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CARDIAC Flashcards

1
Q

What are the types of diuretics?

A
  • Thiazide/like
  • Loop Diuretics
  • Osmotic Diuretics
  • Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors
  • Potassium-Sparing Diuretics
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2
Q

What is the prototype drug for thiazide diuretics?

A

Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)

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3
Q

What is a common use for furosemide?

A
  • Edema related to heart failure
  • Hypertension
  • Edema related to renal disease
  • Acute pulmonary and peripheral edema
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4
Q

What are common side effects of thiazide diuretics?

A
  • Dizziness
  • Headache
  • Weakness
  • Hypotension
  • GI distress
  • Hyperglycemia
  • Electrolyte imbalances
  • Hyperuricemia
  • Renal failure
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5
Q

What contraindication is associated with hydrochlorothiazide?

A

Renal failure

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6
Q

What nursing intervention is important for monitoring potassium levels in patients taking loop diuretics?

A

Monitor serum electrolytes for hypokalemia

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7
Q

Fill in the blank: Thiazide diuretics promote sodium, chloride, potassium, magnesium, and water excretion but promote ______ reabsorption.

A

calcium

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8
Q

What is the mechanism of action for potassium-sparing diuretics like spironolactone?

A

Block action of aldosterone, promoting sodium/water excretion and potassium retention

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9
Q

What should be monitored in patients taking mannitol?

A

Fluid and electrolyte balance

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10
Q

True or False: Thiazide diuretics are contraindicated in patients with sulfa allergies.

A

True

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11
Q

What are the signs and symptoms that may warrant the use of a diuretic?

A
  • Orthopnea
  • Cough
  • Crackles
  • Pulmonary edema
  • Peripheral edema
  • Tachypnea
  • Dyspnea
  • Decreased O2
  • Bounding pulse
  • Weight gain
  • Decreased osmolality
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12
Q

What is a common side effect of spironolactone?

A
  • Hyperkalemia
  • Dizziness
  • GI distress
  • Gynecomastia
  • Muscle cramps
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13
Q

What is the typical onset time for hydrochlorothiazide?

A

Approximately 2 hours

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14
Q

What is the duration of action for furosemide?

A

6-24 hours

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15
Q

What is the primary use of osmotic diuretics?

A

To prevent kidney failure related to surgery or trauma

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16
Q

Fill in the blank: The action of mannitol includes increasing sodium reabsorption in the proximal tubule and loop of Henle, leading to the excretion of sodium, chloride, potassium, and ______.

A

water

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17
Q

What should be avoided when taking potassium-sparing diuretics?

A

Salt substitutes

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18
Q

What is the assessment priority for patients on loop diuretics?

A

Obtain a drug history and check for allergies

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19
Q

What is a key nursing intervention for patients taking diuretics?

A

Monitor daily weight

20
Q

What should patients be instructed regarding position changes when taking diuretics?

A

Change positions slowly from lying to standing to prevent dizziness

21
Q

True or False: Loop diuretics can cause hearing loss if administered rapidly or in high doses.

22
Q

What electrolyte imbalances should be monitored in patients receiving furosemide?

A
  • Low potassium
  • Low sodium
  • Elevated calcium
23
Q

What is an important patient teaching point regarding the timing of diuretic administration?

A

Take the medication early in the morning to avoid nocturia

24
Q

What side effect may occur with high doses of mannitol?

A

Pulmonary edema

25
What is the typical dose range for spironolactone?
25 to 100 mg
26
What are Beta-Adrenergic Blockers commonly referred to as?
Beta Blockers
27
Name two types of Alpha-adrenergic blockers.
Selective and Nonselective Alpha-adrenergic blockers
28
List three types of Direct-acting vasodilators.
* Hydralazine * Minoxidil * Nitroprusside
29
What is the action of Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme (ACE) Inhibitors?
Inhibits formation of angiotensin II and blocks release of aldosterone
30
Name two common Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers (ARBs).
* Losartan * Valsartan
31
What is the primary action of Calcium Channel Blockers?
Block calcium channels in vascular smooth muscle cells promoting vasodilation
32
Which antihypertensive medication is a centrally acting alpha2 agonist?
Clonidine
33
Fill in the blank: The prototype drug for the class of ACE inhibitors is _______.
Captopril
34
True or False: Patients with impaired liver function should avoid centrally acting alpha2 agonists.
True
35
What are the side effects of Methyldopa?
* Dizziness * Drowsiness * Dry mouth * Headache * Peripheral edema * Bradycardia
36
What should a nurse instruct a patient regarding the abrupt cessation of antihypertensives?
Avoid abruptly stopping the drug to prevent rebound hypertension
37
What is the action of Alpha-adrenergic blockers like Doxazosin?
Block the alpha-adrenergic receptors, resulting in vasodilation and decreased blood pressure
38
List two side effects of Adrenergic neuron blockers.
* Orthostatic hypotension * Depression
39
What is the action of Direct-Acting Arteriolar Vasodilators?
Relax smooth muscles of blood vessels, especially arteries causing arterial vasodilation
40
Name a common benign side effect of ACE inhibitors.
Dry cough
41
What contraindication is associated with ACE inhibitors?
Pregnancy
42
What is the action of Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers (ARBs)?
Prevent release of aldosterone and block angiotensin II from angiotensin I receptors
43
Fill in the blank: A common side effect of Calcium Channel Blockers is _______.
Peripheral edema
44
Which medication is a Calcium Channel Blocker?
Amlodipine
45
What should be monitored in a patient receiving an Angiotensin II receptor blocker?
Dizziness
46
True or False: African-American adults and older adults respond well to ACE inhibitor monotherapy.
False
47
List two lifestyle changes recommended for non-pharmacological control of hypertension.
* Reduce salt intake * Stop smoking

Pharmacology (6 decks)

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