Cardiology Flashcards

(53 cards)

1
Q

What are the different types of heart block?

A

First degree:
PR interval of >0.12s

Mobitz I block:
Increasing PR interval until p waves fail to conduct
AKA wenckebach

Mobitz II block:
dropped QRS not preceded by a p wave, normally in a 2:1 or 3:1 pattern. Every 2nd or 3rd p wave conducts to the ventricles.

Third degree:
Complete heart block. The atrium is not conducting to the ventricles at all. Rate normally very slow (~30 bpm) Can cause syncopal attacks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are stokes- adams attacks?

A

Syncopal attacks caused by a transient rapid tachycardias arising at the onset of complete heart block.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the indications for temporary pacing?

A

Symptomatic bradycardia that is unresponsive to atropine
After an anterior MI if the patient is in type 2 or 3 heart block
To suppress drug resistant tacharrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the indications for a permanent pacemaker?

A
Complete heart block 
Mobitz type II block 
persistent AV block post MI 
symptomatic bradycardias 
drug resistant taychcardias
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What do the three letter codes mean with regards to pacemakers?

A

1st letter = chamber paced, Atria, Ventricle of both (D)
2nd letter = chamber sensed, A, V, D or none (0)
3rd letter = pacemaker response, Triggered, Inhibited, Dual, Reverse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the complications of a pacemaker insertion?

A

Pneumothroax, wound haemotoma or dehiscence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe the wave form of the JVP

A

3 peaks (a, c and v) and 2 troughs (x and y descents)

a wave = produced in atrial systole
increased with RV hypertrophy. giant canon waves occur in complete heart block and VTs

x descent = when atrial contraction finishes. Ventricular systole.

c wave = occurs during x descent and is due to the right ventricular systolic pressure transmitted before the tri-cuspid valve closes.

v wave = venous return filling the right atrium. giant v waves occur in TR

y descent = when the tricuspid valve opens.
A steep y descent occurs when there is tricuspid incompetence or constrictive pericarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the characteristic ECG changes in pericarditis?

A

Saddle shaped ST elevation - there is a concave upwards

in 10% the ECG is non specific or normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Name the causes of acute pericarditis:

A

Idiopathic
Secondary to:
Viruses - coxsackie, flu, epstein barr, mumps, varicella, HIV
Bacteria - pneumonia, rheumatic fever, TB, staphs, strep
Fungi
Post MI - Dressler’s (2- 10 weeks post MI the body creates auto-antibodies and pts get recurrent pericarditis)
Drugs - procainamide, hydralazine, penicillin, isoniazid
Others - ureamia, RA, SLE, myxodema, trauma, surgery, malignancy, radiotherapy, sarcoidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the clinical features of pericardial effusion?

A

Dyspnoea, raised JVP, bronchial breathing in left base - Ewart’s sign = large effusion compressing the left lower lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is cardiac tamponade?

A

Accumulation of pericardial fluid that raises the intra-pericardial pressure and results in poor ventricular filling and a decrease in cardiac output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the signs of cardiac tamponade?

A

Increased pulse, low BP, pulsus paradoxus - increase in pulse on inspiration, Kussmaul’s sign - JVP rise with inspiration, muffled S1 and S2.

Beck’s triad = falling BP, rising JVP, small quite heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What causes constrictive pericarditis?

A

a rigid pericardium - interferes with diastolic filling so causes signs of R heart failure:

increased JVP, systemic venous congestion, pulmonary congestion, Kussmaul’s sign, soft diffuse apex beat, quiet heart sounds, S3,

MUST distinguish from constrictive cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a 3rd heart sound and what does it signify?

A

Heart sound in diastole, making a galloping rhythm.

Occurs as a result of rapid relaxation of the ventricles and occurs in heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the causes of acute myocarditis?

A

Idiopathic
Viral - flu, hepatitis, mumps, rubella, Coxsackie, poli, HIV
Bacterial - Clostridia, diptheria, TB, meningococcus,
Spirochaetes - leptospirosis, syphilis, lyme
Protazoa - Chagas’
Drugs - cyclophospamide, herceptin, penicillin, chloramphenicol, methlydopa, spironolactone,
Toxins
Vasculitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is hypertension?

A

A sustained BP of >140/90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Who gets treated for hypertension?

A

BP > 160/100
or
BP 140/90 with CHD and stroke risk or target organ damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is malignant hypertension?

A

BP >200/130 + bilateral retinal haemorrhages (papilloedmea doesnt have to be present)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the causes of hypertension?

A

Essential - no known cause
Renal disease - intrinsic renal disease or renovascular disease (atheromatous or fibromuscular dysplasia)
Endocrine - cushings, Conns, phaeochromocytoma, acromegaly, hyperparathyroidism
Others - coarctation, prenancy, steriods MAOIs, the pill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the end organ damage from HTN?

A

LVH, retinopathy, kidney disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the target BP for patients with diabetes?

A

<125/75 if proteinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which antihypertensives do you use?

A

Pt 55yrs or black origin of any age:
Ca Channel blocker, followed by ACEi, followed by thiazide duiretic, then consider increasing the duiretic, adding spironalactone or a B blocker

23
Q

What are the two types of infarction that usually occur in a MI?

A

Transmural - full or near full thickness infarction of the ventricular wall usually in the distribution of an coronary artery.
Associated with atherosclerosis, plaque rupture and super imposed thrombosis

Subendocardial - 1/3 - 1/2 of the venticular wall
Due to diffuse stenosisng arthersclerosis and global reduction in coronary flow ie due to shock

24
Q

Describe the histopathological changes that occur between initial event and 8 weeks after an MI

A

20-40mins - ultrastructural changes of irreversible damage

2-3hrs - staining with tetrazolium dyes

4-12hrs - classic necrosis

12-24hrs - gross alterations with the naked eye

2-3 days - acute inflammation

5-10 days - macrophages remove necrotic muscle cells

2-4 weeks - granulation tissue most prominent

6 weeks scaring well advanced

> 8 weeks cannot tell whether the event was 8 weeks ago or 10 yrs.

25
When do the different cardiac enzymes rise after an ACS?
Trop - rises within 3-12hrs with a peak at 24-48hrs, falls back to baseline over 5-14 days CK -MB (cardiac specific) - rises withing 3-12hrs, peaks at 24hrs and falls again after 48-72hrs Myoglobin - rises within 1-4 hrs of the pain very sensitive but not specific LDH rises at day 2 and peals at day 3
26
What are the complications of an MI?
Cardiac arrest Cardiogenic shock Unstable angina Bradycardia/ heart block: 1st degree most commonly after inf MI complete AV block usually resolved after a few days Tachyarrhthmias: keep K an Oxygen levels within normal range Heart failure Pericarditis DVT/ PE Systemic embolism: from LV mural thrombus Cardiac tamponade Mitral regurgation: 1. severe LV dysfunction causing annular dilation of valve 2.MI in inf wall leading to papillary muscle dysfunction 3. MI in papillary muscles Ventricular septal defect: Pansystolic murmur, high JVP, cardiac failure caused by rupture of the myocardium due to remodeling of the tissue. Left ventricular aneurysms Dressler's syndrome recurrent pericarditis, pleural effusions, fever and anaemia
27
What are the causes of atrial fibrillation?
``` Heart failure/ ischemia Hypertension MI PE Mitral valve disease pneumonia Hyperthyroidism Caffeine, alcohol Post op Low potassium, low magnesium ``` ``` RARE: cardiomyopathy constrictive pericarditis sick sinus syndrome lung ca atrial myxoma endocarditis haemochromatosis sarcoid ``` LONE AF = no cause found
28
What are the two types of cardioversion?
Electrical cardioversion = using defib Drug cardioversion = amioderone IVI 5mg/kg over 1hr via central line or flecanide if there is no structural cardiac disease, or WPW (it is a strong negative inoptrope) Do not cardiovert until fully anticoagulated if the AF has been going on for >48hrs
29
What is the difference between rate control and rhythm control in atrial fibrillation?
RATE CONTROL: usually used first line in patients with AF unless the AF had a reversible cause, a patients heart failure is thought to be primarily caused by their AF, it is new onset AF, the AF is thought to be suitable for ablation B blocker is first line or a rate limiting Ca blocker, can add digoxin or diltiazem if doesn't respond. Aim is to get HR <100 so they can carry out physical activity. RHYTHM CONTROL: If cardioversion is chosen should anticoagulate and use amioderone for 4 week beforehand, and continue up to 12 weeks.
30
What scale is used to calculate a patients stroke risk with atrial fibrillation?
``` CHA2DS2 Vasc score Congestive heart failure = 1 Hypertension = 1 Age 65-74 = 1 >75yrs = 2 Diabetes = 1 Prior TIA/ stroke = 2 Vascular disease history ``` Need to anticoagulate is score >2 (taking into account bleeding risk HAS BLED score
31
What are the causes of Aortic Stenosis?
Senile calcification Congenital bicuspid valve Rheumatic heart disease
32
What are the signs and symptoms of aortic stenosis?
Triad of: angina, syncope and heart failure Slow rising pulse, narrow pulse pressure, ejection systolic murmur radiating to the carotids, quiet second heart sound (as the aortic valve cannot close) ECG - LVH, can have left anterior hemiblock or LBBB
33
What is the difference between aortic stenosis and aortic sclerosis?
Aortic sclerosis is just degeneration of the valve. There is a murmur but no carotid radiation and the pulse is normal character and volume, with a normal second heart sound.
34
What are the causes of aortic regurgitation?
Acute- Infective endocarditis, ascending aortic dissection, chest trauma Chronic - connective tissue disorders, rheumatic fever, Takayasu arteritis, RA, SLE, seronegative arthritides, hypertension, osteogenesis imperfecta, syphilis
35
What are the symptoms and signs of aortic regurgitation?
Exertional dyspnoea, orthopnoea, PND. Collapsing, water hammer pulse, early diastolic murmur, best heard in expiration with patient sat forward Corrigan's sign - carotid pulsation de Musset's sign - head nodding with each heart beat Quicke's sign - capillary pulsation in nail bed Duroziez's sign - in the groin, a finger compressing the femoral artery 2cm proximal to the stethoscope gives a systolic murmur, and 2cm distal to the stethoscope gives a diastolic murmur. Traube's sign - pistol shot sound over femoral arteries Austin flint murmur - mid diastolic murmur, denotes severe AR
36
What are the main causes of bradycardia?
``` Sinus Brady: -ve chronotropes - B blockers, calcium channel blockers, digoxin, amiodarone, clonidine, Hypoxia, Hypothermia, Hypothyroidism Cushing's reflex MI - right sided Sick sinus syndrome ``` ``` Sinoatrial block - no pwaves on ECG Ischemia Hyperkalaemia Excessive vagal tone -ve chronotopes ``` Sick sinus syndrome: Fibrosis of the sinus node Hyperkalaemia, hypoxia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, drugs and toxins AV block - rule out MI, lymes disease, myocarditis/ endocarditis, SLE
37
What is the definition of orthostatic hypotension?
A drop of >15mmHg when standing for 3 mins
38
What are the causes of orthostatic hypotension?
Autonomic neuropathy (diabetes) Antihypertensive medications Over diuresis Multisystem atrophy - a parkinsons plus syndrome
39
How does endocarditis differ when patients have normal and abnormal valves?
Patients with normal valves get acute infective endocarditis - present with acute heart failure and emboli. S aureus the most common pathogen. Patients with abnormal valves get sub acute infective endocarditis. Strep viridans most common pathogen
40
What are the signs of infective endocarditis?
Septic signs: Fever, rigors, night sweats, malaise, weight loss, anaemia, splenomegaly, clubbing Cardiac lesions: Any new murmur or changing pre-existing murmur. Immune complex deposition: Vasculitis - microscopic haematuria is common Roth spots - boat shaped retinal haemorrhage with pale centre. Splinter haemorrhages Osler's nodes - painful pulp infarcts in fingers or toes Janeway lesions - painful palmar and plantar macules Embolic phenomena: emboli may cause abscessed in brain, heat, kidney, spleen or gut.
41
How do you diagnosis Infective endocarditis?
Duke criteria 2 major, or 1 major and 3 minor or 5 minor. Major: Positive blood cultures - in 2 separate cultures, or +ve in 3 >12hr apart Endocardium involved - +ve Echo, or new valvular regurg ``` Minor: Predisposition (cardiac lesion or IVDU) Fever >38 Vascular/ immunological signs +ve blood culture that doesn't meet major criteria Positive echo does doesn't meet major ```
42
How do statins work?
They inhibit the enzyme HMG-COA reductase (responsible for de novo synthesis of cholesterol in the liver). The inhibition of it leads to increased LDL receptor expression by hepatocytes which leads to a decrease of circulating LDL.
43
For a diagnosis of family hypercholesterolaemia how high does your cholesterol need to be?
Chol 7.5 - 16, with increased LDL and decreased HDL | Tri glycerides
44
Which murmer gets louder with the valsalva manoveure?
HOCM
45
How are the symptoms of left heart failure different from right heart failure?
Left heart failure symptoms = lung symptoms as the blood is backing up in the pulmonary system. Dyspnoea, poor exercise tolerance, fatigue, orthopnoea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea, nocturnal cough Right heart failure symptoms = fluid in the rest of the body, as it is backing up there. Peripheral oedema, ascites, nausea, anorexia, raised JVP,
46
How is BNP used to diagnose heart failure and what else is it raised in?
If a person has symptoms of heart failure and a high BNP then it is likely they have heart failure. Pts who have not had previous MI should have their BNP measured prior to referral to cardiology. BNP can be high in: left ventricular hypertrophy, ischaemia, tachycardia, right ventricular overload, hypoxaemia, GFR 70yrs and cirrhosis.
47
What are the chest xray signs of heart failure?
``` Cardiomegaly Dilated prominent upper lobe vessels Alveolar oedema (bats wings) Kerley B lines (interstitial oedema) Pleural effusion ```
48
What drugs are used for all types of heart failure and what drugs are used specifically for left sided heart failure?
All types of heart failure: Diuretics Calcium channel blockers - amlodipine if the patients have hypertension, must avoid verapamil, diltiazem etc. Aspirin - if patients have atherosclerotic disease Left sided heart failure: B blocker - deceases the mortality of patients Ace inhibitor - improves symptoms and increases life expectancy Spironalactone - only after specialised advice Digoxin - can be used for worsening heart failure
49
What is the new york classification of heart failure?
I - heart failure present but no undue dyspnoea from ordinary activity II - comfortable at rest, dyspnoea on ordinary activities III - less than ordinary activity causes dyspnoea, which is limiting IV - dyspnoea present at rest, activity causes discomfort.
50
How does the renin angiotensin system control blood pressure?
When there is a decrease in renal blood flow (low BP) the kidney converts prorenin to RENIN RENIN converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I Angiotensin I is converted to ANGIOTENSIN II by ACE. ANGIOTENSIN II does many things: Increases sympathetic activity - vasoconstriction Increases tubular reabsoprtion of Na and Cl, and excretion of K, leading to water retention Stimulates aldosterone secretion from the adrenal cortex Stimulates ADH secretion from the posteior lobe of the pituitary gland. ALDOSTERONE - Increases tubular reabsoprtion of Na and Cl, and excretion of K, leading to water retention ADH - increases water absorption in the collecting duct
51
What are the criteria for diagnosing rheumatic fever?
Evidence of group A strep + 2 major or 1 major and 2 minor Major: Carditis - tachycardia + murmur Arthritis - migratory polyarthritis, affecting the larger joints. Subcutaneous nodules - small mobile painless nodules on extensor surfaces Erythema marginatum - geographical type rash with red raised edges and clear centre Sydenham's chorea ``` Minor: Fever Raised ESR or CRP Arthralgia Prolonged PR Previous rheumatic fever ```
52
Mitral stenosis: Causes Symptoms Signs
Causes: Rheumatic fever and congenital Symptoms: Dyspnoea, fatigue, palpitations, chest pain. The left atrium pressure has to increase to maintain CO so the pulmonary pressure increases, and AF occurs Signs: Malar flush on cheeks, low volume pulse, AF, tapping non displaced apex beat. Loud S1, rumbling mid diastolic murmur, heard best on expiration with patient on the left side.
53
Mitral regurgitation: Causes Symptoms Signs
Causes: Functional - LV dilatation, annular calcification, rheumatic fever, infective endocarditis, MV prolapse, ruptured chordae tendinae, connective tissue disorders, Symptoms: Dyspnoea, fatigue, palpitations LV will enlarge as the stroke volume needs to increase to maintain forward CO Signs: AF, hyperdynamic apex beat, RV heave, soft S1, split S2, pansystolic murmur as apex, radiating to axilla