Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Year 1 MBChB > Cardio > Flashcards

Cardio Flashcards

(93 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What are the features of prosthetic valve endocarditis?

A

SOB Fatigue Fever Weight loss Heart murmur Sepsis Clubbing Splinter haemorrhage Janeway lesions Osler nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the features of aortic regurg?

A

SOB Chest pain Dizziness Displaced apex Collapsing pulse Corrigan’s sign Early diastolic murmur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the management of hypertension in someone over 55 or black (second step)?

A

ACEI + Calcium channel blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is used if PCI is unavailable?

A

Thrombolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What investigations are done in hypertension?

A

ABPM, ECG, Fasting lipids + glucose, urinalysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which artery is affected in an inferior MI?

A

RCA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does this ECG show?

A

LBBB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does this ECG show?

A

AF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does this ECG show?

A

Inferior MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How should resistant hypertension be managed if the potassium is > 4.5?

A

Higher dose thiazide diuretic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the features of acute pericarditis?

A

chest pain: may be pleuritic. Is often relieved by sitting forwards,

other symptoms include non-productive cough, dyspnoea and flu-like symptoms,

pericardial rub,

tachypnoea,

tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What should be offered in the management of an NSTEMI?

A

Fondaparinux

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which antihypertensive should be prescribed to all diabetics?

A

ACEIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the management of fluid overload in HF?

A

Diuretics (frusemide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are endocrine causes of secondary hypertension?

A

Cushing’s, Conn’s, Phaeochromocytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the aetiology of infective endocarditis?

A

Bactaraemia (poor dental hygiene, IVDU) Rheumatic disease Congenital Valve disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is malignant hypertension?

A

Diastolic > 130

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What area of the heart is affected if there is ST elevation in II, III & aVF?

A

Inferior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the management of native valve endocarditis?

A

Amox + gent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are features of stable angina?

A

Symptoms not new, Pain relieved by rest/GTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the criteria for a STEMI?

A

> 1mm ST elevation in 2 adjacent limb leads, >2mm ST elevation in at least 2 contiguous precordial leads, New onset left bundle branch block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the most common cause of death post MI?

A

VFib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the two types of angina?

A

Stable and unstable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the management of narrow QRS tachycardia with a regular rhythm?

A

Vagal manœuvres Adenosine 6mg IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is the management of hypertension in someone over 55 or black (third step)?
ACEI + Calcium channel blocker + diuretic (indapamide)
26
What are the features of unstable angina?
GTN becomes less effective
27
Which artery is affected in an anterolateral MI?
Circumflex
28
What is BNP used for?
Heart failure - indicates stretching of heart muscle
29
What does this ECG show?
Anterior MI
30
What is the management of bradycardia with adverse features/risk of asystole?
Atropine 500mcg IV up to 3mg
31
What is the management of VT in haemodynamically stable patients?
Amiodarone 300mg over 20-60 minutes
32
What are some complications of hypertension?
Cerebrovascular + CA disease, Retinopathy, Kidney disease
33
What is the management of hypertension in someone under 55 (first step)?
ACE inhibitor
34
What does this ECG show?
Atrial flutter
35
What is the organism in prosthetic valve endocarditis?
Staph epidermis
36
How is angina managed?
Manage underlying causes, GTN + 2ndary prevention (aspirin + statin), Atenolol or verapamil, Consider revascularisation
37
What does this ECG show?
Posterior MI
38
What is the management of prosthetic valve endocarditis?
Vancomycin + gent
39
Which artery is affected in a posterior MI?
RCA
40
What is stage 3 hypertension?
Anything over 180/110
41
What is the first line management of HF?
ACEI + beta blocker (bisoprolol)
42
What are the signs and symptoms of hypertension?
Asymptomatic, Sweating, Headaches, SOB, Palpitations
43
What is stage 2 hypertension?
160/100 - 180/110
44
What is Dressler's syndrome?
Pericarditis following an MI
45
What does this ECG show?
2:1 AV block
46
What area of the heart is affected if there is ST elevation in I, aVL, V1 - V6?
Anterolateral
47
What are the features of CHADVASC?
Congestive HF Hypertension Age \> 75 = 2 Age 65-74 Diabetes Stroke/TIA/thrombo-embolism = 2 Vascular disease Female
48
What are the signs and symptoms of angina?
Heavy/tight/gripping chest pain typically on exertion
49
What is the aetiology of mitral regurg?
Rheumatic disease IHF Chordae rupture Endocarditis Myxomatous disease
50
What are the ECG changes in pericarditis?
widespread 'saddle-shaped' ST elevation, PR depression: most specific ECG marker for pericarditis
51
How is heart failure investigated?
CXR, ECG, Echo
52
What are renal causes of secondary hypertension?
Diabetic nephropathy, Glomerulonephritis
53
What is the management of hypertension in someone under 55 (second step)?
ACEI + Calcium channel blocker
54
What are the features of aortic stenosis?
SOB Dizziness Chest pain Slow-rising pulse Heaving apex Ejection systolic murmur that radiates to carotids
55
When can PCI be done?
Within 90 minutes
56
What is the buzzword for malignant hypertension?
Fibrinoid necrosis
57
What are the clinical features of malignant hypertension?
Headaches, N&V, visual disturbance Papilloedema, encephalopathy
58
59
How should resistant hypertension be managed if the potassium is \< 4.5?
Spironolactone
60
What are the signs and symptoms of heart failure?
SOBOE, orthopnoea, pink frothy sputum, raised JVP, cardiomegaly, S3 S4, V hypertrophy
61
What is the second line management of HF?
spironolactone, ARB, or hydrasalazine + nitrate
62
What does this ECG show?
Complete heart block
63
What area of the heart is affected if there is ST elevation in V1 - V4?
Anterior
64
What ABPI indicates intermittent claudication?
0.4-0.85
65
What does this ECG show?
VT
66
What is the treatment for stage 1 hypertension?
Mainly lifestyle factors
67
What area of the heart is affected if there is ST elevation in V1 - V4?
Anteroseptal
68
How is acute left ventricular failure managed?
LMNOP Loop diuretic Morphine Nitrates Oxygen Postural - sit up
69
What is the management of narrow QRS tachycardia with an irregular rhythm?
bisoprolol or diltiazem
70
What does this ECG show?
Torsade de pointes
71
What does this ECG show?
V Fibb
72
What is the aetiology of aortic stenosis?
Congenital bicuspid valves Degeneration with age Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy Rheumatic disease
73
What is the management of hypertension in someone over 55 or black (first step)?
Calcium channel blocker
74
Which artery is affected in an anteroseptal MI?
LAD
75
What is stage 1 hypertension?
140/90 - 160/100
76
What area of the heart is affected if there is ST elevation in I, aVL, V5 - V6?
Lateral
77
What are the features of mitral regurg?
SOB Fatigue Ankle oedema Displaced apex Pansystolic murmur that radiates to axilla
78
How is angina investigated?
ECG: exclude ACS, may show LVH/BBB, Catheter/CT angiography
79
How is endocarditis investigated?
3 x blood culture Serology CRP, FBC Echo
80
Which murmurs are systolic?
Mitral regurg Aortic stenosis
81
What is the management of hypertension in someone under 55 (third step)?
ACEI + Calcium channel blocker + diuretic (indapamide)
82
What ABPI indicates intermittent claudication?
0.4 - 0.85
83
How is intermittent claudication investigated?
ABPI, duplex USS, MR/CT/catheter angiography
84
How is intermittent claudication managed?
Lifestyle advice, antiplatelets, surgery in severe cases
85
What are the syptoms of acute limb ischaemia?
Pain, pallor, paraesthesis, paralysis, perishingly cold
86
What is the management of acute limb ischaemia?
Warfarin (severe), heparin, surgery (angioplasty, bypass grafts)
87
What is the investigation of choice in AAA?
CT
88
What drug is given in SVTs?
Adenosine
89
What drug is given in ventricular tachyarrhythmias (or both SV and V)?
Amiodarone
90
What drug is given in bradycardia?
Atropine
91
What is the management of a AAA less than 5.5cm and asymptomatic?
USS monitoring + optimise CV RFs
92
What is the management of a AAA \> 5.5cm or symptomatic?
EVAR
93

Year 1 MBChB (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions