Cardio Flashcards

(224 cards)

1
Q

What is unstable angina?

A

Cardiac chest pain, with or without ECG changes in the absence of biochemical markers of cardiac damage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How is ACS diagnosed

A

Dependant on cardiac symptoms of chest pain with ECG changed and serial rises in troponin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Definition of STEMI?

A

persistent ST-segment elevation in 2 or more anatomically contiguous ECG leads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When to offer fibrinolysis?

A

Offer fibrinolysis to people with acute STEMI presenting within 12 hours of onset of symptoms if primary PCI cannot be delivered within 120 minutes of the time when fibrinolysis could have been given.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When to give PCI?

A

presentation is within 12 hours of onset of symptoms and primary PCI can be delivered within 120 minutes of the time when fibrinolysis could have been given.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Size of ST elevation?

A

≥1 mm (limb leads) ≥ 2mm (chest leads)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

ECG changes in leads V1-V4? Where and which artery?

A

Anteroseptal- LAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

ECG changes in leads II, III,aVF? Where and which artery?

A

Inferior- Right coronary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

ECG changes in leads V4-6 I and aVL? Where and which artery?

A

Anterolateral LAD or Left circumflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

ECG changes in leads I, aVL +/- V5-6? Where and which artery?

A

Lateral, Left circumflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Tall R waves in V1 and V2 may point to an MI where? Which artery?

A

Posterior, usually left circumflex but may be right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Saddle shaped St elevation often seen in which condition?

A

Pericarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Posterior Mi causes what with St segments?

A

Depression not elevation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

For a person < 80, with stage 1 hypertension, only treat medically if?

A

diabetic, renal disease, QRISK2 >20%, established coronary vascular disease, or end organ damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A third heart sound is one of the possible features of ?

A

LVHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Aortic stenosis - most common cause: Young and old?

A

younger patients < 65 years: bicuspid aortic valve older patients > 65 years: calcification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How might ACS present in females and or diabetics?

A

Atypical, often vague, silent or abdo pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is kussumauls sign?

A

In constrictive pericarditis, the JVP will rise on inspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

If patient is intolerant of ACEi give what?

A

ARB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In diagnosis of hypertension NICE now recommends?

A

24 hr BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Breathing problems with clear chest?

A

Think PE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

To cardiovert AF patients must be what?

A

Anticoagulated or symptoms <48hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which cardiac drug can reduce awareness of hypoglycaemia?

A

B-Blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Acute mitral regurgitation may be caused by?

A

Rupture of papillary muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
ACS: Nitrates are contraindicated in patients with ?
Hypotension \<90mmHg
26
Cardiac asthma refers to?
Wheeze in heart failure
27
Drug that may cause gout also sues for HF?
Thiazides
28
Suspected PE with a Wells PE score ≤4 next investigation?
D-dimer
29
When is digoxin a preferred treatment for AF rate control?
Co-existent HF
30
What is the evidence for diuretics in HF? (furosemide/indapamide)
Only improve symptoms not mortality
31
Drugs shown to improve mortality in HF?
ACE inhibitors spironolactone beta-blockers hydralazine with nitrates
32
Third heart sound in \<30?
Normal
33
10 year CV risk \>10% offer?
Atorvastatin 20mg od
34
Known ischaemic heart disease or cerebrovascular disease PVD offer what statin dose?
Atorvastatin 80mg od
35
Type 1 diabetics over 40 nephropathy or diagnosed greater than 10 years should be given ... type 2 assessed by Qrisk
Atorvastatin 20mg od
36
Thiazide diuretics can cause which calcium problems?
hypercalcaemia and hypocalciuria
37
U waves on ECG?
↓K+
38
Prolonged QT abx?
Erythromycin
39
Provoked vs unprovoked treatment times for PE?
NICE advise extending warfarin beyond 3 months for patients with unprovoked PE. This essentially means that if there was no obvious cause or provoking factor (surgery, trauma, significant immobility)
40
Complete heart block following a MI?
Right coronary artery lesion
41
Ototoxicity with which diuretics?
Loop
42
Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) which is medically managed, which antiplatelet?
aspirin 75 mg daily plus ticagrelor 90 mg twice a day for 12 months
43
For people with ACS who are undergoing PCI
aspirin (75–100 mg) in combination with Prasugrel 10 mg daily (or 5 mg daily if the person weighs less than 60 kg, or if the person is 75 years of age or older). Ticagrelor 90 mg twice a day. Clopidogrel 75 mg daily (if prasugrel or ticagrelor are not suitable). This treatment is usually continued for up to 12 months after the procedure, then aspirin is continued alone.
44
Mitral valve prolapse associated with which genetic condition?
Polycystic kidneys
45
First line treatments in pericarditis?
Naproxen
46
Which aortic dissection managed medically?
Type B descending
47
Infective endocarditis in intravenous drug users most commonly affects
Tricuspid
48
Blood pressure target (\> 80 years, clinic reading)
150/90 mmHg
49
Acute pulmonary oedema is a complication of which acute presentation?
MI
50
An atrial septal defect allows ?
Stroke
51
Tosades de pointes often seen in which H of the resuscitation H's?
Hypothermia
52
Signs of right-sided heart failure?
raised JVP, ankle oedema and hepatomegaly
53
Sotalol is known to cause ?
long QT
54
Young male smoker with symptoms similar to limb ischaemia?
buergers
55
Alcoholics are at risk of which heart problem?
Dilated cardiomyopathy
56
Grey skin appearance?
Amiodarone
57
Post Mi driving?
4 weeks if had heart attack and no angioplasty or angioplaty unsuccesful If had successful PCI can drive after 1 week if well
58
Murmur of Mitral stenosis? Eccentuated how?
Mid diastolic rumbling pateint in left lateral decubitas expiration
59
Murmur of mitral regurg?
Pansystolic radiates to axilla, best in left lateral position during expiration
60
Aortic stenosis murmur? Signs?
Ejection systolic radiates carotids sitting forward in expiration Non-displaced, heaving apex beat Slow rising pulse with narrow pulse pressure
61
Aortic regurg murmur? and associated findings?
Early diastolic murmur sit forward expire characteristic collapsing pulse Corrigan’s sign – visible distention and collapse of carotid arteries in the neck De Musset’s sign – head bobbing with each heartbeat
62
Management of NSTEMI?
Morphine, o2 if needed nitrates, either buccal or spray. Aspirin 300mg and ticagrelor 180mg consider lmwh if cardio involved.
63
Management of STEMI?
Morphine, o2 if needed nitrates, either buccal or spray. Aspirin 300mg and ticagrelor 180mg (discuss cardio) LMWH Primary PCi if ongoing ischaemia within 12 hrs.
64
For all patients- STEMI and NSTEMI which drugs should be used?
ACEi indefinitely, BB for 12 months and consider CB if not. Aspirin plus ?ticagrelor for 12 months but aspirin continued.
65
Atypical MI symptoms? Who?
Dyspnoea, epigastric pain, syncope, confusion. Female, elderly diabetic
66
When to offer fibrinolysis?
Presents within 12hrs and PCi can not be undertaken in 2hrs. If ecg still bad after 60 mins consider PCi anyway.
67
\>12hrs after MI but still ischaemia?
Consider PCI
68
T wave inversion normal where?
aVR and V1
69
New LBBB should be treated as?
STEMI
70
How long for stable angina pain to be "unstable"?
\>20mins
71
Post MI heart failure what is used?
Aldosterone antagoinist eg: eplerenone
72
What is dresslers syndrome?
2-6 weeks after MI pericarditis NSAIDs used
73
Transmural MI can cause what?
Approx 48hrs pericarditis, typical pain and may have effusion on echo
74
Persistent ST elevation following MI may mean what?
Left ventricle aneurysm
75
1-2 weeks after MI, acute heart failure raised JVP and pulsus paradoxus?
Left ventircular free wall rupture
76
VSD after MI how and when?
Usually first week, pansystolic murmur, surgical correction echo needed to exclude Mitral regurg
77
Mitral regurg after Mi more common in which types?
Infero-posterior, early mid systolic murmur
78
Most common cause of death after MI?
VF
79
Following inferior MI which bradyarrythmia common?
AV block
80
Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF): defined as?
Heart failure with an ejection fraction less than 40%.
81
Most common causes of heart failure UK?
Coronary heart disease and hypertension are the most common causes of heart failure
82
HF symptoms?
Dyspnoea on exertion, orthopnoea, PND, Fluid rention, nocturnal cough/wheeze
83
HF signs?
here may be a gallop rhythm due to presence of S3 Bilateral basal end-inspiratory crackles ± wheeze ('cardiac asthma'). Tender hepatomegaly - pulsatile in tricuspid regurgitation, with ascites. Pleural effusions.
84
Patients should have what measured if suspect HF?
NT-proBNP level or just BNP if not available
85
NT pro BNP \>2000 or BNP \>400?
Urgent referall for transthoracic echo (2 weeks)
86
NT pro BNP 400-2000 or bnp 100-400?
Echo within six weeks
87
Noirmal NT pro BNP \<400 or bnp \<100 ?
HF unlikely consider other diagnoses, or discuss with specialist if concerned.
88
BNP levels high in other conditions except HF?
\>70, sepsis, renal problems, ischaemia, LVH diabetes COPD
89
Why arrange ECG in HF?
potential aetiological factors (for example, myocardial infarction or arrhythmias normal ECG makes HF very unlikely
90
Drugs initially offered to HF with reduced EF?
ACEi and BB, can use ARB if intolerant of ACEi Titrate BB if needed along with diuretics. Aldosterone antagonist considered in all patients.
91
Which B-Blockers useful in HF?
Bisop, carve and metop
92
CXR signs in HF?
Bat wings, Kerley B, cardiomegaly, diversion upper lobe, Plueral effusions, pulmonary oedema.
93
Acute treatment of pulmonary oedema?
Oxygen high flow, sit up, diuretics - Loops IV 40-80 furosemide, caution if BP low for high dose or nirates.
94
NYH stage 3 is?
MArked limitation of physical activity, comfortable at rest.
95
Right sided/cor pulmonale?
JVP↑ Weight gain, peripheral oedema, ↑↑liver and spleen, ascites
96
Left ventricular failure?
PND, Orthopnoea, Tachy, Pulmonary congestion, cyanosis, dyspnoea on exertion
97
When to start anti-HTN treatment immediately?
If BP \>180/110
98
What is accelerated HTN?
recent increase in blood pressure to very high levels (≥180 mm Hg systolic and ≥110 mm Hg neurological (eg, encephalopathy), cardiovascular or renal damage
99
Malignant vs accelerated HTN
Malignant usually has pappiloedema
100
Causes of accelerated HTN?
Renal artery stenosis, phaeochromocytoma, vasculitis, eclampsia, Drugs/cocaine, thyroid disorder Aldosteronism
101
Presentation of accelerated HTN?
Headache. Fits. Nausea and vomiting. Visual disturbance. Chest pain.
102
Treatment accelerated HTN?
Nitroprusside is often used as an IV drug but labetolol or nicardipine are alternatives , Phentolamine for phaeochromocytomas
103
First line treatment angina?
Beta blocker or calcium channel blocker + GTN
104
Second line for angina?
Consider BB +CB or switching between
105
Angina, not controlled on BB and Cb?
Consider nitrate long acting, or ivabradine
106
Other treatment for angina other than BB, Cb and nitrates?
Give aspirin, consider ACEi if diabetes
107
Advise on GTN use for pain?
Stop what they are doing and rest. Use their glyceryl trinitrate spray or tablets as instructed. Take a second dose after 5 minutes if the pain has not eased. Call 999 for an ambulance if the pain has not eased 5 minutes after the second dose
108
Thrombolysis contraindications?
Haemorrhagic stroke, ischeame stroek \<6m neoplasms cns, recent surgery or trauma, aortic dissection, bleeding issues.
109
Non-cardiac troponin rises?
PE, renal, COPD, diabetes, drugs and toxins
110
Driving and angina?
No notification, dont drive with pain!
111
Most common AF causes
coronary heart disease, hypertension, valvular heart disease and hyperthyroidism.
112
Non cardiac AF causes?
Alcohol, infection, PE, cancers, caffeine
113
Signs and symptoms of AF?
Breathlessness/dyspnoea. Palpitations. Syncope/dizziness. Chest discomfort. Stroke/transient ischaemic attack (TIA).
114
Av nodal blockade in WPW?
Can cause rapid ventricular rates
115
Distinguishing feature of AF on ECG?
The distinguishing feature of AF is variability in the R-R intervals lack of p waves
116
Investigations in AF except ECG?
Bloods, lft, fbc, thyroid, CXR u&es
117
Considering rhythm control in AF what investigation?
Echo
118
Always offer rate control first line for AF except?
Reversible causes, Heart failure caused by AF, new onset
119
Initial rate control drugs AF?
Offer either a standard beta-blocker (a beta-blocker other than sotalol) or a rate-limiting calcium-channel blocker as initial monotherapy to people with AF (bb contr in asthma CCB contra in heart failure)
120
Monotherapy not controlling AF?
Consider b blocker and digoxin/ditiazem
121
Monotherapy not controlling AF?
Consider b blocker and digoxin/(ditiazem specilist advice)
122
If can't anticoagulate consider what?
Dual antiplatelets- clop and aspirin
123
Treatment of superficial thrombophlebitis?
supportive, pain relief, elastication etc unless high risk or previous thrombotic events NSAID first line
124
Define 1st degree heart block?
Prolonged PR interval \>200ms (5 small squares) asymptomatic nothing done
125
2nd degree heart block type 1 mobitz/wekebach?
Progressively lengthening PR intervals until a qrs complex is dropped.
126
2nd degree heart block type 2 mobitz?
PR lengthened but regular, and regularly dropped QRS complexes.
127
Which heart blocks should be treated?
Type 2:2 and third degree
128
3rd degree heart block?
Regular P waves no relation to QRS complexes. Usually brady
129
Stokes-adams attack?
Temporary collapse unconscious due to heart slow or conduction problem
130
Max dose of atropine in symptomatic bradycardia, given in increments of?
3mg, 500mcg at a time
131
Define SVT?
Narrow complex \<120ms and \>100bpm
132
SVT risks?
Alcohol, thyroid↑ caffeine
133
Adverse features of SVT?
Shock, syncope, MI, Dizziness Hypotension
134
When DC cardiovert SVT?
If unstable adverse features up to 3 shcoks
135
Treatment of SVT if stable?
Vagal manouvres, and adenosine 6, 12, 12 rapid flush after, wary of wpw or asthmatics.
136
5 p's of limb ischaemia?
Pulseless, pallor, perishingly cold, parasthesia, paralysis.
137
Monomorphic VT?
Identical broad \>120ms qrs complexes regular
138
Polymorphic VT?
Also known as torsades, irregular and beat variation
139
VF, pulseless VT or symptomatic VT treatment?
Shock
140
VT which is stable?
Amiodarone 300mg over 20-60mins 5mg/kg then 900mg over 24hrs correct electrolytres
141
Torsades treatment?
↑qt consider stopping antiarryhtmics, give magnesium 2g IV over 10mins.
142
Fever with new onset murmur?
Infective endo until proven otherwise
143
Causes of infective endo?
Rheumatic valves, HCOM, IVDU, poor dentition, structural problems.
144
Usual microbes for infective endo?
Staph aureus IVDU, Strep viridans, dental, staph epidermis on prosthetic valves
145
Infective endo signs?
Acute- fever \>38 HF, chills and rigors or emboli Subacute, oslers nodes, splinter haemorrhages, janeways, murmur (aortic regurg), clubbing
146
Criteria for infective endo?
Dukes
147
which criteria met for a diagnosis in dukes criterias for IE?
2 Major, 1 major 3 minor or 5 minor
148
Major criteria for IE?
persistent +ve cultures, typical organism in 2 separate cultures, +ve echo, or valvular regur
149
Number of blood cultures from sites?
3 different sites peak of fever
150
Management of IE?
Blind therapy, gent and amox or vanc and gent
151
How long prior to surgery do you stop cocp?
4 weeks
152
Wells score for DVT of 0 or 1 ?
offer d-dimer but diagnosis unlikely if this is +ve have USS
153
Wells dvt score of 2 or more?
USS of leg if cant be done in 4 hrs offer parenteral anticoagulant
154
Q waves usually normal even \>2mm in which leads?
iii and avf but isolated Q waves in any usually no problem unless entire territory
155
ABPI 0.8-1?
Normal
156
When is AAA screening ?
All men aged 65 given USS
157
Diameter greater than what considered aneurysmal for AAA?
\>3cm under this no further scan needed
158
High rupture of AAA size of aneurysm?
\>5.5cm or \>1cm/yr
159
4.5-5.4cm aneurysms when to re-scan?
3 months
160
3-4.4cm aneurysm when to re-scan?
1 year
161
What is buergers test?
Arterial sufficiency test, leg raised and if goes pale at \<20degrees severe problems, normal leg should stay pink at 90 degrees for a minute.
162
Define stage 1 HTN?
Clinic 140/90 and ambulatory average \> 135/85
163
Stage 2 HTN?
160/100 clinic and 150/95 ambulatory
164
Stage 3 HTN?
Clinic pressure 180sys or dia \>110
165
When to treat stage 1 HTN?
\<80 years and organ damage, renal or CVS disease, diabetes, 10year qrisk \>20%
166
When to treat stage 2 HTN?
Always
167
Target BP for treated HTN? for \<80 and \>80yrs
\<80 140/90 \>80 150/90
168
Inferior MI may be associated with?
Right sides failure, raised JVP no pulmonary oedema
169
Causes of acute heart failure?
Arrhythmia, MI, Tamponade, Mitral regurg
170
ABPI in critical ischaemia?
\<0.5
171
Normal ABPI?
1-1.2
172
\>1.2 ABPI?
Usually diabetes
173
0.8-0.9 ABPI?
Mild claudication
174
0.5-0.79 ABPI?
Severe claudication
175
Conservative vs Medical vs surgical management of claudication?
Lifestyle, statins, clopidogrel diabetic control Angioplasty, bypass and amputation (incurable)
176
Symptoms of critical ischaemia? 6 P's
Pain Pallor Paraesthesia Paralysis Perishingly cold Pulseless
177
Bloods & investigations in limb ischaemia?
Lactate, CK, G&S, ECG, CTA
178
Management of critical ischaemia?
IV heparin even if going to surgery. embolectomy, thrombolysis, thrombectomy, amputation long term anticoagulation
179
Reperfusion of ischaemic limb problems?
Acidosis, AKI, Hyperkalaemia, arrhythmias
180
Risks for venous ulcers?
Age, varicosity, pregnancy, obesity
181
Characteristics of venous ulcers?
Shallow, Irregular, Granulating, Medial malleolus, varicose eczema
182
Characteristics of arterial ulcers?
Small, Deep and well defined, necrotic base, associated symptoms such as claudication. Lateral malleoulus
183
Neuropathic ulcers characteristics?
Variable size and depth, often in pressure areas such as soles of feet, burn and tingle
184
Venous ulcer management?
Emollients, Leg elevation, Dressings and compression
185
Arterial ulcer management?
Statin, antiplatelet, diabetic optimisation etc arterial ops
186
Neuropathic ulcer management?
Debridement and footwear!
187
Which ulcers painful?
Venous and arterial, diabetic is painless.
188
BP target in AAA?
\<100 as long as cerebrally perfusing
189
Stable vs unstable treatment of AAA?
Stable CT unstable straight to theatre
190
Type of stroke to consider endarterectomy?
Symptomatic anterior TIA /Stroke
191
Within how long to do endarterectomy after stroke?
14 days
192
Triad of aortic stenosis? What are differentials?
Angina, Syncope Heart Failure Differentials- Cardiomyopathy, vasovagal
193
CXR signs of heart failure?
Batwing (alveolar oedema) Kerley B line Cardiomegaly Dilated upper lobe Effusions
194
Aortic stenosis management?
Cons-Avoid exertion Medical- Treat CCF and risk factors Surgical- Definitive replacement
195
Aortic stenosis prognosis?
Not good 5 years
196
Differentials of palpitations?
Arrhythmia, valvular, Endocrine Anaemia Anxiety Drugs
197
What does this ECG show?
Typical pattern of atrial flutter
198
What does this ECG show? How would you calculate the rate?
AF, count complexes on strip and multiply by six (average HR) do not use the r-r method as irregular heart rate
199
200
Causes of mitral regurgitation?
Degenerative Left ventricular dilatation Ruptured chordae tendinae Papillary muscle rupture Rheumatic heart disease Infective endocarditis Mitral valve prolapse Connective tissue disease
201
Clinical presentation of varicose veins? Symptoms?
lower extremity pain, fatigue, itching and/or heaviness, which often worsen with prolonged standing, haemosiderin deposition
202
Investigation og choice for varicose veins?
Duplex ultrasound
203
Varicose veins risk factors?
Age + Female FHx ++Births DVT
204
What is this test, why is it used and how?
Buerger test, for arterial sufficiency, patients leg is raised until it becomes pale and angle noted then allowed to drop and noted if turns blue then red on return. (hyperactive hyperaemia)
205
When is trendelenburg test used in vascular conditions?
Venous insufficiency- torniquet is used
206
How to define orthstatic hypotension?
Orthostatic hypotension is defined as a fall in systolic blood pressure of at least 20 mmHg (at least 30 mmHg in patients with hypertension) and/or a fall in diastolic blood pressure of at least 10 mmHg within 3 minutes of standing.
207
Orthostatic hypotension inadequate response to non-pharmacological measures?
Fludricortisone with Sodium chloride
208
Anticoagulation of confirmed DVT/PE?
DOAC, recommended over Warfarin which is in turn reccomended over LMWH (still used to bridge the gap between the therapeutic INR of warfarin)
209
What does the ECG show, what is the treatment if stable and unstable?
Narrow complex tachycardia- likely SVT Stable- valsalva manouvres then adenosine Unstable- DC cardioversion
210
Signs of shock in SVT and VT?
Hypotension Heart failure/SOB Syncope Chest pain
211
What is the ECG showing what is the treatment?
If stable consider amiodarone or lidocaine If unstable/pulseless- DC cardioversion
212
What does the ECG show?
Deep s waves in V1-3 and st depression and t wave inversion in V5-6 Likely LVH
213
What does the ECG show?
ST depression left precordial leads V4-6 plus leads I, II and aVL. St elevation in aVR
214
What does ECG show? ?Cause
St depression downsloping, t wave flattenng and U waves associated with Hypokalaemia
215
What does the ECG show?
RBBB pattern V1-V3 upwards defelction and M
216
What does the ECG show?
LBBB
217
Causes of LBBB
Acute MI, Aortic stenosis, Dilated cardiomyopathy, coronary artery disease
218
How to tell axis from ECG?
Use lead I and AVf Normal axis both positive. Right axis I negative AVf positive Left axis I positive Avf Negative
219
What is shown? Which condition?
Roths spots, Infective endocarditis
220
Cardiac tamponade triad?
Becks- Muffled heart sounds, hypotension and raised JVP
221
Normal JVP height?
\<4cm
222
Causes of dilated cardiomyopathy?
Alcohol, hypertension, Haemachromatosis, cocaine, thyrotoxicosis, post partum Systolic failure
223
Causes of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
Intraventricular septum increased in size, Atheletes, usually genetic though. Harsh ejection systolic murumur although diastolic failure
224
Pembertons sign?
Hands above head for a minute causes sob, cyanosis and stridor +raised JVP Superior vena cav obstruction