Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Year 1 MBChB > GI > Flashcards

GI Flashcards

(103 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What are the symptoms of Crohn’s?

A

Diarrhoea, abdominal pain, weight-loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What GI region is affected by Crohn’s?

A

Entire GI tract (mouth to anus), particularly terminal ileum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the endoscopy findings in Crohn’s?

A

Inflamed, thickened mucosa, skip lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the histology findings in Crohn’s?

A

Inflammation extends beyond the submucosa and there ar granulomas seen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What investigations are done for IBD?

A

Inflamm markers, other bloods, stool cultures, AXR, sigmoidoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the investigation of choice for a fistula in IBD?

A

CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the management of Crohn’s?

A

steroids, immunosuppressants Biologics, Surgery limited and not curative – for obstruction abscess and fistulae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is given for fistulation in Crohn’s?

A

Metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Is it oral or IV steroids if less than 6 stools per day?

A

Oral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the symptoms of UC?

A

Diarrhoea often bloody and mucousy, frequency linked to severity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which GI region is affected in UC?

A

Colon only (Never beyond IC valve)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the endoscopy findings in UC?

A

Inflamed Mucosa, continuous lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the histology findings in UC?

A

Inflammation extends to the submucosa, crypt abscesses and reduced goblet cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How is UC managed?

A

Mesalazine to induce remission (if not enough then add oral steroids - IV if greater than 6 stools)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What surgery is used in UC?

A

Curative with proctocolectomy and ileostomy or colectomy and J pouch (IA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How is upper GI bleeding investigated?

A

Bloods, X match 4 units, endoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the general management of upper GI bleeding?

A

ABCDE, NBM, consider activating major haemorrhage protocol, PPI cover

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What scoring system is used in upper Gi bleeding?

A

Blatchford score

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the mechanism of action of terlipressin?

A

Analogue of vasopressin - causes vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How is oesophageal varies managed?

A

Terlipressin, OGD banding or sclerotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How are recurrences of oesophageal varies managed?

A

Beta blocker + banding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the causes of pancreatitis?

A

GET SMASHED (gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps/malignancy, autoimmune, scorpion sting, hypercalcaemia/hyperlipidaemia, ERCP, drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the features of pancreatitis?

A

Epigastric pain radiating to back - improved by sitting forward, vomiting, pyrexia, Grey Turner’s and Cullens sign.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How is acute pancreatitis investigated?

A

Bloods, amylase, glucose, USS (gallstones), CT abode if in doubt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
How is acute pancreatitis managed?
IV fluids, NBM, analgesia, potential ERCP
26
What are complications of acute pancreatitis?
DIC, AKI, abscess, pseudocyst, chronic pancreatitis
27
What is the modified Glasgow criteria for severe pancreatitis?
PaO2 < 8, Age > 55, Neutrophilia > 15, calcium < 2 , Renal function (urea > 16, enzymes (AST > 200), albumin < 32, sugar > 10
28
What organisms should you think of if the onset of gastroenteritis is less than 6 hours?
TOXINS - staph aureus, bacillus cereus, clostridium perfringens
29
What are the features of S. aureus gastroenteritis?
Hands to dairy or meats, N&V with a leucocytosis
30
What are the features of bacillus cereus gastroenteritis?
Rice or sauces, rapid onset vomiting
31
What are the features of clostridium perfringens gastroenteritis?
Mainly contaminated meats - diarrhoea and cramps
32
What is the most common cause of gastroenteritis?
Campylobacter
33
What are the features of campylobacter gastroenteritis?
Meats and dairy, colicky pain, vomiting and bloody stools due to colonic ulceration (Rarely G.barre)
34
What are the features of salmonella gastroenteritis?
Often the elderly and children. Faecal-oral on meat and dairy may need antibiotics if severe (Rarely a reactive arthritis)
35
What are the features of cholera gastroenteritis?
Classically rice water stools – infected faecal material in water
36
What are the features of E-coli gastroenteritis?
ETEC – Traveller’s diarrhoea, EIEC – like shigella as invades enterocytes can produce bloody stools, EPEC – Paediatrics, EHEC – HUS.
37
What are the features of Shigella gastroenteritis?
Invades enterocytes and produces bloody stools
38
What is travellers diarrhoea due to?
Change in bowel flora due to imbalance
39
How is persistent diarrhoea and vomiting managed?
Oral rehydration, anti-emetics
40
How is acid released from the stomach in response to food (physiology)?
Lower half of stomach becomes distended so chief cells release gastrin, gastrin goes to parietal cells and stimulates proton pumps in upper two thirds of stomach to release acid
41
What receptors do parietal cells have?
Gastrin, Ash, histamine
42
What receptors do PPIs work on?
All three of parietal cells; gastrin, ACh
43
How does eating affect ulcers?
Helps gastric ulcers, worsens duodenal
44
What is the best investigation for ulcers?
H pylori eradication then endoscopy if it doesn't go away
45
How should ulcers be investigated if over 55?
Endoscopy right away
46
What is absorbed in the stomach?
Drugs and alcohol
47
What is absorbed in the jejunum and ileum?
Foods
48
What is absorbed in the ileum?
Specialist reabsorption (eg. B12)
49
What does the pancreas secrete?
Lipase and amylase
50
What is the mode of action of NSAIDs?
Reduce prostaglandin formation
51
How do NSAIDs affect the stomach?
Prostaglandins reduce acid secretion and increase mucus and bicarbonate secretion and blood flow to mucosa - -> inhibition of this leads to ulceration and bleeding
52
What are the side effects of azathioprine?
Pancreatitis, leukopenia, hepatitis, lymphoma
53
Which antiemetic is used in radiation-induced emesis?
Ondansetron
54
Which antiemetic is used in motion-sickness?
Hyoscine, cyclizine
55
What is cyclizine used for?
Motion sickness, labrynthitis and stomach irritation
56
Which antiemetic is used in drug-induced vomiting and GI disorders?
Metoclopramide or prochlorperazine
57
What are anti-motility drugs?
Loperemide
58
What are the side effects of mesalazine?
Diarrhoea, idiosyncratic nephritis
59
What drugs are used in H pylori eradication?
PPI + amox 1g BD + clarithro 250mg BD
60
What is the investigation of choice in upper GI disorders?
endoscopy
61
When should a barium swallow be used?
Second line after endoscopy in motility disorders
62
How is achalasia managed?
Tear open LOS and inflate balloon at the junction or laparoscopic myotomy
63
What is achalasia?
LOS constriction
64
What is nut cracker oesophagus?
Oesophagus locks shut and opens rather than peristalsis
65
How far can an upper GI scope reach?
Third part of duodenum
66
What is the first line investigation for the small bowel?
Barium follow through/enema
67
What is a small bowel MRI useful for?
Crohn's - shows bowel thickening
68
What is flexible sigmoidoscopy indicated for?
Just bright red bleeding
69
What is used if colonoscopy is not available?
Barium enema
70
What is a CT colonography used for?
Frail patients who can't tolerate colonoscopy
71
What is the first line investigation in acute ascending cholangitis?
USS
72
When would a liver biopsy be used?
AI hepatitis, or when the liver is just failing nd u don't know why
73
When is ERCP used?
After USS when certain it's a bile duct issue
74
What is the gold standard for diagnosis of coeliac?
biopsy
75
How is colonic angiodysplasia diagnosed?
Angiography
76
How is a sigmoid volvulus diagnosed?
Plain film
77
Which LFT will be high if hepatocytes are damaged?
ALT
78
Which LFT will be high if the bile duct is damaged?
Alk phos
79
What will raise both ALTs and Alk phos?
Destructive process in liver
80
When is GGT raised?
Biliary disease, alcohol + drugs, NAFLD
81
What does prothrombin time measure?
Shows synthetic ability of liver; PR measures coagulation, warfarin dosage, liver damage and vitamin K
82
When is albumin decreased?
Chronic liver disease, nephrotic syndrome
83
What does a decreased albumin cause?
Oedema
84
What causes increased AST & ALT (AST > ALT)?
Alcohol, cirrhosis or muscle damage
85
What causes increased AST & ALT (AST < ALT)?
liver failure, shock, hepatitis, cancer, Wilson's, AI hepatitis
86
What does a high unconjugated bilirubin indicate?
hydrophobic drugs, free fatty acids
87
What does a high conjugated bilirubin indicate?
Bile duct obstruction, gallstones, hepatitis, cirrhosis, cancer
88
What is giardia lamblia?
Flagellated protozoa
89
What are the features of giardiasis?
Cramps, nausea and malodorous diarrhoea 1-2 weeks later
90
What is the management of giardiasis?
Metronidazole
91
What is the management of large bowel obstruction?
Drip and suck, surgery if caecum > 10cm
92
How is sigmoid volvulus managed?
Flatus tube
93
What can be given for pruritus?
Colestyramine
94
How is hepatitis A spread?
Faeco-oral
95
How is Hep B spread?
Bodily fluids
96
How is Hep C spread?
Bodily fluids
97
How is Hep D spread?
Bodily fluids - REQUIRES HEP B INFECTION
98
How is Hep E spread?
Faeco-oral
99
How is H pylori tested for?
Urease breath test, stool antigens - TOC 2 weeks after eradication therapy
100
What are complications in Crohn's?
Stricturing, obstruction
101
What antibody is positive in Crohn's?
ASCA
102
What are the complications of UC?
Toxic megacolon, haemorrhage
103
What antibody is positive in UC?
p-ANCA

Year 1 MBChB (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions