ECM's resilience and shock absorption. Their gel-like nature allows tissues to resist compressive forces. GAGs can bind to growth factors, cytokines, and cell surface receptors, modulating cell signaling. GAGs can bind to growth factors, cytokines, and cell surface receptors, modulating cell signaling.
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What are some clinical uses of GAG?
anticoagulants and antithrombotic, osteoarthritis and joint disorders, wound healing and tissue repair, ophthalmic applications, interstitial cytisis and bladder control, drug delivery and cancer therapy, anti-inflammatory and antioxidant applications
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What are some functions of hyaluronic acid?
hydration and moisture retention (remarkable ability to hold up to 1000 times its weight in water), wound healing and tissue repair (promotes cell migration and proliferation, accelerating wound healing), anti-inflammatory and antioxidant effects, skin elasticity and antioxidant effects, skin elasticity and anti-aging, ocular functions, bladder protection, drug delivery and tissue engineering
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What are the two components to welfare?
Behavioural and Physiological
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What does animal behaviour give vets an insight to?
The animals emotional and welfare state Any potential safety concerns for staff, clients and public
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What are the two behavioural based day one competences that graduates must be able to demonstrate? (Bracketed info is for my understanding don’t need to recite this)
‘Do no harm’ (By not creating a situation that causes an animal to be fearful of the veterinary clinic or of routine care procedures (eg, clipping nails), to advise and assist the client to take preventative measures to avoid an aversion to the veterinary practice and provide basic guidance to avoid development of behaviour problems.) Apply ‘behavioural first aid’ (Identify that a problem exists, take short-term measures to ensure the safety of people and animals, and if the veterinarian is not a behaviour specialist and, thus, unable to provide support, refer the animal to a suitably experienced person.)
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What’s a common indicator when assessing welfare, especially in livestock?
Locomotion Is the animal lame? This can indicate both physiology and behavioural issues. This is usually an indicator that the animal is in pain This is assed through observation and scoring systems
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What are some stereotypical behaviours and how are they relevant to NMSK??
Weaving = worn feet, muscle injury, arthritis Strange weight bearing = musculoskeletal system remodels
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How can behaviour impact the success of operations?
Have to consider: pre-op/post-op management hospital cages, box rest will gentle exercise be possible limb amputation adaptation and quality of life
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Can stereotypes be caused due to something neurological?
yes
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What is the difference between acute and chronic pain? How can this make pain scoring difficult?
Acute = short Chronic = long-lasting Pain scoring cannot differ between acute and chronic pain, this can lead to the animal receiving incorrect treatment. This is why a history is essential.
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What is the difference between these pain scales: - SDS - VAS - NRS - Glasgow composite pain scale - Composite pain scale in horses - Facial/grimace scale
Simple Descriptive Scale - 5 or 5 point scale going from mild-moderate-severe Visual Analog Scale - 10cm line, left hand is 0 with no pain right hand is 10 with worst possible pain Numerical Rating Scales - scale of 4, 5 or 10-point pain scale Glasgow - for acute pain composed of 7 questions with a score of 20, guide for analgesic intervention for scores >/= 5 Facial/Grimace - scale 0-2 rating facial tenseness ie. tight lips, 0= not present, 1=moderately present, 2=obviously present
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Define the terminology for these words (include and example): Fear Phobia Anxiety Stress
Fear : Unpleasant emotion caused by threat of danger, pain or harm (horse spooked when car drove past) Phobia : Irrational fear of, or aversion to something. Type of anxiety disorder (dog trembles when balloon goes near it) Anxiety : an uncontrollable physiological, behavioural and emotional reaction to stimuli (separation anxiety when left alone) Stress: any situation that disturbs the equilibrium between living organisms and their environments, they can cause your body to respond differently depending on trigger
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What are the 4 F’s? What are they a sign of?
Fight - attack threat Flight - escape threat Freeze - stiffen up Fidget - appears overly energetic, can’t stay still Anxiety and fear
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What are the 8 steps in the SVMS animal handling template?
species organ and evolutionary history Individuals history and context of interaction Assess environment and maximise comfort asses animal body language as indicated comfort level and intent asses your body language and behaviour asses handler language and attitude handling tools safe, effective restraint
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Have a go at labelling the unlabelled Maslow's hierarchy in brainscape folder
look at labelled Maslow's hierarchy in brainscape folder
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What is the difference between emotion, mood and temperament?
Emotion: response to stimuli, short lived Mood: positive or negative, not reliant on stimulus, longer-lasting Temperament: individuals emotional predisposition, long lasting (genetics, life experiences)
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What is neophobia?
A fear of new things
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What is the difference between homeostasis and allostasis?
Homeostasis: bodies response to change Allostasis: bodies response to the anticipation of change as well as actual changes
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What are the two key components in the stress response (one is a rapid response pathway the other is slow)?
Flight or fight response - rapid Hypothalamic-Pituitary-Adrenal axis (HPA) - takes minutes to hours
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What are the 3 main types of stress? What is the body trying to do when it responds to stress?
1.Eustress - good stress 2.Neutral stress (neustress) - not harmful 3.Distress - affects well-being Body becomes aroused and attempts to reduce the stress
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What is General adaptive syndrome (GAS)? What are GAS’s 3 stages? What are the 2 major body systems involved in GAS?
The General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS) is a three-stage physiological response to stress Alarm - Resistance - Exhaustion (referenced image - GAS image in BrainScape) Nervous and endocrine/hormonal
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When the body is in the alarm response what happens?
Flight or fight: - body prepares for physical activity - increase in epinephrin and norepinephrine = increase activity of sympathetic nervous system - activation of HPA axis = increase in corticosteroids (supress imune system) - adrenaline, noradrenaline, corticosteroids mobilise energy reserves and raise blood glucose - immune system repressed (susceptible to illness)
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When the body is in the resistance response what happens?
Second stage of the GAS, which describes how the body reacts to stress. Hormonal response - releases stress hormones, such as cortisol, epinephrine and norepinephrine, to sustain the energy and keep the body alert. Cortisol levels remain elevated, which increase glucose to provide energy. Body tries to maintain homeostasis despite the ongoing stress. Prolonged stress can cause immune system suppression and decreased sensitivity to stressors Risk of progression to exhaustion
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When the body is in the exhaustion response what happens?
Third and final stage of GAS Depletion of energy resources, leading to chronic fatigue and weakness weakened immune system, cortisol levels will remain high but might eventually drop due to burnout. Physical symptoms of exhaustion, such as headaches including cognitive and emotional decline Potential for serious health issues
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What process occurs when a stress message is received?
stress perception (stressors detected by sensory organs (eyes, ears, etc) or interpretated by the brain, the amygdala assesses the situation and signals the hypothalamus which acts as a control centre and activates the SNS. SNS sends signals through the ANS to the adrenal glands which release epinephrine and norepinephrine, which cause: increase HR, increased BR, dilated pupils, muscle tension and redirected blood flow from unnecessary organs. If the stressor persists, the HPA axis is activated to sustain the stress response. The hypothalamus releases corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH), this signals the pituitary gland to release adrenocorticotropic hormone, this prompts the adrenal glands to release cortisol (boosts glucose, enhances alertness and focus, reduces non-essential functions). Once the stressor has gone, the PNS activates, causing cortisol levels to drop, HR and BR normalise, and body returns to homeostasis.
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What in the body is turned off when the flight or fight repose is deactivated?
stress hormone production decreases, HR and BP normalise, breathing slows, digestive system reactivates, immune function resumes, muscle tension relaxes, pupil dilation reverses, cognitive focus shifts
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What’s the HPA axis and how does it respond to stress?
Hypothalamic-Pituitary-Adrenal axis. Its a complex network involving three main components: the hypothalamus, pituitary gland and adrenal glands. The HPA axis activates through a cascade of events: stress signal detection, pituitary activation, adrenal gland activation resulting in the stress response effects. Hypothalamus releases corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH) into pituitary gland. Pituitary gland releases Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) via blood, this acts on cortex of the adrenal gland. Adrenal cortex releases cortisol into the circulatory system this activates the body's cells, endocrine glands and brain. Cortisol effects - turns off insulin, liver starts releasing glucose, increase in energy supply - shuts down reproductive function and inhibits production of growth hormone - bodies energy supply can be concentrated on dealing with the stress.
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What is a conditioned emotional response?
Learned emotional reaction to a previously neutral stimulus.
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What is the usual order in which behavioural problems are investigated? What are the 3 factors associated with behaviours problems?
-identify and define the behaviour -gather background information -observe and record the behaviour -assess environmental and social factors -physiological and cognitive evaluation - rule out medical causes -diagnose and develop an intervention plan behavioural factors are typically influenced by 3 key factors: biological factors, physiological factors, environmental/social factors
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What are the 4 categories of aggression? What can be a contributing factor to all 4?
Defensive (fear-related) Irritable (pain-related), protective (territorial), predatory hypertension (high-blood pressure)
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What steps would a behaviour counsellor take when a behaviour problem is presented?
Takes a holistic, systematic approach: - comprehensive history and observation -rule out medical issues -identify triggers and motivation -create and implement a tailored behaviour modification plan -provide ongoing support and adjustment to ensure long-term success
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What are the ABC’s of behaviour?
✅ Antecedent → What happens before the behavior? ✅ Behaviour → The specific action or response that occurs. ✅ Consequence → What happens after the behaviour?
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What behavioural advice do clients seek from general practice?
- mental health and emotional well being -parenting and behavioural awareness -lifestyle and behavioural changes
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What is the amygdala? What are the main 4 nuclei found in the amygdala? What is found dispersed in the fibre tracts of the nuclei and what are the two most important groups? What’s the main purpose of the amygdala?
The amygdala is a small, almond-shaped cluster of nuclei located deep within the temporal lobe of the brain, near the hippocampus. It is a key part of the limbic system, involved in emotion processing, memory, and behaviour regulation. Basolateral complex (BLA) - emotional learning and associations Central nucleus (CeA) - involved in automatic and behavioural responses, plays a role in fear conditioning Corticomedial nucleus - olfactory processing and the regulation of appetite and sexual behaviour Intercalated masses (ICMs) - regulatory filter for amygdala output, modulating emotional responses Within the fibre tracts of the amygdala, you’ll find interspersed cell groups. The two most important groups are: - the bed nucleus of the stria terminalis (BNST) - functionally linked to amygdala in stress response and anxiety regulation -extended amygdala - incl BNST and parts of the central amygdala, playing a role in chronic stress and addiction-related behaviours. The amygdala's main purpose is to: Process and regulate emotions: Especially fear, anxiety, and aggression. Form emotional memories: It links emotions with memories, enhancing memory consolidation during emotional events. Trigger autonomic responses: Involved in the fight-or-flight response, influencing heart rate, hormone release, and behavior. Decision-making and social behavior: Helps interpret emotional cues and influences emotional decision-making.
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How does lateral nucleus differ from the basolateral complex? What does the lateral nucleus in the amygdala do? What does the central medial nucleus in the amygdala do?
Basolateral complex refers to the entire region, which includes the lateral nucleus as well as the basal and accessory basal nuclei. The lateral nucleus of the amygdala plays a key role in emotional learning and sensory integration, specifically in fear processing. It receives info from the thalamus, sensory cortices and hippocampus. The central medial nucleus (CeM) is part of the central nucleus of the amygdala and is primarily involved in triggering autonomic and behavioural responses.
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What fear responses does the amygdala trigger depending on the specific pathway used?
Amygdala → Hypothalamus → HPA axis: Triggers the fight-or-flight response. Amygdala → Brainstem: Activates reflexive and autonomic responses (e.g., startle reflex, freezing). Amygdala → Prefrontal Cortex: Modulates conscious fear perception and emotional regulation.
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What is fear conditioning? Where in the brain is the primary area for fear conditioning?
Fear conditioning is a form of associative learning in which an organism learns to associate a neutral stimulus (such as a tone or light) with an aversive stimulus (such as an electric shock), leading to a conditioned fear response (e.g., freezing, increased heart rate, or stress hormone release). This type of learning is a key model for studying fear, anxiety, and trauma-related disorders like PTSD. The amygdala, particularly the basolateral amygdala (BLA) and the central nucleus (CeA), is the primary brain region involved in fear conditioning. Here’s how it works: -Basolateral Amygdala (BLA) – Processes and associates sensory information (e.g., the tone and shock) to form fear memories. -Central Nucleus (CeA) – Acts as the output region, sending signals to other brain areas (e.g., hypothalamus, brainstem) to trigger fear responses (freezing, increased arousal, etc.). Other brain regions also play important roles: -Hippocampus – Contextual fear conditioning (associating fear with a specific environment). -Prefrontal Cortex (PFC) – Regulates and extinguishes fear responses. -thalamus – Rapidly relays sensory information to the amygdala. The amygdala is essential for both acquiring and expressing conditioned fear, making it the central hub for fear-related learning and behaviour.
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What is fear extinction?
Fear extinction is a form of learning in which a previously conditioned fear response diminishes when the conditioned stimulus (e.g., a tone previously paired with a shock) is repeatedly presented without the aversive outcome. Unlike forgetting or erasing the original fear memory, extinction involves forming a new inhibitory memory that suppresses the fear response. Key Brain Regions Involved in Fear Extinction Prefrontal Cortex (PFC) – Particularly the infralimbic (IL) cortex (in rodents) or ventromedial prefrontal cortex (vmPFC) (in humans): -Plays a crucial role in inhibiting the amygdala during extinction. -Strengthens extinction memories by suppressing fear responses. Amygdala – Still involved, but its activity is modulated by the PFC: -The basolateral amygdala (BLA) interacts with the PFC to form extinction memories. -The central nucleus (CeA) reduces fear output when extinction is learned. Hippocampus – Helps with context-dependent extinction (remembering whether extinction occurred in a specific environment).
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what is the unconditioned pathway? Describe this pathway.
The unconditioned pathway refers to the neural circuit that processes the innate (unlearned) fear response to an aversive stimulus (like a shock or loud noise), as opposed to the conditioned pathway, which learns associations between neutral and aversive stimuli (like in fear conditioning). Thalamus -Receives raw sensory input (e.g., pain, loud sounds) and relays it rapidly to the amygdala. -The sensory thalamus (e.g., medial geniculate nucleus for sounds) provides a quick but crude signal. Amygdala (Central Nucleus, CeA) -The central nucleus (CeA) is the primary output for innate fear responses. -Activates downstream targets to trigger freezing, increased heart rate, stress hormones, etc. Hypothalamus & Brainstem -The CeA projects to the periaqueductal gray (PAG) (for freezing/defensive behaviors) and the lateral hypothalamus (for autonomic responses like increased blood pressure). How It Works (Example: Response to a Shock) Stimulus: A painful foot shock activates nociceptive (pain) pathways. Fast Thalamic Route: The shock signal reaches the lateral amygdala (LA) via the posterior intralaminar nucleus (PIN) of the thalamus (a direct, subcortical route). Amygdala Processing: The LA quickly activates the CeA, which orchestrates the fear response. Fear Outputs: Freezing: Via projections to the PAG. Autonomic Arousal: Via the hypothalamus and vagus nerve. Stress Hormones: Via the bed nucleus of the stria terminalis (BNST) and HPA axis.
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What is the difference between the pathways of a conditioned and a unconditioned pathway?
Conditioned vs. Unconditioned Pathways in Fear Conditioning Unconditioned Response (UR) Pathway: Mediates the innate reaction to the aversive stimulus (e.g., shock → freezing). Conditioned Response (CR) Pathway: Develops after learning, linking a neutral stimulus (tone) to fear via the basolateral amygdala (BLA). Key Difference The unconditioned pathway is hardwired and does not require learning. The conditioned pathway (involving BLA and PFC) is plastic and forms through associative learning. Innate behaviors are those actions or responses that occur naturally, without the need for learning or experience. Aversive stimulus is a term used in psychology to refer to any stimulus or occurrence that evokes avoidance behavior or escape behavior in an individual.
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What is the difference between conditioned, unconditioned and neural pathways?
Unconditioned pathways are innate, natural or reflexive pathways. They are hardwired in the nervous system and do not require prior learning. They involve unconditioned stimuli and unconditioned response. Conditioned pathways are formed through learning and experience, they involved the association of a neutral stimulus and an unconditioned stimulus until the neutral stimulus alone triggers the response. The learned association creates a conditioned stimulus and a conditioned response. Neural pathways have physical connections of neurons in the brain and the nervous system. They are the biological structures that carry electrical and chemical signals between different parts of the brain and the body. Neural plasticity allows these pathways to be strengthened or weakened through experience and learning.
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What pathway does the neutral stimulus follow and what is the result in achieving a conditioned response?
Initial pathway of the neutral stimulus - pathway during conditioning - conditioned response Initial pathway involves sensory detection by sensory organs and the associated signal being transmitted to the brain. Then processed by the thalamus , which sends it to the appropriate sensory cortex for interpretation. The stimulus is neutral so the brain perceives it but does not trigger a reflex or automatic response as it is purely recognized as a meaningless signal. Pathway during conditioning. When the neutral stimulus is repeatedly paired with an unconditioned stimulus, the brain starts forming new associations. You then get the co-activation of pathways (the NS pathways and the unconditioned stimulus pathway fire simultaneously) this leads to the formation of an association (amygdala (emotional learning centre) and hippocampus (memory centre), neural connections strengthen. The prefrontal cortex also plays a role in forming the association. As it is involved in cognitive processing and integrating information. It helps regulate and consolidate the learned association making it more stable. This causes the neutral stimulus to become a conditioned stimulus. It now triggers the same response as the unconditioned stimulus. The neural pathway has been altered through synaptic plasticity and Hebbian learning. Key Takeaway The neutral stimulus initially follows a sensory pathway without causing a significant response. During conditioning, it becomes linked to the emotional or motor response pathway through synaptic strengthening. The result: the once-meaningless NS now triggers a conditioned response (CR).
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What is contextual conditioning and how does it work?
contextual conditioning is a form of classical conditioning in which the environment or context itself becomes part of the conditioned stimulus. The context becomes a conditioned cue. The brain associates the environment or context with the unconditioned stimulus. eventually the context alone triggers the conditioned response. This process involves the hippocampus (memory centre) and the amygdala (links the emotional response to the unconditioned stimulus and the context). This creates a context-dependent memory. Prefrontal cortex is also important as it regulates and integrates the contextual and emotional information and is involved in decision making, interpretation and learning.
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Provide definitions for the following terminology: 1. Behaviour Modification 2. Habituation 3. Systematic Desensitisation 4. Counter-conditioning
1. Behaviour modification is a therapeutic approach based on the principles of operant and classical conditioning. It involves using reinforcement, punishment, or extinction to change or shape specific behaviours. 2. The process of making or becoming accustomed or used to something 3. Systematic desensitisation is a therapeutic technique used to reduce phobias or anxiety by gradually exposing the individual to the feared object or situation while practicing relaxation techniques. 4. Counter-conditioning is a behavioural therapy technique in which a previously learned association is replaced with a new, more positive association.
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Provide definitions for the following terminology: 1. Flooding 2. Reinforcement 3. Punishment 4. Associative learning
1) Flooding is a behavioural therapy technique used to treat phobias and anxiety disorders by exposing the individual to the feared stimulus at full intensity for a prolonged period. 2) Reinforcement is a principle of operant conditioning in which a consequence strengthens or increases the likelihood of a behaviour. 3) Punishment is a principle of operant conditioning in which a consequence decreases the likelihood of a behaviour occurring again. 4) Associative learning is a form of learning in which an individual links two stimuli or a behaviour with a consequence. Examples. 1) placing a person with arachnophobia in a room full of spiders 2) giving praise for good behaviour 3) giving detention for tardiness 4) dog salivates when hearing a bell
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Provide definitions for the following terminology: 1. Desensitisation 2. Sensitisation 3. Aversive 4. Pheromonatherapy 5. Clicker-training
1) Desensitization is a process of reducing emotional or physiological responses to a stimulus through gradual and repeated exposure. 2) Sensitization is a form of non-associative learning where repeated exposure to a stimulus increases the response over time. 3) An aversive is any stimulus or experience that is unpleasant, uncomfortable, or undesirable, often used in punishment-based training. E.G. shock, loud noise 4) Pheromonatherapy is the use of synthetic pheromones to influence animal behaviour and reduce stress, anxiety, or aggression. 5) Clicker training is a positive reinforcement training method that uses a small device (clicker) to mark desired behaviours.
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What is genetic influence?
Genetic influence refers to the impact of inherited genes on an individual's physical traits, behaviours, and psychological characteristics.
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Match up the time period and description using the period to be matched version in BrainScape folder
Prenatal - 6 Neonatal - 2 transitional - 3 socialisation period - 4 juvenile period - 1 social maturity - 5 possibly
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Summarise the following mechanisms of learning: 1. Simple, non-associative (eg habituation and sensitisation) 2. Associative (eg classical conditioning and operant conditioning) 3. Imprinting 4. Social learning
1) learning through exposure to a single stimulus without forming associations. 2) learning through forming connections between stimuli or behaviours and consequences 3) A rapid form of learning that occurs during a sensitive period and creates a lasting bond or recognition. 4) Learning by observing and imitating the behaviour of others.
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What is classical learning? What is operant learning?
Classical learning, or classical conditioning, is a type of associative learning where a neutral stimulus becomes associated with a meaningful stimulus, leading to a conditioned response. Operant learning, or operant conditioning, is a learning process where behaviour is strengthened or weakened by consequences (rewards or punishments).
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What are positive reinforcers? What is a negative punishment?
A positive reinforcer is any stimulus that, when added after a behaviour, increases the likelihood of that behaviour happening again in the future. Negative punishment occurs when a desirable stimulus is removed after a behaviour, which decreases the likelihood of that behaviour happening again.
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What is a negative reinforcer? What is positive punishment?
A negative reinforcer is the removal of an unpleasant stimulus to increase the likelihood of a behaviour recurring. Positive punishment involves adding an unpleasant stimulus to decrease a behaviour.
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What is an unconditioned reinforcer?
An unconditioned reinforcer (or primary reinforcer) is a stimulus that is naturally rewarding and does not require learning to be effective. E.G. sleeping.
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When pain scoring what is the difference between sensitivity and specificity?
sensitivity is the ability of a pain assessment tool to correctly identify individuals who truly have pain. specificity is the ability of a pain assessment tool to correctly rule out individuals who do NOT have pain.
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Why is the analysis of locomotion important?
Allows evaluation of what is normal/abnormal You can assess gait patterns Becomes easier to identify gait adaptations – e.g. lameness Highlights performance and welfare indicators
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What are the pros and cons of the two ways in which locomotion can be measured and which do vets use mostly?
Human Observation (vets use) P - low technical requirements, low cost C - subjective/biased, human eye misses details, experience needed Technical Equipment P - objective, less bias, measurable C - needs dedicated equipment, space, resources, personnel and has high cost
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What are gaits?
Specific patterns of footfall during locomotion. These change with speed and have characterised sequences.
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What is a stride and how is it different to a gait?
A stride takes place within a gate, it is the complete cycle of one movement* and has two phases: The stance phase (weight bearing) and the swing phase (non-weight bearing) *from the setting down pf foot to the next setting down of the same foot
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What are the 4 gaits?
Walk, Trot, Canter, Gallop
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What are the properties associated with walk?
Four-beat, Symmetric, Never >3 or<2 limbs bearing weight at one time, centre of gravity in a triangle between weight bearing feet Footfall sequence : RH-RF-LH-LF
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What are the properties associated with trot?
Two-beat, symmetric, diagonal gait, body supported alternately by L&R diagonals, period of suspension (between successive stance phases), marked axial twisting resisted by axial system
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What are the properties associated with canter?
Three-beat, asymmetric, 1 moment of suspension (when forelimb leaves ground before hindlimb hits the ground), lead leg is left or right, one diagonal pair and other two limbs out of phase RH, RF+LH, LF OR LH, LF+RH, RF
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What are the properties associated with gallop?
Four-beat, asymmetric, lead with inside/lead leg around a turn, moment of suspension RH,LH,RF,LF
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What is the moment of suspension?
Period when o feet are in contact with the ground (fast trot, canter, gallop) Usually 1 per cycle but 2 in greyhounds and cheetahs (see image)
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What are the 3 types of gallop and how many moments of suspension do they have?
Transverse = 1 (LH RH LF RF *) Rotary = 2 (RH LH * LF RF *) Counter-rotary = 2, just opposite of rotary
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What species use transverse gallops?
Dogs at low speed Horses (odd-toed ungulates*) Cattle (large even-toed ungulates) *mammals with hooves
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What species uses rotary gallop?
Cats Dogs at high speed Gazelle, antelope (small uneven-toed ungulates) Running rodents Horses during disunited canter (not good ryhtmn)
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What species uses counter-rotary gallop?
Greyhounds on the track as it’s anti-clockwise
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Why do animals change gait?
Physical necessity due to the pendulum effect, centrifugal force acting upwards and fraude number* = leg moving at constant velocity:gravitational force Metabolic advantages, so animal will move at speed which is energy efficient and that matches with the respiratory rate Mechanical advantages to reduce bone strain *Speed at which we change gait ie. walk to run
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What are the two main neurological impacts on limb coordination?
Cerebellar Dysfunction - The cerebellum plays a key role in fine-tuning motor movements, balance, and coordination. Damage or dysfunction here can lead to: - Ataxia: uncoordinated, clumsy movements - Dysmetria: inability to judge distance or scale of movement (like overshooting a target) - Tremors during intentional movement (intention tremor) Proprioceptive Impairment - Proprioception is the sense of body position and movement, largely mediated by the dorsal columns of the spinal cord and peripheral nerves. Damage can result in: - Poor limb position awareness: leading to misjudged or delayed movements - Sensory ataxia: coordination worsens when visual input is removed (e.g., positive Romberg sign)
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What are the two ways in which horses are adapted for high-speed locomotion? Equine Species Adaptation
- relatively rigid spine/ sacroiliac junction: large gut, large body mass, transfer or energy from powerful hind quarters, minimises up-and-down movements of body during locomotion (conserves energy) - conservation of energy: whiplash effect on limb, long tendons (transfer load, shock absorbers, energy store), stable joints (limit range of movement but little extra support required (low mass= low inertia)
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How are dogs adapted for high-speed locomotion? Canine Species Adaptation
- elongation of limbs (mass proximal) - digitigrade ( needs claws for catching pray, also assist with grip) - flexible back (arches and straightens over wide range- increasing stride length, no restriction from gut - tail (assists with balance)
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What are the clinical consequences in the equine adaptation to high-speed locomotion? Equine Species Adaptation
- low safety margins: bones and tendons (fractures and tendon strains) - little soft-tissue cover distal limbs (poor wound/fracture healing) - little soft tissue to absorb impact loads (joint injuries/OA)
229
What are there two purposes of cartilage in the body?
Joints ie. flexible interface between joints Flexible support ie. outer ear
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What are the 3 types of cartilage?
Articular/Hyaline Fibrocartilage Elastic
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What are the typical ways/forms in which you can find articular cartilage?
- joint surfaces, covering the end of the bones, like in synovial joints - precursors of bone in the embryonic skeleton - found in bones as a centre of ossification* for bone growth - mostly type ll cartilage *turning cartilage and fibrous tissue into bone
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Articular cartilage is Avascular, Aneural and Alymphatic what do these three words mean?
Avascular = devoid of blood vessels Aneural = devoid of nerves Alymphatic = devoid of lymphatics
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What are the main properties of cartilage?
Withstand and distribute load Elastic shock absorber Wear resistance against surfaces in articulating joints Self maintaining
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What is fibrocartilage? Where is it found?
Specialised cartilage for areas requiring tough support or tensile strength Intervertebral disks and surfaces of bony groves for tendons (interface ligament/tendon and bone)
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What does fibrocartilage, elastin and articular contain?
Fibro: Type l and ll collagen (more collagen than articular), Type ll makes up 50% of dry weight, lacks perichondrium * Articular: Type ll cartilage Elastic: Type ll cartilage, elastin its matrix * layer of dense irregular connective tissue that surrounds cartilage, especially hyaline and elastic cartilage
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What does elastic cartilage look like? Where is it found?
Yellow Found in the pinna of the ear and several tubes like the larynx which it keeps permanently open
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What is the name given to the only cells found in cartilage? What are their functions? How do they obtain nutrients? Can they divide?
Chondrocytes Keeping and maintaining the matrix, they can secrete new matrix whilst embedded in the matrix (this results in internal expansion) Through the diffusion of O2 as cartilage is avascular Yes, they divide within the matrix
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Do chondrocytes vary in cartilage, if so, how?
Their morphology depends on their depth/zone. They have different biochemical, biomechanics and physiological properties.
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What are the zones of cartilage?
Superficial Middle Deep Calcified
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What does the ground substance that the typical collagen framework imbeds in consist of?
Water and carbohydrates (so it’s highly hydrated)
241
Where do cranial nerves arise from?
I + II = cerebrum III - XII = brainstem
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How many sets of cranial nerve pairs are there? (they mirror each other hence the pairs)
12
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Label the 3 foramina's
1- optic canal 2 - orbital fissure 3 - rostral alar foramen
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What are the names of the 12 cranial nerves? And which one has 3 branches and what are these 3 branches?
OLFactory OPtic OCCulomotor TROchlear Trigeminal * Abducen Facial Vestibulocochlear Glossophrayngeal Vagus (Spinal) accessory (spinal and cranial part) Hypoglossal V1 opthalmic branch V2 maxillary branch V3 madibular branch
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What is the exit point for the cranial nerves?
Olfactory - olfactory foramina Optic - optic canal Oculomotor - orbital fissure Trochlear - orbital fissure Trigeminal - V1, 2 and 3 Abducens - orbital fissure Facial - Stylomastoid foramen Vestibulocochlear - internal acoustic meatus Glossopharyngeal - Jugular foramen Vagus - Jugular foramen Accessory - Jugular foramen Hypoglossal nerve - Hypoglossal canal
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Identify where the cranial nerve are? using the cranial nerve unlabelled version
1 through 12 in order as below I olfactory II optic III oculomotor IV trochlear V trigeminal VI abducent VII facial VIII vestibulocochlear IX glossopharyngeal X vagus XI accessory XII hypoglossal nerve
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What are the 3 groups that cranial nerves can be put into?
Special senses (olfactory, optic, vestibulocochlear) Innervation of head muscles (oculomotor, trochlear, abducens, hypoglossal) Innervation of structures originating from brachial arches (trigeminal, facial, glossopharyngeal, vagus, accessory) The branchial arches (also called pharyngeal arches) are structures that develop in the embryonic stage and give rise to various anatomical structures in the head, neck, and face.
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What nerve provides all sensory innervation to the head?
trigeminal nerve
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What are the 3 branches of the trigeminal (V) nerve? Which is the motor branch, what are the clinical signs that there is an issue with this branch?
Opthalmic, Mandibular, Maxillary Mandibular - masseter muscle atrophy, drop jaw
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Which aspects of the face does the facial nerve impact when it comes to motor function?
Ear, eyelid, cornea, lip
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What are the two part functions of the vestibulocochlear?
Cochlear = hearing Vestibular = balance
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What are the signs that there is a vestibular issue with CN-Vlll?
Head tilt, circling , nystagmus (involuntary rapid movement of one or both eyes), leaning
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What motor innovation does the glossopharyngeal CN-IX provide?
Motor function to the tongue and pharynx
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What are the signs that there is an issue with the glossopharyngeal cranial nerve?
Tongue = Stylopharyngeous (inability to move feed from the back of the tongue to the oesophagus Pharynx = difficulty swallowing, respiratory noises, pharyngeal collapse Grass can sometimes be seen through the nose
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What happens if there is an issue with the vagus CN-X? What are tests that can be done to test for problems?
Laryngeal paralysis, stridor (high-pitched breathing) , dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) Slap test (not commonly used anymore, feeling for larynx flinch ), endoscopy, passing a nasogastric tub Issue with the glottis
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What muscles does the accessory CN-Xl control? What are the signs that there is damage to the accessory
Sternocleidomastoid (SCM) Function: Turns the head to the opposite side and flexes the neck. Trapezius Function: Elevates the shoulders (shrugging) and helps rotate and stabilize the scapula. Signs of nerve damage - shoulder droop on affected side due to trapezius weakness - difficulty when shrugging the shoulder - weakness turning the head away from the side of the lesion - scapular winging or asymmetry - muscle atropy over time in the SCM/ trapezius
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What does the hypoglossal CN-Xll control? How can you identify if there is an issue with CN-Xll?
Nerve is all about tongue movement. Innervates all intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue except the palatoglossal (which is the vagus nerve) Speech (articulation) Swallowing Chewing Moving the tongue in and out, and side to side Tongue deviation Towards the side of the lesion in a lower motor neuron (LMN) lesion ➤ "The tongue licks the lesion." Opposite side deviation in some upper motor neuron (UMN) lesions Atrophy (wasting) of the tongue muscles on the affected side Fasciculations (small, involuntary muscle twitches) — a key LMN sign Speech issues (dysarthria) Slurred or imprecise pronunciation due to tongue weakness Difficulty with swallowing (dysphagia)
258
Identify 1-7 of the brain image 1 and distinguish which is Grey matter and which is white? Where has this transection been taken from?
Grey Matter 1. Cerebral Cortex (neocortex) 2. Cingulate Gyrus 3. Basal Ganglia: Caudate Nucleus White Matter 4. Cerebral White Matter 5. Corpus Callosum 6. Internal Capsules 7. Ventricles - Lateral Ventricles The cerebral hemisphere of the telencephalon
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Identify structures 1-7 image 2 and distinguish between the grey and white matter?
Grey Matter 1. Cerebral Cortex (neocortex) 2. Cingulate Gyrus White Matter 3. Corpus Callosum 4. Internal Capsules 5. Ventricles - Lateral Ventricles 6. Rhinencephalon - Hippocampus 7. Rhinencephalon - Fornix
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Label the lobes of the brain? this is the lobes and cortexs
Look at answered version
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Label the different regions of the brain
look at answered version
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What is grey and white matter?
Grey matter (same as gray matter) is a type of tissue in your brain and spinal cord that consists of neuronal cell bodies and their dendrites. White matter is a type of tissue in your brain and spinal cord that consists of millions of bundles of axons, or nerve fibres.
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label the regions (divisions) and zones of the brain
look at answered version
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Which division of the brain does the thalamus arise or develop from?
Forebrain is spilt into two divisions the telencephalon and diencephalon the diencephalon this gives rise to the thalamus, hypothalamus, epithalamus and subthalamus the telencephalon gives rise to the cerebral cortex, basal ganglia, etc.
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What makes up the brain stem?
midbrain, pons and medulla
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What is the function of the thalamus?
Major relay station for sensory information Integration of motor information from cerebellum and basal ganglia, before passing on to the motor regions of the cortex
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What is the function of the hypothalamus?
Link between nervous system and endocrine system Regulatory centre for the autonomic nervous system Homeostasis: Body temp, Blood pressure, Thirst, hunger, Reproduction, Circadian rhythm (wakefulness) Stress response
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label brain image 3
look at answered version
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What is the function of the pituitary gland?
Function: Hormonal regulation of many physiological systems E.g. metabolism, growth, sexual maturation, reproduction and many others
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label pituitary and pineal glands
look at answered version
271
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What is the function of the pineal gland?
Function: Production of melatonin Seasonal regulation: sleep/wake cycle Reproduction Fur colour changes
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brain image 4
look at answered version
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What does the brain stem do and what is it made up of?
Brain stem connects your brain to the spinal cord it is made up of the thalamus, pituitary gland, pons and medulla oblongata.
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Which part of the brain stem control cardiovascular system , respiration, pain sensitivity, alertness awareness consciousness? each comma is for a different part
CS - medulla oblongata R - medulla oblongata PS - PAG (periaqueductal grey) A A C - reticular activating system (RAS), network of neurons extends through the central core of the brainstem, particularly in the pons, medulla, and midbrain.
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use Transection 1. What main features does this transection include? What structure is 1-7 located in? What structure is 8-12 located in? Identify structure 8-12
Mamillary Nucleus + Piriform Lobe The cerebral hemisphere of the telencephalon Diencephalon 8- thalamus 9- interthalamic adhesion 10- hypothalamus 11- mamillary body 12- third ventricle
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use brain transect 2. Identify structures 1-8
Cerebral cortex (neocortex) Cerebral white matter Ventricles - Lateral Ventricles Rhinencephalon - Hippocampus Hippocampus Medial Geniculate Nucleus Brachium of Rostral Colliculus Mesencephalon (midbrain)
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use brain transect 3 What main features does this transection include? What structure is 1-5 located in? What structure is 5-7 located in? What structure is 8 located in?
Oculomotor Nucleus and Red Nucleus The cerebral hemisphere of the telencephalon Diencephalon Mesencephalon
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use brain transect 4. Identify structures 1-4
Cerebral Cortex (neocortex) Cerebral White Matter Mesencephalon (midbrain) Metencephalon (hindbrain)
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use brain transect 5. Identify structure 1
Mesencephalon (midbrain) – cerebellum
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using brain transect 5. Identify structures 2-12
fourth ventricle lateral recess & foramen choroid plexus pyramidal tract medial lemniscus facial nucleus spinal tract of V nucleus of spinal tract of V caudal cerebellar peduncle vestibular nuclei (medial + lateral) reticular formation Cranial nerve - glossopharyngeal/vagus n.
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What main features does brain transection 5 include? What structure is 1 located in? What structure is 2-12 located in?
Facial Nucleus Metencephalon Myelencephalon
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In this transverse section of the spinal cord. Identify structures 1-4 What main features does this transection include? What structure is 1-4 located in?
1- Central Canal Grey Matter 2- Dorsal Horn 3- Ventral Horn White Matter 4- White Matter Spinal cord segment (C-2, 2nd vertebra of the spine) Central Canal
284
What takes in visual information taken? What is it made of and what is the key component?
At the retina Several layers - the key component being the photoreceptors
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When visual information is taken in what path does it take to reach the association cortex of the brain?
Photoreceptors in retina take in information, this moves through the retina into the visual pathways, it then reaches the occipital cortex/visual cortex, once it has reached here it moves to the association cortex
286
What are the 3 most basic layers in the retina and what occurs at them?
Ganglion cells (produce a white matter tract - optic nerve - that transmits info to the brain) Bipolar cells, Amacrine cells, Horizontal cells (allows processing to occur at retina before transmission to the cortex a the cells connect the photoreceptors to each other) Photoreceptors (converting a photon of energy into membrane depolarisation and action potential)
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what are the names give to the relationships at the receptor level and the ganglion cell layer?
one-one relationship multimodal relationship
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What are the three kinds of ganglion cells that can appear when light is shone on them?
1. ON-center ganglion cells Response: Increase their firing rate when light hits the center of their receptive field. Inhibition: Decrease firing when light hits the surround of the receptive field. Function: Detect increases in light intensity (light spots on a dark background). 2. OFF-center ganglion cells Response: Increase their firing rate when light hits the surround and not the center. Inhibition: Decrease firing when light hits the center of the receptive field. Function: Detect decreases in light intensity (dark spots on a light background). 3. ON-OFF ganglion cells Response: Fire action potentials at both the onset and offset of a light stimulus. Function: These are particularly good at detecting motion or changes in light intensity.
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Where are you most likely to find small and large field ganglion cells in the retina?
Small Field Ganglion Cells Location: Primarily found in the central retina (fovea). Receptive Field: Very small. Function: High spatial resolution and color vision. Associated With: Parvocellular (P-cells) pathway. These cells are excellent at detecting fine detail and color differences Large Field Ganglion Cells Location: More common in the peripheral retina. Receptive Field: Large. Function: Sensitive to motion, low contrast, and broad spatial changes. Associated With: Magnocellular (M-cells) pathway. These cells are key for motion detection and temporal resolution.
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What happens to lateral inhibition ganglion cells when light is shone on them? and What is the purpose of lateral inhibition?
If light hits both centre and surround equally: The responses cancel out somewhat due to lateral inhibition from horizontal and amacrine cells. Result: Minimal change in firing → this sharpens contrast at edges. Lateral inhibition boosts our ability to detect: Edges Borders Small differences in light across space
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When do ganglion cell fire off when stimulus is applied?
ganglion cells fire when: There's contrast between the center and the surround of their receptive field. The specific pattern of light/dark matches their center-surround arrangement. The stimulus changes, like a flicker or edge passing by — especially for ON-OFF or motion-sensitive cells.
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What is the lateral geniculate nucleus?
The lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) is like the brains visual relay station. A relay center in the thalamus for the visual pathway. Shaped like a bent knee (which is where the word "geniculate" comes from — Latin "genu" = knee). Receives input from the retinal ganglion cells via the optic tract.
293
What is another name given to the visual cortex in the brain?
striate cortex, primary visual cortex, broadmann area 17
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Once information has travelled through the lateral geniculate nucleus what does it then travel through and what is it’s destination at the end of this next step?
Retina → Optic nerve → Optic chiasm → Optic tract → LGN → Optic radiations → V1 (Primary visual cortex) Optic radiations (geniculocalcarine tract). These are bundles of axons that fan out from LGN towards the visual cortex. Neural highway connecting the thalamus to the brains visual processing centre
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What in the visual cortex connects to ganglion cells and when they receive information from the ganglion cells what happens?
Retinal ganglion cells send their axons to the lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) in the thalamus. Neurons in the LGN then synapse with neurons in the primary visual cortex (V1 So, it’s LGN neurons that connect the visual cortex to the output of ganglion cells.
296
What are the 3 different types of cells found in Brodmans area 17 and what are their functions?
1. Simple Cells Function: Simple cells in V1 are responsible for detecting specific features of visual stimuli such as edges, orientation, and contrast. These cells have distinct receptive fields and respond best to stimuli that have a particular orientation and are located at specific positions within their receptive fields. 2. Complex Cells Function: Complex cells are responsible for detecting more complex patterns and motions. They are involved in integrating information across a larger area of the visual field and are crucial for motion detection and object recognition. 3. Hypercomplex (End-Stopped) Cells Function: Hypercomplex cells are specialized for detecting more complex features such as corners, angles, and the ends of lines. They are critical for processing the boundaries and shapes of objects.
297
What colours do rods and cones pick up on and which is more sensitive?
Rods - shades of grey so darkness Cones - sensitive to blue light (s-cones) sensitive to green light (m-cones), sensitive to red light (l-cones) s and m and L stand for size of wavelength e.g. short-wavelength cones
298
What causes seizures and what are the common signs?
Seizures are caused by abnormal electrical activity in the brain. This can happen for various reasons, and they can be triggered by many different factors. Some common causes include: epilepsy (recurrent, unprovoked seizures and is a neurological disorder), stroke, brain infections, brain injury or trauma, brain tumour, hypoglycaemia (affects brain function), sleep deprivation, electrolyte imbalance
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What are seizures?
Seizures are sudden, uncontrolled bursts of abnormal electrical activity in the brain.
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What is epilepsy?
Epilepsy is a chronic neurological disorder characterized by recurrent, unprovoked seizures caused by abnormal electrical activity in the brain.
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What are convulsions and do they occur during seizures?
Convulsions are rapid involuntary muscle contractions. They are common during seizures
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When electrical activity in the brain is measured what can a sudden spike in the waveforms represent?
EEG is typically used for measuring electrical activity in the brain. Common causes for sudden spikes in brain waveforms include: seizure activity, brain injury or trauma, brain tumours, sleep disorders, infection or inflammation of the brain, electrolyte imbalance in the brain, medication or drug effects
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What are the 5 different types of epilepsy?
focal epilepsy - originate in one specific area of the brain generalized epilepsy - involves seizures that affect both sides of the brain from the onset Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy (JME)- type of generalized epilepsy that typically begins in adolescence or early adulthood. Lennoz-Gastaut Sydrome (LGS) - severe form of epilepsy that typically begins in childhood temporal love epilepsy - type of focal epilepsy that originates in the temporal lobes of the brain, which are involved in memory, emotion, and language.
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What is the most common type of seizures in dogs?
generalized seizures. These seizures affect both sides of the brain and typically cause the dog to lose consciousness and experience full-body muscle contractions.
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What are idiopathic seizures? What are structural seizures?
of unknown origin caused by an underlying structural problem in the brain, such as a tumour, brain injury, infection or malformation
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What are some causes to structural seizures (do not need to know all)?
brain tumours, traumatic brain injury, infections (encephalitis, meningitis), hydrocephalus (excess of cerebrospinal fluid in the brain), stroke, brain cysts, brain malformations, brain scar tissue (interfere with the normal flow of electrical signals in the brain and cause seizures)
307
What are the 4 predictable patterns found in seizures (in order), give a brief summary of each
Preictal phase (aura) this is the warning phase, so specific warning signs. Ictal phase (seizure phase) - actual seizure Postictal phase - recovery period Interictal phase - between seizures where the brain is functioning normally, and there are no seizure activities
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What is the difference between focal and generalised seizures?
focal starts in one specific area of the brain (focus), can affect one part of the body or behaviour depending on location, consciousness may or may not be affected generalized starts on both sides of the brain, usually involves losing consciousness, affect the entire body not just one part
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What is status epileptics (SE)?
Status Epilepticus (SE) is a medical emergency where a seizure lasts too long (over 5 mins) or multiple seizures occur close together without regaining consciousness in between
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What are the 3 ways in which seizures can be treated?
medication (anticonvulsants/ anti-seizure drugs) surgery for structural seizures lifestyle and supportive management (dietary therapy, avoiding triggers, regular exercise and sleep, monitoring and seizure diaries, emergency at home medications for cluster seizures)
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When treating seizures what do first line drugs often act on? What type of seizure is usually treated to suppress seizures?
First-line anti-seizure drugs (like phenobarbital, diazepam, or levetiracetam) usually work on the brains neurotransmitters. Generalised tonic-clonic seizures (grand mal) - they are severe, involve loss of consciousness, and cause full-body convulsions. They pose the greatest risks. First-line drugs aim to stop or prevent these seizures due to their intensity and danger
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How do seizure suppressing drugs work?
Seizure-suppressing drugs — also called anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs) or anticonvulsants — work by calming abnormal electrical activity in the brain. Seizure drugs work by: Action Effect Boosting GABA Calms the brain Blocking Glutamate Reduces overexcitation Blocking Sodium Channels Slows down neuron firing Blocking Calcium Channels Reduces signal spread Stabilizing Neurons Prevents seizures from starting GABA is the brains main inhibitory neurotransmitter
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When treating seizure how is drug dose worked out? What is a major factor as to whether these drugs work that the owner must take into account?
- body weight. Dosage is often in mg per Kg of body weight - type of drug, different strengths, durations and absorption rates - frequency of dosing - monitoring blood levels to make sure it is in the therapeutic range - owner compliance consistency on time and as prescribed
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What’s the difference between intra- and extra-cranial causes of seizures?
Great question! The difference between intra-cranial and extra-cranial causes of seizures is all about where the problem originates — inside or outside the brain.
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What are the two most commonly used anti-epileptic drugs and what are their mechanism of action?
Phenobarbital 🔬 Mechanism of Action: Enhances GABA activity (gamma-aminobutyric acid), the brain’s main inhibitory neurotransmitter. This increases inhibition of neurons, making them less likely to fire abnormally. Also reduces excitatory neurotransmission, helping to calm overactive brain circuits. Levetiracetam (Keppra) 🔬 Mechanism of Action: Binds to the SV2A protein on synaptic vesicles (tiny structures that release neurotransmitters). This helps modulate neurotransmitter release, reducing the likelihood of abnormal brain signals that lead to seizures. Does not significantly affect liver enzymes, so it's considered safer for some patients.
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What are the two most commonly used anti-epileptic drugs? What are their half-lives? What are their approximate times to steady state (when the amount of drug being absorbed is the same as the amount leaving the body, concentration of drug at constant)? Are they 1st or 2nd line treatments?
Phenobarbital. Half life 35-90 hours in dogs average around 48-72. Time to steady rate 10-15 days. Line of treatment 1-st line treatment. Highly effective but requires blood level monitoring due to risk of liver toxicity Levetiracetam (keppra). Half life 3-4 hours in dogs. Time to steady rate 1-2 days. Fast onset but dosage of 3 times per day due to short half life. 2nd-line treatment. Great for patients that don’t tolerate phenobarbital or need additional control
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What is the IASP (international association for the study of pain) definition of pain (2020)?
An unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with, or resembling that associated with, actual or potential tissue damage
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Why is pain response/experience different for every being?
Differs due to the context, their cognitive set, their mood and their brains chemicals and structure (Also more basically - trauma, early life experiences and genetics)
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What is nociception?
The neuronal process of encoding noxious stimuli (neural processing of pain). Nociceptive pain is pain caused by the activation of nociceptors. Nocioception includes the reception, conduction and CNS processing of nerve of nerve signals that arise due to this activation.
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What is a noxious stimulus?
Stimulus that’s damaging or threatens to damage normal tissues.
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What is the difference between somatic and visceral pain?
Somatic : pain experienced from skin, muscle, bone damage/disease Visceral : pain experienced because or organ pain (abdominal or thoracic)
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What is wind-up?
Frequency-dependant increase in the excitability of spinal cord neurone, evoked by electrical stimulation of afferent C-fibres (spinal cord wound up by too many signals that then get confused for pain - common with chronic pain)
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What is neuropathic pain?
Pain caused by a lesion or disease of the somatosensory nervous system - contrasts with nociceptive pain The somatosensory nervous system is a complex network of neural structures involved in the perception, transmission, and processing of external and internal stimuli. It includes proprioception, exteroception and interoception. Proprioception: sense of body position and movement Exteroception: sensation of external stimuli Interoception: sensory feedback related to internal bodily states
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Once pain signals travel onto the spinal cord what happens to them?
The either travel to the cortex in the brain or the limbic part of the brain (hippocampus, amygdala and the hypothalamus. These are a set of brain structures involved in emotion, memory, behaviour, and olfaction
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What is the cortex in the brain responsible for?
Picking up signals from sensitive parts of the body so it can identify where the pain signals are coming from and the intensity of these signals
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What is the limbic brain responsible for?
Emotions, response to threats, feelings, behaviour, mood ie. the affective aspects of pain
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What effect do the ascending and descending pathways to the limbic system have on pain?
They can enhance or reduce pain by increasing or decreasing the pain signals travelling to the brain
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which is unconscious and which is conscious out of pain and nociception?
a Pain = conscious (perception of what’s happening in higher centres) Nociception = unconscious (neural processing of stimuli)
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What are nociceptors?
Pain receptors found as non-encapsulated nerve endings
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What are the 3 possible pain stimuli?
mechanical, thermal and chemical
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What are the two pain fibre nociceptors?
A-delta fibres and c fibres
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Where do the nociceptor fibres travel to once activated?
They travel up to the dorsal root ganglion and then into the grey matter of the spinal cord in organised layers, they then reach the brain
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Which has myelinated fibres and which does not out of A-delta and C fibres? How does this affect the fibre?
A is myelinated = fast conduction and well localised resulting in immediate sharp pain C is unmyelinated = slow and not well localised resulting in a dull aching pain
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Why is pain treatment often described as multimodal?
Pain treatment is often described as multimodal because managing pain usually works better when you combine different types of therapies rather than relying on just one method. Such as medications, physical therapy, physiological therapies, interventional techniques and lifestyle changes
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What are the two important ascending pathways in pain transmission?
Spinothalamic = fast, sharp, location-specific pain, pain signals travelling from the spinal cord up to the brain ending at the thalamus which is like the somatosensory cortex) Spinoreticular = slow, dull, emotionally charged pain, chronic pain to the reticular formation in the brain stem which influences alertness and emotional response to pain
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What is the pathway of the spino(cervico)thalamic tract in humans and non-carnivores?
In humans and non-carnivores, the spinothalamic tract dominates pain transmission. Very minor or absent - meaning it plats no role in carrying pain signals In carnivores, the spinocervicothalamic tract is a major conscious pain pathway. In carnivores Here's its pathway: Pain signals start at peripheral nociceptors (pain receptors). First-order neurons enter the spinal cord and ascend ipsilaterally (on the same side) to the cervical spinal cord (around C1–C2). They synapse in the lateral cervical nucleus. Second-order neurons then cross over (decussate) and ascend to the contralateral thalamus. The thalamus processes and sends the information to the cerebral cortex for pain perception.
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What does the spino(cervico)thalamic tract pick up on?
The spinocervicothalamic tract mainly picks up on mechanical and thermal pain — that is, pain from sharp pressure, pinching, cutting, and extreme temperatures (both hot and cold). This role in humans and non-carnivores is mostly handled by the spinothalamic tract instead.
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What is different in carnivores spino(cervico)thalamic tract?
Its a major conscious pain pathway for them. the spinocervicothalamic tract is large and well developed in carnivores, unlike in humans where its almost non-existant. Pathway structure: Pain signals enter the spinal cord from peripheral nociceptors. They ascend ipsilaterally (on the same side) through the spinal cord to the lateral cervical nucleus (around C1–C2 vertebrae). After synapsing there, second-order neurons immediately cross over (decussate) and ascend to the thalamus. From the thalamus, signals are sent to the somatosensory cortex for conscious pain perception. What it carries: It mainly transmits mechanical and thermal pain that is well localized — like sharp, pinching, or burning pain. Why this matters: Carnivores need very fast, accurate detection of injuries during hunting, fighting, or escaping predators — so this tract evolved to give them quick, clear pain information.
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What is the pathway of the spinoreticular tract?
First-order neurons: Pain signals start at nociceptors (pain receptors) in the body and travel into the dorsal horn of the spinal cord. Second-order neurons: In the dorsal horn, the signals synapse with second-order neurons. Ascent in the spinal cord: These second-order neurons ascend in the anterolateral system (same region as the spinothalamic tract). Targets in the brainstem: Instead of going straight to the thalamus like the spinothalamic tract does, the spinoreticular fibers first go to the reticular formation in the brainstem — specifically in the medulla, pons, and midbrain. From the reticular formation: Some signals stay there and affect arousal, attention, and emotional responses to pain. Other signals are relayed indirectly to the intralaminar nuclei of the thalamus. Final step — to the cortex: From the thalamus, information is sent to widespread areas of the cerebral cortex — especially parts involved in the emotional and motivational aspects of pain (not so much the precise location). Spinoreticular tract: spinal cord → reticular formation (brainstem) → thalamus (intralaminar nuclei) → widespread cortex It carries slow, dull, aching, poorly localized pain and ties pain to arousal and emotional experiences.
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What information is passed to the brain by the spinoreticular tract and what does it activate?
Information: dull, aching, throbbing pain, poorly localized pain, chromic pain sensations, emotional and behavioural responses to pain. It activates: reticular formation in the brain first (influences arousal, triggers attention and focus towards the painful stimulus, affects autonomic functions like HR and BP ), then it activates the intralaminar nuclei of the thalamus, which relay information to widespread areas of the cortex (emotion, motivation and awareness)
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Does pain in the head have to travel down and then back up via the spinal cord?
Head pain uses a special direct system. Mainly travels through the trigeminal nerves and its branches not the spinal nerves. Pain enters the brain stem at the pons, they descend a little into the spinal trigeminal nucleus. After synapsing there, second order neurons cross over (decussate) and ascend to the thalamus. Head/face pain → trigeminal nerve → brainstem → up to brain
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Why are there non-conscious responses to pain? (like respiratory change or increase in epinephrine)
Non-conscious responses to pain exist because they help your body survive. When you experience pain, it’s often a signal that something is seriously wrong — like injury, bleeding, or a threat (think: predator attack, accident, etc.). The body needs to react instantly, even before you consciously process what’s happening. So, pain triggers automatic (autonomic) responses through the brainstem and hypothalamus to: Increase respiration → so your tissues get more oxygen if you need to flee or heal. Release epinephrine (adrenaline) → to boost heart rate, blood flow, and energy levels for a "fight or flight" response. Increase blood pressure → to maintain blood flow to vital organs if you’re hurt. Activate sweating → to cool the body under stress. Cause pupil dilation → to improve vision and awareness in dangerous situations. These changes are mostly driven by the reticular formation, hypothalamus, and autonomic nervous system, which work without your conscious control.
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Where are the 3 main places in which pain can be modulated?
Periphery - right at the site of injury, before the signal even enters the nervous system Spinal cord (esp dorsal horn) - pain signals can be amplified or suppressed at the first synapse point inside the spinal cord Brain (supraspinal centres) - pain can be consciously and unconsciously modified at higher levels like the brainstem, thalamus and cortex
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Where are the 3 main places in which pain can be modulated?
peripheral level (occurs at site of injury or in the surrounding tissues) spinal cord level (spinal modulation) - takes place in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord Supraspinal level (brain/ central modulation) - involves higher brain centres, such as the thalamus, cortex, and brainstem (PAG)
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How does periphery modulation work? How do anti-inflammatory drugs achieve this?
When tissue is damaged, cells release inflammatory mediators. These substances sensitize nociceptors, making them more likely to fire and send pain signals. Increased nociceptor sensitivity. Ion channels or nociceptor membranes become more active, even mild stimuli can now cause pain. NSAIDs are a group of medicines that relieve pain and fever and reduce inflammation. These block cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes. This inhibits the production of prostaglandins, which: sensitise nociceptors, increase blood flow and swelling. Result: less nociceptor sensitization, so less pain signal is generated. Corticosteroids (steroids) are anti-inflammatory medicines used to treat a range of conditions. These inhibit phospholipase A2, blocking the arachidonic acid pathway upstream of prostaglandin synthesis. Also suppresses the production of cytokines, like IL-1 and TNF alpha. Result: stronger anti-inflammatory effect, reducing both swelling and pain.
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What are the conditions allodynia and hyperalgesia?
allodynia - pain from a stimulus that does not normally cause pain. hyperalgesia - an increased sensitivity to a painful stimulus, a normally painful stimulus feels more painful than usual.
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What is the purpose of the inhibitory interneurons that can be found between A-delta fibres and C fibres?
The inhibitory interneurons between A-delta and C fibres regulate pain by dampening the signals these fibres send to second-order neurons, thus acting as a local brake on pain transmission. They do this by gate control of pain, They also release inhibitory neurotransmitters such as GABA and glycine, which: - hyperpolarize second-order neurones in the spinal cord. - inhibit transmission of pain signal from nociceptors - reduce the excitation of the ascending pain pathways. Modulated by non-painful input. rubbing a painful area and stimulating A-beta fibres can activate these interneurons. Relieving pain. Control of sensitisation. They help prevent central sensitisation - a state where the CNS becomes overly responsive to pain. Loss or dysfunction of these interneurons is implicated in chronic pain conditions.
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How can A-delta fibres inhibit pain?
While A-delta fibres are primarily excitatory for pain, they can contribute to pain inhibition indirectly by: Activating inhibitory interneurons in the spinal cord Stimulating descending inhibitory pathways Temporarily outcompeting C fibre signals at the spinal level
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What does a TENS-machine do?
Electrodes are placed on the skin over or near the area of pain. The device sends pulsed electrical currents through these electrodes. These currents stimulate sensory nerves, particularly A-beta fibres (non-painful touch/pressure fibres). Which activate inhibitory interneurons in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord. These interneurons inhibit pain transmission from A-delta and C-fibres
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Where does chronic pain usually originate from and what are the two cells involved in this called?
Chronic pain usually originates from the CNS and the PNS. The spinal cord and brain become sensitized by a process known as central sensitization. This is where neurons become hyperexcitable and respond excessively to normal or even non-painful input. Peripheral sensitization can persist due to ongoing inflammation or nerve damage. Damaged nerves can send abnormal signals to the CNS. Two key cells involved are neurons and glial cells (especially microglia and astrocytes). Microglia in the spinal cord and brain become activated in response to nerve injury. They release pro-inflammatory cytokines, which enhance neuron excitability and prolong pain. Astrocytes also contribute by maintaining this pro-inflammatory environment. Together, they play a central role in maintaining central sensitization.
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Why is ketamine used for chronic pain?
NDMA receptor antagonism, NDMA receptors become overactive in chronic pain, this leads to central sensitization and wind-up. Ketamine blocks NDMA receptors, reducing this abnormal neuronal activity. Interrupts pain memory. has rapid action on sever pain it can relieve opioid-resistant pain and reduce opioid tolerance.
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up to 35 pain
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What are the two nuclei in the brain that are responsible for suprasegmental modulation and what do they do?
suprasegmental modulation refers to the control and regulation of pain signals by brain structures located above (i.e., superior to) the spinal cord segments. 2 key nuclei of pain are periaqueductal gray (PAG) in the midbrain and Rostral ventromedial medulla. PAG - acts as a central control hub for descending pain inhibition. Receives input from the cortex and limbic system. Activates descending pathways that project to the rostral ventromedial medulla. Stimulating the PAG can powerfully suppress pain. Rostral ventromedial medulla (RVM) - receives descending input from the PAG. Sends serotonergic and opioid-sensitive projections down to the dorsal horn of the spinal cord. Contains two main types of neurones on and off cells which either facilitate/inhibit pain transmission. Modulates pain up or down depending on the balance of these 2 cell types.
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Where do the descending pathways originate from?
The descending pain modulation pathways originate from several supraspinal (brain) centers, with the key origin points being: cortex, periaqueductal gray, rostral ventromedial medulla, locus coeruleus (pons) cortex -emotion/cognition input to PAG PAG - master controller of descending inhibition RVM - sends inhibitory/facilitatory signals to the spinal cord LC - norepinephrine release for spinal inhibition
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What are some paradoxical effects mediated through the ANS that pain can give rise to?
vasodilation instead of vasoconstriction, leading too warm, red, swollen skin and abnormal sweating patterns bradycardia instead of tachycardia. Slowing of HR. Pain can cause localized or asymmetrical sweating Pain-induced urinary retention or diarrhoea Pupil constriction or dilation
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What is the fundamental must have of any pain scale?
The fundamental "must-have" of any pain scale is that it is subjective and patient-reported.
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How is chronic pain multifactorial? What is the main system involved in chronic pain?
Chronic pain is multifactorial because it arises from a combination of biological, psychological, and social factors, not just from ongoing physical injury. This is described by the biopsychosocial model. The main system involved is the central nervous system (CNS), particularly through a process called central sensitization. Key CNS Structures: Spinal cord dorsal horn: amplifies incoming pain signals Brainstem (e.g., RVM, PAG): modulates pain up or down Thalamus & cortex: process and interpret pain Limbic system (e.g., amygdala, anterior cingulate cortex): adds emotional content
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In older animals, what syndrome can commonly be mistaken for pain?
Cognitive dysfunction syndrome (CDS). This is similar to dementia or Alzhemier's in humans. Animals may show: restlessness, vocalization, changes in interaction, disrupted sleep, house soiling.
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What should you do if you are in doubt about an animal is pain, or whether they are in pain, or how much pain they are in?
- use a validated pain assessment tool such as the Glasgow composite measure pain scale (dogs) - if pain is suspected but unclear, a diagnostic analgesic trial can be used - observe behaviour overtime and look for changes in: activity level, grooming, appetite, interaction with people or other animals
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Is pain scoring used in large animals like cattle? What are some of the issues with treating pain in cattle?
Yes, pain scoring is used in cattle, but it's less standardized and more challenging compared to small animals. Issues - lack of approved analgesics - under-recognition of pain - cost concerns - culture and industry practices - limited training
361
What % do the following groups experience lameness? - Total dairy herd average - Beef finishing cattle - Beef suckler cattle - Adult ewe - Total sheep flock average
Total dairy herd average = 30% Beef finishing cattle = 8% Beef suckler cattle = 14% Adult ewe = 3.2% Total sheep flock average = 10%
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What are the 3 main influential factors that cause lameness (give a couple examples)?
Environmental factors (flooring surface, standing/pooling water) Managerial factors (hoof-trimming and hygiene routine, stocking density) Individual cow factors (behaviour, gait)
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Give two examples of conditions that impact the following parts of the musculoskeletal system: - Hoof/foot (distal limb) - Hock (lower limb) - Stifle (mid limb) - Hip and pelvis (upper limb) (cows)
Hoof/foot (distal limb) = white line disease, digital dermatitis, sole ulcers Hock (lower limb) = infectious or septic arthritis, friction injury due to housing Stifle (mid limb) = sciatic nerve damage, cruciate injury Hip and pelvis (upper limb) = calving paralysis, femoral nerve paralysis
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In the UK what conditions on dairy farms are considered the ‘big three’?
Sole ulcer White line disease Digital dermatitis
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What is white line disease?
The horn of the wall separates from the horn of the sole. Sometimes, there is blood staining (bruising) or infection. Look at white line disease image
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What is digital dermatitis?
INFECTIOUS A highly contagious, erosive infection usually affecting the skin on the bulbs of the heel but it can also be found between the digits or in the area of the coronary band.
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What is a sole ulcer?
A pressure point exists towards the back of the sole leading to poor horn formation and bleeding in the horn. Sole ulcers progress from sole haemorrhage.
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What are some of the risks/causes of the big 3 in cattle?
Sole Ulcers - standing up for long periods on uneven uncomfortable surfaces White Line - slats - flooring Digital Dermatitis - footbaths
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What 6 foot diseases that are common in sheep and what % does each condition make up?
Scald - 45% Contagious ovine digital dermatitis (CODD) - 20% Foot rot - 17% Toe granuloma - 6% Toe abscess - 6% Shelly hoof - 6%
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What is scald (sheep)?
Interdigital Dermatitis - INFECTIOUS Red/pink inflammation of skin between toes with white/grey pasty ‘scum’ on top. Can have a strong smell. Sheep can be very lame with only minor lesions. Scald is early presentation of footrot. Look at scald image
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What is foot rot (sheep)?
INFECTIOUS A bacterial infection causing a separation of hoof horn starting in the inter-digital space. Once established, the sole horn and outer wall horn may be under-run. Common in sheep. Foot root image
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What is contagious ovine digital dermatitis (sheep)?
INFECTIOUS Initially occurs at the top of the hoof (coronary band). Infection starts as a small ulcerated area at the coronary band. The infection progresses to under run the hoof horn capsule downwards towards the toe. The whole horn capsule may fall off. contagious ovine digital dermatitis image
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What are the 5 steps in the 5 point plan to reduce sheep-lameness?
Cull (if sheep has been affected twice or more) Quarantine (new or ill animals) Treat (asap) Avoid (management) Vaccinate (build flock immunity)
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What does DAMNIT V stand for?
D - degenerative A - anomalous M - metabolic N - nutritional I - Inflammatory, infection, idiopathic T - traumatic, toxic
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What is the purpose of DAMNIT V?
To create a differential diagnosis list
376
What conditions can be confused with seizures?
Epilepsy Stroke Tetanus Intoxication
377
What are some clinical signs of BSE in cattle?
LOOK AT clincal signs of BSE
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What is BSE? Why is it really hard to diagnose?
Bovine Spongiform encephalopathy - Mad cow disease Clinical signs may not present until years after infection
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What causes BSE? What caused the BSE outbreak? How are cattle tested? Who do you report a suspected case to?
Proteins called prions, they are abnormal and harmful Prions found in meat-and-bone meal from sheep and cattle that was prion infected Once dead their brain is tested using the BSE rapid screening test (ELISA) APHA (England, Scotland, Wales (NI is regional))
380
What are the 3 main components of the CNS and what are the main clinical signs associated with them?
Brain = change in mental activity Brainstem = cranial nerve damage Spinal cord = abnormal limb movement
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Give definitions for the following mentation states: Normal Depressed Obtunded Stuporous Comatose Other
normal: Animal alert, apprehensive and curious during examination Depressed: Animal awake, not alert to surroundings, uninterested in normal stimuli (not always neurological) Obtunded: Animal dull, slow to respond, still responds appropriately Stuporous: Animal unresponsive to normal stimuli, aroused with strong stimuli Comatose: state of unconsciousness, animal cannot be aroused even with harmful stimuli (emergency) Other: abnormal behaviour, disorientated, delirious, aggressive, head-pressing, fly biting, tail charing, circling
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What are clinical signs of brain disease?
reduced alertness head-pressing teeth grinding irritability blindness seizures circling head turn ataxia sensory processes heightened
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What are signs that there is an issue with the cortex?
Limb and movement deficit Abnormal behaviour
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What are clinical signs of cerebellar disease? Is the common in horses?
head tremors, bobbing exaggerated gaits (hypo/hypermetria*) = symmetric ataxia without weakness absence of menace response irregular nystagmus (vertical + horizontal) No, very rare apart from in Arabs *Under and over exaggeration of movement
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What goes wrong clinically if there is an issue with the cerebellum?
Its a fine tuning organ so it ensures movements are exact so animals struggle to co-ordinate themselves and will have either short or exaggerated movements often missing they target
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What are all head movement issues usually caused by?
Issues with the cranial nerves
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What is the difference in impact between peripheral and central lesions/diseases when it comes to the cranial nerves?
Peripheral (whee the nerve ends up) = only 1 damaged Central (all the nerve roots close together) = impacts multiple nerves
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How would you test, in a horse, that there was an issue with the olfactory CN (l)?
Put smelly sweet food in your pocket and see if the horse is interested and trying to get into your pocket
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What 3 tests, in a horse, would indicate that there was an issue with the optic CN (ll)?
menace response pupillary light reflex obstacle course or visual tracking
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As well as the optic nerve what parts of the brain are used during the menace response?
Retina Detects visual stimulus and sends signal via CN II. Optic Chiasm and Optic Tract Transmit signals to the contralateral side of the brain. Lateral Geniculate Nucleus (LGN) of the Thalamus Relay station for visual information headed to the cortex. Visual Cortex (Occipital Lobe) Processes visual information and perceives the threat. Motor Cortex Initiates the motor response to the perceived threat (e.g., blinking). Corticopontine and Pontocerebellar Fibers Coordinate voluntary movement by relaying signals to the cerebellum. Cerebellum (especially the flocculonodular lobe) Coordinates and fine-tunes the blink response. Facial Nucleus in the Brainstem Sends the efferent signal via the Facial nerve (CN VII) to the orbicularis oculi muscle.
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Would the menace response work on a foal before 14 days of age?
No, the menace response is not reliably present in foals younger than 10–14 days of age. As it is a learned reflex, not innate
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What nerve does the pupillary light reflex test?
optic nerve - afferent limb oculomotor nerve - efferent limb
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What nerve can you accidentally check during the menace response if not done properly?
If the menace response test is not done properly, you can accidentally stimulate the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V)—specifically the ophthalmic branch (V1). Due to air movement or touching of the eyelash
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What nerve and part of the brain does the dazzle reflex check?
The dazzle reflex checks the function of the optic nerve (cranial nerve II) and parts of the brainstem, particularly: optic nerve - afferent limb facial nerve - efferent limb the rostral colliculus (in the midbrain is a key subcortical centre involved in the dazzle reflex)
395
What is the purpose of a guttural pouch in horses?
cooling of blood to the brain (lies adjacent to the internal and external carotid arteries) Pressure equalization between the pharynx and the middle ear possibly a resonance chamber to enhance vocal sounds, though this is speculative
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Why can the guttural push lead to issue with the cranial nerves?
The guttural pouch can lead to issues with cranial nerves because several important nerves pass through or along the walls of the guttural pouch. When the pouch becomes infected, inflamed, or damaged (e.g., by mycosis or empyema), these nerves can be compressed, inflamed, or invaded, resulting in clinical signs.
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label components of the eye
answered version
398
label the anatomy of the eyelid
answered version
399
Label the anatomy of the third eyelid
answered version
400
Identify the labels of the anterior segment of the eye:
answered version
401
What is exophthalmos?
Abnormal protrusion of the eye from the orbit (globe is protruding but normal in size) side note: can be identified by looking from above or assessing retropulsion (push on globe via upper eyelid (doesn’t work well on animals with shallow orbits))
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What is enophthalmos?
Abnormal recession of the eye within the orbit (globe is sunken but remains normal size)
403
What is hydrophthalmos?
Enlargement of the globe but maintains normal position within the orbit
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What is microphthalmos?
Congenitally* abnormal (small) eye but remains in the normal position within the orbit *from birth
405
What is the orbit? What is the purpose of the orbit? Why are there foramina within the walls of orbit?
Cavity within the skull that the eye sits in It protects and separates the eye from the cranial cavity The foramina provide pathways for blood vessels and nerves to reach the eye
406
What is the difference between open and closed orbit and which do carnivores and herbivores have?
Open = Incomplete - has a lateral orbital ligament - found in carnivores (and pigs) Closed = Incomplete - fusion of zygomatic and frontal bones - found in herbivores
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What felid of vision do herbivores and carnivores have?
Herbivores = monocular vision Carnivores = binocular vision
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What is the orbit composed of on a basic level?
Bony cone and soft tissue floor
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Why do carnivores have incomplete orbits?
Allows their jaw to be opened wider
410
What are the 3 different canine skulls shapes/sized?
brachycephalic, mesocephalic, dolichocephalic
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How many bones in total make up the orbit? What 3 bones make up the orbital rim? What is the other structure that helps make the orbit?
5-7, species dependant The frontal, lacrimal and zygomatic bones Soft tissue structures Look at 3 bones image
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Identify and name the bones 1-4?
1- frontal bone 2- zygomatic process 3 - zygomatic bone 4 - maxilla
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Bones in the orbit: Medial limit - Dorsal limit - Rostral and lateral limits - Caudal limit -
Medial limit - frontal lobe (thin, operates obit + nasal cavity) Dorsal limit - frontal sinus Rostral and lateral limits - zygomatic, lacrimal and maxillary bones (make up orbital rim) Caudal limit - sphenoid bone (optical canal + orbital fissure pass through)
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Soft tissues in the orbit: Dorsolateral limit - Rostral and lateral limit - Ventral floor -
Dorsolateral limit - temporal muscle and orbital ligament Rostral and lateral limit - masseter muscle Ventral floor - pterygoid muscles
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How many foramina are in the orbital?
8 different foramina which creates interspecies variation
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What nerves/vessels pass through the optic foramen?
Optic nerve Internal ophthalmic artery
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What nerves/vessels pass through the orbital fissure (dogs/cats – elongated)/orbital foramen (horses/ruminants)?
Oculomotor nerve Abducens nerve Trochlear nerve Ophthalmic nerve
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What (cranial) nerves are the following extraocular muscles innervated by? Dorsal rectus Medial rectus Ventral rectus Lateral rectus Retractor bulbi Dorsal oblique Ventral oblique
Oculomotor (lll) - Dorsal rectus, Medial rectus, Ventral rectus, Ventral oblique Abducens (Vl) - Lateral rectus, Retractor bulbi Trochlear (lV) - Dorsal oblique
419
What soft tissues are considered the intraconal space in orbit and what are considered the extraconal?
Intraconal - 4 rectus muscles enveloped in a periorbital fascial sheath (also content nerves vessels, smooth muscle, fat and the orbital lacrimal gland) Extraconal - any remaining soft tissue structures
420
How is the eye supplied with arterial blood?
The eye has high metabolic activity so has a rich blood supply from branches of the ophthalmic artery which in most mammals comes form the internal carotid artery. They supply the highly vascular uveal tract.
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How does venous drainage in the eye work?
Most is through the vortex veins and orbital venous plexus Small alternative route in the ophthalmic vein All eventually drain to the external jugular vein
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What are some clinical issues that come with high ocular blood supplies and venous drainage?
BS - ocular damage common with systematic hypertension (high bp) - systematic disease causing uveitis (inflammation of uveal tract) VD - orbital venous plexus well formed in rabbits so must be cautious when enucleating (removing entire globe) - excess restraint around neck affecting intraocular pressure measurements
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The following other structures if diseased can then lead to orbital disease as they are adjacent to each other, what are these structures?
Nasal cavity + Paranasal sinuses Caudal roots of 4th premolar + 1st/2nd molar teeth Brain Temporal + Massester muscles Zygomatic salivary glands
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What is… Anisocoria Miosis Mydriasis Strabismus Nystagus
anisocoria - when one pupil is larger than the other miosis - excessive constriction/ shrinking of the pupil Mydriasis - unusual dilation of the pupil strabismus - eyes do not align. One is turned I another direction to the other Nystagmus - rapid, involuntary eye movement
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How can the ramus mandible cause issues?
When open it moves towards the globe, the there is orbital disease this can cause the dog pain when trying to open its jaw
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What does palpebral mean and what is the palpebral fissure?
Eyelids Opening between the eyelids
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How many layers is the eyelid composed of and what are they?
3 layers 1. haired eyelid, skin on outer surface (outside) 2. muscle extending to a fibrous tarsal plate containing meibomian glands (middle) 3. palpebral conjunctiva on inner surface (inside)
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What muscle controls the closing of the eyelids and what nerve is it innovated by?
The orbicular oculi - facial nerve (Vll)
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What muscle controls the opening of the eyelids and what nerves are they innovated by?
Levatator palpebral superiors - oculomotor nerve (lll) Muller muscle (smooth muscle) - sympathetic innervation Several others with innervation from facial nerve (Vll)
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What points of the spine are afferent? What points of the spine are efferent?
Afferent = T1 - L3 Efferent = C8 and T1 (lateral thoracic nerve)
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Where in the spine is there an issue if an animal has urinary incontinence? Where in the spine is there an issue if an animal has a lack of anal tone and penile prolapse (paraphimosis)?
S1 - S2 S3 - Cd5
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Are the following proprioceptive and sensory deficits ascending or descending pathways? Crossing Foot dragging Knuckling Circumduction (circling body part away from axial centre) Stumbling Abduction
Ascending= Crossing - Abduction - Circumduction - Knuckling Descending = Foot dragging - Stumbling
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What is the difference between ataxia and lameness?
Ataxia = abnormal patterns in different limbs Lameness = regular irregular movement in the same limb
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What is assessed when tail pulling is done whilst the horse is standing versus whilst the horse is walking?
Standing = lower motoneurons (extensor reflex L3 - 5 in young horses) Walking = Upper motoneurons and the descending tracts
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What are the 3 muscle types?
smooth striated cardiac
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Describe the structure of skeletal muscle:
Striated Syncytium (multiple nuclei) Peripheral nuclei Arranged into bundles known as fascicles Very large and long
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What are the 3 layers of connective tissue found in muscle?
Epimysium - surrounds entire muscle Perimysium - surrounds bundles of muscle fibres Endomysium - surrounds individual muscle fibres
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Why is connective tissue important?
Has a functional role, transferring information from the muscle to the tendons and a protective function as slightly stronger than muscle so can protect it from damage and tearing
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What is a microfibril?
individual muscle fibre
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What allows muscle to contract?
Actin and myosin
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What are the 4 bands of sarcomere?
I band - actin filaments alone A band - zones containing myosin Z line - defines boundary between sarcomeres M-line - transverse line in the middle of the sarcomere that binds the myosin filaments
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What is the sliding filament theory?
Muscle shortening occurs due to movement of the actin filament over the myosin filament. This forms cross-bridges between the actin and myosin. It also reduces the distance between the Z-lines of the sarcomere.
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What is tropomyosin?
Located along the 2 chains of actin filaments and has interactions with calcium that allow or prevent cross-bridge formation.
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What is troponin?
Complex attached to each tropomyosin
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q Organise the layers of the muscle micro skeleton from lagers to smallest: Myofilaments Sacrolemma Microfibrils
Sacrolemma - muscle cell membrane Myofibrils - tube structures that pack the fibres Myofilaments - actin and myosin
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As actin slides over myosin what is constantly happening?
Cross-bridges forming, releasing and reforming between the actin and myosin
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What is the relationship between Ca2+ and Troponin?
Troponin captures Ca2+ and undergoes a conformational change that lifts tropomyosin away from the actin filament revealing the binding site for myosin driving cross-bridge formation.
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What happens if calcium in low in supply
When calcium is low it blocks the binding of myosin to the actin fibre at rest
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Does all muscle eventually fatigue?
No Cardiac muscle doesn’t fatigue Skeletal muscle can be fatigue resistant or will fatigue very quickly
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What are the two types of individual muscle fibres?
type 1 fibres (slow-twitch) type 2 fibres (fast-twitch)
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How is fibre type composition analysed?
muscle biopsy - different staining techniques help differentiate type 1 and 2 fibres based on enzyme activity and colour immunohistochemistry - Uses antibodies that bind specifically to different myosin heavy chain (MHC) isoforms found in Type I and II fibres. gel electrolysis - separates muscle proteins based on size
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histochemical staining of muscle fibres image using ATPase staining
1- type 1 fibres (light brown/ tan in the stain) 2- type 2a fibres - medium brown 3- type 2b or 2x - dark brown/black
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Can the muscle types found in different species be animal specific?
Yes, muscle fibre types can vary significantly between animal species, both in their distribution and functional characteristics. While the basic classification of muscle fibres (Type I, Type IIa, IIx/b) is broadly conserved, several species-specific differences exist:
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What is muscle fatigue? What causes muscle fatigue?
Muscle fatigue is the decline in the muscle’s ability to generate force or power over time during sustained activity. Muscle fatigue is multifactorial, meaning several physiological processes contribute depending on intensity, duration, and muscle fibre type. Causes can be grouped as follows: central (neural) fatigue, peripheral (muscular) fatigue, fibre type resistance
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Can fibre-type composition be altered?
Yes, fiber-type composition in muscles can be altered, though it is a slow and somewhat limited process.
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What region is considered distal limb?
Distal to carpus/tarsus joint all the way to the end of the distal phalanges
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How is the distal limb different in animals adapted for speed?
a Limb elongation and reduced mass
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distal limb match up
look at answer
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identify the joints of distal limb
answered version
462
What are the 3 synovial structures used ft intra-articular injection?
MCP joint PIP joint DIP joint
463
Where are the extensor tendons of the forelimb located? What does damage to them result in? Which is the main extensor?
Dorso-lateral aspect Dropping of elbow and knuckling Common digital extensor
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Where are the extensor tendons of the hindlimb located? Which is the main extensor?
Dorso-lateral aspect Long digital extensor
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How is weight distributed in the legs?
Muscles at top as the are heaviest and then tendons running down for support of the lower limb
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How many and which nerves innovate the forelimb extensors and flexors?
Extensors = 1, radial Flexors = 2, median and ulnar
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How many and which nerves innovate the hindlimb extensors and flexors?
Extensors of hock, flexors of digits = 1, fibula Flexors of hock, extensors of digits = 1, tubular
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Where are the flexor tendons located? What are the two main for both fore and hind?
Palmer/plantar aspect of both fore and hind Superficial digital flexor tendon Deep digital flexor tendon
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SDFT Where is it located? How does it travel down the leg? What is the name of the sleeve it form around the DDFT? What is it’s function?
Subcutaneous and palpable Distal end of P1 splits and insets on P2 Manica flexoria Flexes whole digit and stabilises fetlock
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DDFT Where is it located? How does it travel down the leg?
Deep to SDFT Passes through the maniac flexor and inset onto the flexor tuberosity of each functional distal phalanx
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What are the main distal limb support structures? What is different about them in horses?
Third/middle interosseous muscle/Suspensory ligament - sesamoid ligament AND Accessory check ligament (TIOM) Completely tendinous
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What part of the distal limb is part of the suspensory apparatus?
third interosseous muscle/suspensory ligament, prevents excessive extension of the fetlock
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What path does the third interosseous muscle/suspensory ligament follow down the distal limb? Where is it located?
The third interosseous muscle originates on the distal aspect of the metacarpal/metatarsal bone, running down the limb toward the sesamoid bones. From the origin, it travels downward, passing distally around the cannon bone and attaching to the proximal sesamoid bones at the back of the limb. In its course, the third interosseous muscle serves as a suspensory ligament in horses, playing a role in supporting the digital flexor tendons and preventing excessive extension of the fetlock joint during movement. The third interosseous muscle originates on the distal aspect of the metacarpal/metatarsal bone, running down the limb toward the sesamoid bones. From the origin, it travels downward, passing distally around the cannon bone and attaching to the proximal sesamoid bones at the back of the limb. In its course, the third interosseous muscle serves as a suspensory ligament in horses, playing a role in supporting the digital flexor tendons and preventing excessive extension of the fetlock joint during movement.
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What is the other name for the accessory ligaments? Where are they located? What are their functions? What is the difference between them in the fore and hind limb?
check ligaments, stabilize and support certain tendons, primarily in the forelimb and hindlimb.