Cardiology Flashcards

(392 cards)

1
Q

what Leads represent the anterior surface of the heart?

A

V2-V6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what leads represent the posterior surface of the heart?

A

V1-V3

but reciprocal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what Leads represent the inferior surface of the heart?

A

II, III, aVF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what leads represent the anterolateral surface of the heart?

A

I, aVL, V5+ V6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what leads represent the anteroseptal surface of the heart?

A

V2-V4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what vessel supplies the inferior aspect of the heart?

A

Right Coronary Artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what vessel supplies the anterior aspect of the heart?

A

Left main stem

which splits into LAD + Left Cx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what vessel supplies the posterior aspect of the heart?

A

right coronary artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what vessel supplies the anterolateral aspect of the heart?

A

Left circumflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what vessel supplies the anteroseptal aspect of the heart? (V2-V4)

A

Left anterior descending

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

ECG showing PR interval > 200ms (0.20 s)

what diagnosis?

A

first degree heart block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

ECG shows progressive lengthening of the PR interval

diagnosis?

A

2nd degree heart block

mobitz type I

wenckebach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

ECG shows complete dissociation of P waves and QRS complexes

A

3rd degree heart block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

ECG shows two p waves per QRS complex

w normal consistent PR intervals

A

2nd degree heart block

(2:1 block)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

ECG shows constant PR interval, wide QRS complexes, occasional non-conducted p waves

A

2nd degree heart block

mobitz type II

(block usually in bundle branches of Purkinje fibres)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Right BBB

features on ECG?

A

MarroW

Rabbit ears in V1, W in V6

Wide QRS complexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Causes of RBBB?

A

Infarct - Inferior MI

Normal Variant

Congenital - ASD, VSD, Fallot’s

Hypertrophy - RVH (PE, Cor Pulmonale)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Left BBB

features on ECG?

A

WilliaM

W in V1, rabbit ears in V6

wide QRS

T wave inversion in lateral leads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Causes of LBBB?

A

Fibrosis

LVH - AS, HTN

Infarct - Inf MI

Coronary Heart Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Bifasicular Block

involves?

A

RBBB + LAFB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Trifascicular Block

involves?

A

RBBB +

LAFB (left anterior fascicular block)

+ 1st degree heart block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is Beck’s triad?

A

Hypotension

Raised JVP

muffled heart sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Complication of MI due to left ventricular free wall rupture?

A

Cardiac tamponade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Signs of Cardiac Tamponade

A

Becks Triad:

low BP, raised JVP, muffled heart sounds

Pulsus paradoxus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is pulsus paradoxus?
An abnormally large decrease in stroke volume and Systolic Blood pressure and pulse wave amplitude during inspiration. fall in \> 10mmHg
26
Complication of MI -\> Papillary muscle rupture what signs?
Pan systolic murmur due to mitral regurgitation
27
What is the mx of STEMI?
after confirmation by 12 lead ECG 1. O2 2-4L aim for SpO2 94-98% 2. IV access Bloods for FBC, U+E, glucose, lipids, Troponin 3. Aspirin 300mg and Clopidogrel 300mg 4. Morphine 5-10mg IV and Metoclopramide 10mg IV 5. GTN spray 2 puffs + BB atenolol 6. LMWH enoxaparin 7. Monitor with cardiac monitoring + regular obs 8. Primary PCI or thrombolysis
28
what is stable angina?
chest pain induced by effort
29
what is unstable angina?
chest pain that occurs at rest/ on minimal exertion
30
what is angina decubitus?
chest pain induced by lying down
31
what is Syndrome X?
angina pain + ST elevation on exercise test but no evidence of coronary atherosclerosis probably microvascular disease
32
what is Prinzmetal's angina?
chest pain at rest due to coronary spasm ST elevation during attack: resolves as pain subsides
33
Angina management for secondary prevention of cardiovascular events?
Aspirin 75mg ACEi Statins: simvastatin 40mg Antihypertensives
34
anti anginals tx?
GTN spray + BB Atenolol (or CCB Verapamil)
35
signs of RVF
raised JVP tender smooth hepatomegaly pitting oedema ascites
36
signs of LVF
cold peripheries +/- cyanosis often in AF cardiomegaly w displaced apex S3 + tachycardia = gallop rhythm wheeze bibasal creps
37
CXR signs of HF
ABCDE Alveolar shadowing Kerley B lines Cardiomegaly Upper lobe Diversion Effusions Fluid in the fissures
38
what is the normal ejection fraction?
60%
39
key investigation of heart failure?
Echo
40
what is a biomarker of HF?
BNP | (\>100)
41
what mx have shown to reduce mortality in chronic HF?
ACEi + BB + Spironolactone
42
Mx of chronic HF 1st line
ACEi e.g. lisinopril or candesartan + BB e.g. carvedilol or bisoprolol + Loop Diuretic e.g. furosemide or bumetanide
43
Mx of Chronic HF 2nd line
seek specialist advice spironolactone ACEi + ARB Vasodilators: hydralazine + ISDN (isosorbide dinitrate)
44
Symptoms of Pulmonary Oedema
SOB Orthopnoea and PND Pink frothy Sputum
45
Cardioresp signs of pulmonary oedema
raised JVP Gallop rhythm/ S3 Bibasal creps Wheeze
46
Causes of supraventricular tachycardias?
Sinus tachycardia: may be physiological, e.g. response to illness Atrial tachyarrhythmias: AF (irregular rhythm), atrial flutter, Junctional tachycardias: AVRT (e.g. WPW), AVNRT
47
what electrolyte abnormalities cause prolonged QT interval?
low Mg, K, Ca
48
atrial tachycardia abnormally shaped P waves normal QRS complexes rate \> 150 may be assoc w AV block
49
causes of broad complex tachycardias?
VT Torsades de pointes VF SVT with BBB or SVT with WPW
50
Is it a VT or SVT with BBB?
VT more likely if: hx of recent infarction AV dissociation broad QRS complexes (\> 140ms) Concordant QRS direction in V1-V6 Fusion and capture beats
51
Peaked P wave on ECG?
P Pulmonale Causes: generally due to **Right atrial hypertrophy** from tricuspid stenosis/ pulmonary HTN
52
a broad bifid P wave on ECG?
P mitrale due to Left atrial hypertrophy e.g. Mitral stenosis
53
How to diagnose RVH on ECG?
Tall R wave in V1 ( \> 7mm) Deep S wave in V6 (\>7 mm) Right Axis deviation may be T wave inversion in V1-V3 cause: cor pulmonale
54
How to diagnose LVH on ECG?
deep S wave in V1 + Tall R wave in V6 ( S + R \> 35mm) may have left axis deviation
55
rhythm regular, rate N, p wave N PR short QRS: usually wide Delta wave: slurred upstroke of QRS can establish reentrant circuit -\> SVT
56
irregularly irregular broad QRS complexes -\> AF + WPW
57
ST segment elevation \> 2mm in \>1 of V1-V3 followed by negative T wave **brugada syndrome** pseudo RBBB
58
features of HyperK on ECG?
tall tented T waves widened QRS complexes Absent P waves Sine wave appearance
59
Features of HypoK on ECG?
Small T waves ST depression Prolonged QT interval Prominent U waves
60
**Digoxin toxicity** Reverse tick sign: down sloping ST depression Also: flattened, inverted or biphasic T waves, shortened QT interval
61
Causes Of Bradycardia?
Drugs: Amiodarone, BB, CCB (verapamil), Digoxin Ischaemia/ Infarction: Inf MI (SA node affected) Vagal hypertonia: Carotid sinus syndrome, athletes Infection Sick sinus syndrome: structural damage or fibrosis of SAN, AVN or conducting tissue Amyloid/ Sarcoid/ Haemochromatosis, Muscular dystrophy Hypothyroid/ HypoK/ Hypothermia Raised ICP
62
Types of bradycardias?
sinus bradycardia First degree heart block: PR \> 200 ms Second Degree Heart Block: Mobitz I and II Complete Heart Block: Junctional- narrow QRS @ 50 bpm Ventricular- broad QRS @ 40bpm
63
tx of bradycardia?
if asymptomatic and rate\> 40, no tx needed If symptomatic/ rate \<40: 1. tx underlying cause e.g. drugs, MI 2. Medical: **atropine** 500 mcg (max 3mg) IV or **isoprenaline** 5 mcg/min IVI or transcutaneous pacing 3. External pacing
64
what is sick sinus syndrome?
structural damage or fibrosis of SAN, AVN or conducting tissue PC: SVT alternating w sinus bradycardia +/- arrest or SA/ AV block Mx of bradyarrhythmias: Pacing Tachyarrhythmias: Amiodarone
65
what do vagal manouevres accomplish in mx of SVT?
transiently increases AV block and may unmask underlying atrial rhythm
66
Adenosine MOA in mx of SVT?
- \> transient AV block, unmasking atrial rhythm - \> cardioverts junctional tachycardias (AVRT/AVNRT) to sinus rhythm
67
AF mx?
1. rate control w BB (metoprolol) or digoxin 2. if onset \<48h consider cardioversion w amiodarone or DC shock 3. consider anticoagulation w LMWH +/- warfarin
68
if sinus tachycardia requires tx? (ie not a physiological response to fever/ hypovolaemia)
B- blocker rate control
69
What should be remembered about giving adenosine?
Adenosine 6mg IV bolus into a large vein - followed by 0.9% saline flush while recording rhythm strip if unsuccessful, after 2 min give 12mg, then one further 12mg bolus warn about SEs! -transient chest tightness, dyspnoea, headache, flushing
70
what are relative contraindications of adenosine?
asthma 2nd/ 3rd degree heart block or sinoatrial disease
71
drug interactions of adenosine?
potentiated by dipyridamole antagonized by theophylline
72
if adenosine fails in SVT mx, what next?
Use verapamil 5mg IV over 2-3 min (NOT if on BB) alternatives: amiodarone, atenolol if unsuccesful -\> DC cardioversion
73
if Junctional tachycardias are not cardioverted to sinus rhythm with adenosine?
Try BBs if medications are insufficient -\> try radiofrequency ablation
74
Risk of SVT w WPW?
degeneration to VF and sudden death
75
Tx of WPW?
flecainide, propafenone, sotalol or amiodarone refer to cardiologist for electrophysiology and ablation of the accessory pathway
76
what dose to administer amiodarone?
amiodarone 300 mg IVI over 20-60 min then 900mg over 24h
77
First thing to ask if pt has broad complex tachy?
pulse present? if no -\> CPR if yes -\> gain IV access, ECG and give O2
78
Mx of broad complex tachycardia? pulse present no adverse features
correct electrolyte abnormalities esp low K+ and low Mg2+ Then assess rhythm: if regular: treat as VT **amiodarone 300mg IV** over 20 or more mins via central line if known hx of SVT w BBB: consider **adenosine** if irregular: Torsades de pointes: **MgSO4 2g IV over 10 min** pre-excited AF: **consider amiodarone**
79
Prevention of recurrent VT?
may need antiarrhythmic tx: sotalol (if good LV function) or amiodarone (if poor LV function) Surgical isolation of arrhythmogenic area or an ICD
80
pathophysiology of AF?
Focal atrial activity usually originates in roots of pulmonary veins, overwhelming normal impulses generated by SA node in RA -\> recurrent, uncoordinated contraction @ 300-600 bpm AVN responds intermittently -\> irregular ventricular rate atrial contraction responsible for ~25% of CO -\> heart failure
81
causes of AF:
cardiac: HTN, ischaemic heart disease, valvular heart problems endocrine: hyperthyroidism, excess alcohol resp: PE
82
symptoms of AF?
asymptomatic or palpitations, dyspnoea, anginal chest pain, presyncope (faintness)
83
signs of AF?
irregularly irregular pulse or fast AF-\> loss of diastolic filling -\> no palpable pulse Signs of LVF
84
Mx of Acute AF (onset \< 48h)?
if heamodynamically unstable -\> emergency cardioversion Electrical Cardioversion or pharmacological (IV Amiodarone) 2nd line IV flecainide (if no structural heart disease) Anticoagulate with LMWH
85
Mx of acute AF (\<48h onset) with stable patient?
Control ventricular rate: BB (bisoprolol) OR rate limitning CCB (e.g. verapamil) Anticoagulate with LMWH Cardioversion: DC shock or medical amiodarone
86
what is paroxysmal AF?
spontaneous termination within \<7d (most often within 48h) recurring and may degenerate into sustained AF
87
Mx of paroxysmal AF?
Rhythm: "pill in pocket": flecainide or sotalol PRN Prevention: BB, sotalol or amiodarone Anticoagulate: Use CHA2DS2-VAS score
88
what is persistent AF?
\> 7d, not self terminating, may recur after cardioversion
89
Mx of persistent AF?
Rhythm Control: elective cardioversion 1st line rhythm control if symptomatic of CCF, \<65, presenting first time w lone AF, secondary to treated precipitant Beforehand: anticoagulate w warfarin for \> 3 wks or use TOE to exclude mural thrombus Pre-treatment \>4 wks w sotalol or amiodarone if increased risk of failure Rate: monotherapy BB (bisoprolol, metoprolol) or rate limiting CCB 1st line Anticoagulation: use CHA2D2VAS score
90
What is permanent AF?
long stnading \> 1yr, not succesfully terminated by cardioversion/ unlikely to succeed
91
Mx of permanent AF?
Rate control: BB or digoxin Anticoagulate: use CHADVAS score Rhythm control: Radiofrequency ablation of AV node +/- Pacing, Maze procedure,
92
What is CHADVAS score?
determines neccessity of anticoagulation in AF
93
what is the CHADSVAS score made of
Congestive Cardiac Failure HTN Age ≥ 75 (2 points) DM Stroke or TIA (2 points) VAS Vascular disease Age 65-74 Sex: female
94
What CHADSVAS scores mean what?
0: dont need anticoagulation if 1: male -\> anticoagulate ≥ 2: Warfarin (INR 2-3)
95
what is the HASBLED score for?
determines bleeding risk in those starting or on anticoagulation HTN Abnormal Kidney or liver function (1 each) Stroke Bleeding tendency Labile INR Elderly Drug (NSAIDs + alcohol): 1 each
96
what HASBLED score means what?
≥ 3 = high risk AVOID oral anticoagulation
97
Modifiable risk factors of Acute coronary syndromes?
HTN DM Smoking High cholesterol Obesity
98
non modifiable risk factors of acute coronary syndrome?
age male FH (MI\< 55 yrs)
99
what ECG findings show a STEMI?
ST elevation Q waves: full thickness infarct T wave inversion or New onset LBBB also -\> STEMI
100
ECG findings of NSTEMI?
ST depression T wave inversion
101
ECG findings of Pericarditis?
saddle shaped ST elevation +/- PR depression
102
mx of pericarditis?
NSAIDs: ibuprofen Echo to exclude effusion
103
ECG findings of ventricular aneurysm?
persistent ST elevation
104
Mx of ventricular aneurysm?
anticoagulation consider surgical excision
105
Ix of angina?
Bloods: FBC, U+E, lipids, glucose, ESR, TFTs ECG: usually normal May show ST ↓, flat/inverted T waves, past MI Consider exercise ECG Stress echo Perfusion scan CT coronary Ca2+ score Angiography (gold standard)
106
mx of atrial flutter?
is similar to that of atrial fibrillation although medication may be less effective atrial flutter is more sensitive to cardioversion however so lower energy levels may be used radiofrequency ablation of the tricuspid valve isthmus is curative for most patients
107
inheritance of Marfans?
AD ## Footnote Spontaneous mutation in 25%
108
what is the most sensitive ecg marker for pericarditis?
PR depression: most specific ECG marker for pericarditis
109
presentation of Marfans?
**Cardiac** - Aortic aneurysm and dissection - Aortic root dilatation → regurgitation - MV prolapse ± regurgitation **Ocular** Lens dislocation: superotemporal **MSK** High-arched palate Arachnodactyly Arm-span \> height Pectus excavatum Scoliosis Pes planus Joint hypermobility
110
complications assoc w Marfans?
Ruptured aortic aneurysm Spontaneous pneumothorax Diaphragmatic hernia Hernias
111
Mx of Marfans?
Refer to ortho, cardio and ophthal Life-style alteration: ↓ cardiointensive sports Beta-blockers slow dilatation of the aortic root Regular cardiac echo Surgery when aortic root ≥5cm wide
112
pathogenesis of Ehlers-Danlos?
``` Rare heterogeneous group of collagen disorders. 6 subtypes w varying severity Commonest types (1 and 2) are autosomal dominant ```
113
presentation of ehlers danlos syndrome?
Hyperelastic skin Hypermobile joints Cardiac: MVP , AR, MR and aneurysms Fragile blood vessels → easy bruising, GI bleeds Poor healing
114
bicuspid aortic valve assoc w?
aortic stenosis +/- regurgitation pre disposes to IE/ subacute endocarditis
115
Pathology of Tetralogy of Fallot?
VSD Pulmonary stenosis RV Hypertrophy Overriding aorta
116
Tetralogy of Fallot associated with which congenital syndrome?
Di George's Syndrome CATCH 22
117
Ix of Tetralogy of Fallot?
ECG: RVH + RBBB CXR Echo: anatomy + degree of stenosis
118
presentation of tetralogy of fallot in adults?
often asymptomatic unoperated: cyanosis, ESM of Pulm Stenosis Repaired: Dyspnoea, palpitations, RVF
119
mx of tetralogy of fallot?
surgical closure of VSD + correction of the pulmonary stenosis usually before 1 yo
120
causes of VSD?
congenital acquired: post MI
121
Signs of VSD?
Smaller holes -\> louder murmurs harsh PSM @ LLSE Systolic thrill Left parasternal heave larger holes -\> Pulmonary HTN
122
complications of VSD?
infective endocarditis Pulmonary HTN Eisenmengers
123
Ix of VSD?
ECG: if small- normal. if large: LVH + RVH CXR: small- mild pulmonary plethora large - cardiomegaly + marked pulmonary plethora Echo to visualise
124
Mx of VSD?
surgical closure indicated
125
what is coarctation of the aorta?
Congenital narrowing of the aorta Usually occurs just distal to origin of left subclavian M\>F
126
signs of coarctation of the aorta?
radio-femoral delay / radial radial delay weak femoral pulse HTN systolic murmur/ bruit heard best over left scapula
127
complications of coarctation of aorta?
heart failure IE
128
Ix of coarctation of aorta?
CXR: rib notching ECG: LV strain CT angiogram
129
mx of coarctation of aorta?
balloon dilatation + stenting
130
Complications of Atrial septal defect?
Paradoxical emboli Eisenmengers syndrome: increased RA pressure -\> cyanotic R to L shunt
131
mx of atrial septal defect?
transcatheter closure recommended in adults if high pulmonary to systemic blood flow ratio (≥1.5:1)
132
signs of atrial septal defect?
AF raised JVP pulmonary ESM Pulm HTN -\> Tricuspid regurg or Pulm Regurg
133
Causes of Dilated Cardiomyopathy?
1. Dystrophy: muscular, myotonic 2. Infection: complication of myocarditis 3. Late pregnancy: peri-partum 4. Autoimmune: SLE 5. Toxins: alcohol, cyclophosphamide, radiotherapy 6. Endocrine: thyrotoxicosis
134
presentation of dilated cardiomyopathy?
right HF and L HF Arrhythmias
135
Signs of Dilated cardiomyopathy
Displaced apex beat S3 gallop raised JVP low BP MR/ TR
136
Ix of dilated cardiomyopathy?
CXR: cardiomegaly, pulmonary oedema ECG: T inversion, poor progression Echo: globally dilated, hypokinetic heart + decreased ejection fraction Catheter + biopsy: myocardial fibre disarray
137
Mx of dilated cardiomyopathy?
Bed rest medical: Diuretics, ACEi, Digoxin, anticoagulation Non medical: Biventricular pacing, ICD Surgical: heart transplant
138
What is an Atrial myxoma?
rare, benign cardiac tumour may be familial e.g. Carney Complex: cardiac and cutaneous myxoma, skin pigmentation, endocrinopathy (e.g. Cushings) 90% in L atrium, most commonly attached to fossa ovalis of the interatrial septum
139
features of cardiac myxoma?
Clubbing, fever, weight loss, Raised ESR Signs similar to Mitral stenosis (Mid diastolic murmur, systemic emboli, AF) which varies w posture symptoms typically due to effect of tumour obstructing normal flow of blood (SOBOE, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea, syncope)
140
diagnosis of cardiac myxoma?
echo
141
tx of cardiac myxoma?
excision
142
Causes of restrictive cardiomyopathy?
Sarcoid Systemic sclerosis Haemochromatosis Amyloidosis Primary: endomyocardial fibrosis Eosinophilia (Loffler's eosinophilic endocarditis) Neoplasia: carcinoid (-\> TR and PS)
143
Pathophysiology of HOCM?
LV outflow obstruction from asymmetrical septal hypertrophy Familial form AD inheritance B-myosin heavy chain mutation commonest
144
symptoms of HOCM?
Angina SOB Palpitations: AF, WPW, VT exertional syncope or sudden death
145
signs of HOCM?
jerky pulse double apex beat harsh ESM @ LLSE w systolic thrill S4
146
ix of HOCM
ECG: LVH/L axial deviation, ventricular ectopics/ VT echo exercise test +/- holter monitor to quantify risk
147
Mx of HOCM?
Medical: - ve inotropes: BB (2nd verapamil) amiodarone: arrhythmias anticoagulate if AF or emboli if severe symptoms: septal myomectomy consider ICD
148
causes of acute myocarditis?
Idiopathic (50%) viral: coxsackie B, flu, HIV Bacterial: S aureus, syphilis Drugs: Cyclophosphamide Autoimmune: giant cell myocarditis assoc w SLE
149
Ix of acute myocarditis?
Bloods: +ve troponin, raised CK ECG: ST elevation or depression T wave inversion transient AV block
150
Mx of acute myocarditis?
supportive tx cause
151
Causes of Cardiac Tamponade?
Accumulation of pericardial fluid -\> increased intra pericardial pressure -\> poor ventricular filling -\> decreased Cardiac output Any cause of pericarditis Aortic dissection Warfarin Trauma
152
Signs of cardiac tamponade?
Becks triad: Raised JVP, hypotension, muffled heart sounds Pulsus paradoxus: pulse fades on inspiration
153
Ix of cardiac tamponade?
ECG: low voltage QRS +/- electrical alternans CXR: large globular heart Echo: diagnostic, echo- free zone around heart
154
Mx of cardiac tamponade?
urgent pericardiocentesis - 20 ml syringe + long 18G cannula - generally done under ultrasound guidance - subxiphoid appraoch: under the xiphoid process, up and leftwards - parasternal approach: between 5th and 6th ICS at L sternal border - aspirate continuously and watch ECG tx cause send fluid for cytology, ZN stain and culture
155
Causes of Pericardial Effusion?
Acute pericarditis infection: viral, bacterial, fungal MI Dresslers
156
Ix of pericardial effusion?
CXR: enlarged globular heart ECG: low voltage QRS complexes, Alternating QRS amplitude (electrical alternans) Echo: echo free zone around heart
157
Clinical features of pericardial effusion?
Dyspnoea raised JVP (prominent X descent) Bronchial breathing @ L base - Ewart's sign: large effusion compresion LLL Signs of cardiac tamp present
158
Mx of pericardial effusion?
tx cause pericardiocentesis may be diagnostic or therapeutic: culture, ZN stain, cytology
159
Clinical features of constrictive pericarditis?
Heart encased in a rigid pericardium RHF w raised JVP Kussmaul's sign: raised JVP w inspiration Quiet HS S3 Hepatomegaly, ascites, oedema
160
Ix of Constrictive pericarditis?
CXR: small heart + pericardial calcification Echo Cardiac Catheterisation
161
Mx of constrictive pericarditis?
surgical excision
162
clinical features of acute pericarditis?
central chest pain: sharp, worse lying down, relieved by sitting forward, radiates to L shoulder, pleuritic pericardial friction rub Fever Signs of effusion/ tamponade
163
ix of acute pericarditis?
Bloods: FBC, ESR, Trop (may be raised), cultures, virology ECG: saddle shaped ST elevation +/- PR depression
164
causes of acute pericarditis?
Viral: coxsackie, flu, EBV, HIV bacterial: rheumatic fever, pneumonia, TB Fungal Post MI, Dressler's syndrome Drugs: penicillin, isoniazid, procainamide, hydralazine Other: uraemia, RA, SLE, Sarcoid, radiotx
165
Organism responsible for rheumatic fever?
Group A beta-haemolytic strep e.g. strep pyogenes
166
epidemiology of rheumatic fever?
5-15 yrs rare in West v common in developing world
167
pathophysiology of rheumatic fever?
Antibody cross reactivity following S pyogenes infection -\> Molecular mimicry abs vs myocardium ie. myosin, muscle glycogen and Smooth muscle cells Pathology: Aschoff bodies and Anitschkow myocytes
168
Revised Jones criteria for rheumatic fever for diagnosis?
Evidence of Group A strep infection + 2 major criteria or 1 major + 2 minor
169
Revised Jones criteria - what is considered evidence for group a strep infection?
Positive ASOT titre or DNase B titre +ve throat culture Rapid Strep Ag test Recent scarlet fever
170
What are the major criteria for the Revised Jones criteria for diagnosis of rheumatic fever?
need 2 major or 1 major + 2 minor PACES Pancarditis Arthritis subCutaneous nodules Erythema marginatum Sydenham's chorea
171
What are the minor criteria for the revised Jones criteria for diagnosis of Rheumatic fever?
need 2 minor criteria if only 1 major present Arthralgia (not if arthritis is major) Fever Raised ESR or CRP prolonged PR interval (not if carditis is cause) prev rheumatic fever
172
Features of Rheumatic Fever?
Pancarditis: pericarditis, myocarditis, endocarditis (MR, AR) Arthritis: migratory polyarthritis of large joints Subcut nodules: small mobile, painless nodules on extensor surfaces esp elbows Erythema marginatum Sydenhams chorea: due to damage of basal ganglia
173
Ix of rheumatic fever?
ASOT titre Strep antigen test FBC, ESR/ CRP Echo ECG
174
Mx of rheumatic fever?
bed rest until CRP normal for 2 weeks Benpen: 0.6- 1.2 mg IM for 10 days Analgesia: aspirin / NSAIDs Add oral prednisolone if CCF, cardiomegaly, 3rd degree HB Chorea: haloperidol
175
Secondary prophylaxis against Rheumatic fever?
indicated in those with carditis for 10 yrs after last attack or 25 yrs of age (whichever is longer) severe valvular disease/ surgery: lifelong Without proven carditis: for 5 yrs after last attack/ 18 yrs of age Pen V PO
176
prognosis of valves in rheumatic fever?
regurgitation -\> stenosis Mitral (70%) Atrial (40%) Tricuspid (10%) Pulmonary (2%)
177
pathophysiology of infective endocarditis?
cardiac valves develop vegetations composed of bacteria and platelet-fibrin thrombus
178
risk factors of infective endocarditis?
Faulty valves: prosthetic valves prev rheumatic fever degenerative valvuopathy Dental caries IVDU (tricuspid valve) Immunocompromised (ie DM)
179
Organisms causing Infective endocarditis?
Strep viridans - most common if subacute bacterial endocarditis Strep bovis- assoc w colon cancer Staph aureus - most common if acute, IVDU Strep epidermidis - prosthetic valves HACEK organisms
180
endocarditis assoc w SLE?
Libman Sacks endocarditis non bacterial mitral valve typically affected
181
General clinical features assoc w infective endocarditis?
FLAWS splenomegaly clubbing new/ changing murmur (Mitral regurg: 85%, AR: 55%)
182
what murmurs are most common with infective endocarditis?
mitral regurg (PSM) followed by aortic regurg
183
what embolic phenomena may occur in Infective endocarditis?
abscesses in brain, heart, kidney, spleen, gut and lung Janeway lesions: painless palmar macules Splinter haemorrhages: due to septic emboli from infected heart valves
184
What signs of immune complex deposition occur in Infective endocarditis?
microhaematuria due to GN Vasculitis Roth spots: boat shaped retinal haemorrhages w pale centre Osler's nodes: painful, purple papules on finger pulps
185
How is diagnosis of infective endocarditis confirmed?
Duke Criteria - 2 major - 1 major + 3 minor - All 5 minor
186
What are the Major criteria in Duke Criteria for Infective endocarditis?
1. +ve blood culture - typical organism in 2 separate cultures or - persistently +ve cultures e.g. 3, \>12 h apart 2. Endocardium involved - +ve echo - vegetation, abscess, valve dehiscence - new valvular regurgitation
187
What are the minor criteria of Duke criteria for infective endocarditis?
1. Predisposition: Cardiac lesion, IVDU 2. Fever \>38 3. Emboli: Septic infarcts, splinter haemorrhages, Janeway lesions 4. Immune phenomenon: GN, Osler nodes, Roth spots 5. +ve blood culture not meeting major criteria
188
Ix of Infective endocarditis?
Bloods: Anaemia, raised ESR/ CRP, +ve IgG RF, Cultures x 3 \>12 h apart, Serology for unusual organisms urine: microscopic haematuria ECG: AV block Echo: TOE most sensitive, TTE detects vegetations \> 2mm
189
mx of infective endocarditis? staph aureus
Flucloxacillin +/- Rifampicin IV
190
Empiric tx of acute severe infective endocarditis?
Flucloxacillin + Gentamicin IV
191
Empiric tx of subacute bacterial endocarditis?
Benpen + gent IV
192
Causes of tricuspid regurgitation?
Functional: RV dilatation Rheumatic fever Infective endocarditis Carcinoid syndrome
193
Pts with rheumatic fever are recommended bed rest until?
CRP normal for 2 weeks
194
what antibiotic regimen is used in rheumatic fever?
Benzylpenicillin 1.2g STAT IV then Penicillin V 250-500mg QDS PO for 10 days
195
symptoms of tricuspid regurgitation?
fatigue hepatic pain on exertion ascites, oedema
196
signs of tricuspid regurgitation?
raised JVP w giant V waves RV heave PSM loudest @ LLSE on inspiration (carvallo's sign) Pulsatile hepatomegaly Ascites, oedema
197
Ix of tricuspid regurgitation?
LFTs Echo
198
mx of tricuspid regurgitation?
Tx cause Medical: diuretics, ACEi, digoxin Surgical: valve replacement
199
causes of tricuspid stenosis?
rheumatic fever w Mitral valve and aortic valve disease
200
Symptoms of tricuspid stenosis?
fatigue ascites oedema
201
signs of tricuspid stenosis?
Large A waves opening snap EDM loudest at LLSE on inspiration
202
mx of tricuspid stenosis?
medical: diuretics Surgical: repair, replacement
203
causes of pulmonary regurgitation?
any cause of pulmonary HTN PR secondary to pulmonary HTN from mitral stenosis = Graham-Steell murmur
204
murmur of pulmonary regurgitation?
Decrescendo EDM @ ULSE
205
causes of pulmonary stenosis?
usually congenital: e.g. Turner's, Fallots rheumatic fever carcinoid syndrome
206
features of pulmonary stenosis?
dyspnoea, fatigue dysmorphia large A wave RV heave ejection click, soft P2 ascites, oedema ESM loudest at ULSE, radiating to L shoulder
207
Ix of pulmonary stenosis?
ECG: P pulmonale, Right Axis deviation, RBBB CXR: prominent pulmonary arteries: post stenotic dilatation Cardiac Catheterisation: diagnostic
208
Causes of mitral regurgitation?
mitral valve prolapse LV dilatation: AR, AS, HTN rheumatic fever Annular calcification -\> contraction (elderly) post MI: papillary muscle dysfunction/ rupture connective tissue: Marfans, Ehlers-Danlos
209
symptoms of mitral regurgitation?
dyspnoea, fatigue AF -\> palpitations + emboli Pulmonary congestion -\> HTN + oedema
210
signs of Mitral Regurgitation?
AF Left parasternal heave (RVH Apex: displaced -\> LV hypertrophy Heart Sounds: soft S1 Murmur: Blowing PSM best heard at apex, radiates to axilla, louder in left lateral position in end expiration
211
clinical indicators of severe Mitral regurg?
Lagrer Left ventricle Decompensation: LVF AF
212
ix of mitral regurgitation?
Bloods: FBC, U+E, glucose, lipids ECG: AF, P mitrale, LVH CXR: LA and LV hypertrophy, Mitral valve calcification, pulmonary oedema Echo: assess MR severity Cardiac catheterisation: confirm Dx, assess coronary artery disease
213
Mx of Mitral Regurgitation?
Medical: Refer to cardiologist for regular follow up w echo Optimise RFs: Statins, antihypertensives, DM AF: **rate control and anticoagulate** drugs to decrease afterload can help decrease symptoms: **ACEi or BB (esp carvedilol)** **Diuretics** Surgical: Valve replacement or repair
214
indications for surgical repair of mitral regurgitant valve?
severe symptomatic MR or severe asymptomatic MR w diastolic dysfunction: reduced ejection fraction
215
causes of Barlow Syndrome? ie. mitral valve prolapse
commonest valve problem ~ 5% primary: myxomatous degeneration MI marfans, ehlers danlos Turners
216
Features of MV prolapse/ Barlow Syndrome?
usually asymptomatic autonomic dysfunction: atypical chest pain, palpitations, anxiety, panic attack MR: fatigue, SOB Murmur
217
complications of Barlow Syndrome?
mitral regurgitation Cerebral emboli arrhythmias -\> sudden death
218
mx of Barlow Syndrome?
BB may relieve palpitations and chest pain Surgery if severe MR
219
Causes of mitral stenosis?
rheumatic fever prosthetic valve congenital (rare)
220
what medications are recommended for secondary prevention following an MI?
dual antiplatelet therapy: Aspirin 75 mg + Clopidogrel 75 mg angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor: e.g. lisinopril 2.5mg beta-blocker e.g. bisoprolol 1.25 mg OD statin e.g. atorvastatin 80mg
221
Causes of mitral regurg?
Mitral valve prolapse LV dilatation: AR, AS, HTN Annular calcification -\> contraction (elderly) post-MI: papillary muscle dysfunction/ rupture rheumatic fever connective tissue: marfans, Ehlers -Danlos
222
symptoms of mitral regurgitation?
SOB, fatigue AF -\> palpitations + emboli Pulmonary congestion -\> HTN + oedema
223
signs of mitral regurg?
AF left parasternal heave (RVH) apex: displaced (volume overload as ventricle has to pump forward SV and regurgitant volume) heart sounds: soft S1 + Blowing PSM at the apex, accentuated in Left lateral position in end expiration + radiates to the axilla
224
differentials of PSM loudest at mitral region?
Tricuspid regurg aortic stenosis VSD
225
clinical indicators of severe mitral regurg?
larger LV decompensation: LVF AF
226
ix of mitral regurgitation?
Bloods: FBC, U+E, glucose, lipids ECG: AF, P mitrale, LVH CXR: LA + LV hypertrophy, mitral valve calcification, pulmonary oedema Echo: Doppler echo to assess MR severity, TOE to assess severity and suitability of repair Cardiac Catheterisation: confirm Dx, assess coronary artery disease
227
What criteria is used to assess severity of MR on echo?
jet width \>0.6cm Systolic pulmonary flow reversal regurgitant flow volune \> 60ml
228
Mx of Mitral Regurg?
Conservative: monitor w regular follow up and echo **medical:** Optimised RFs: statins, anti-hypertensives, DM AF: rate control and anticoagulate Drugs to decrease afterload can help symptoms: ACEi or BB (esp Carvedilol), Diuretics **Surgical**: valve replacement or repair
229
indications for surgical mx of mitral regurgitation?
severe symptomatic MR severe asymptomatic MR w diastolic dysfunction: decreased ejection fraction
230
commonest valve problem?
mitral valve prolapse
231
causes of mitral valve prolapse?
primary: myxomatous degeneration Post-MI: papillary muscle rupture Marfans, Ehlers Danlos Turner's
232
symptoms of mitral valve prolapse?
usually asymptomatic autonomic dysfunction: atypical chest pain, palpitations, anxiety, panic attack MR: SOB, fatigue
233
mitral valve prolapse signs?
mid systolic click + late systolic murmur
234
complications of mitral valve prolapse?
MR cerebral emboli arrhythmias -\> sudden death
235
mx of mitral valve prolapse?
BB may relieve palpitations and chest pain surgery if severe
236
pathophysiology of mitral stenosis?
valve narrowing -\> ↑ left atrial pressure -\> loud S1 and atrial hypertrophy -\> AF pulmonary oedema and pulmonary HTN -\> RVH, TR, R heart failure
237
symptoms of mitral stenosis?
SOB, fatigue chest pain AF -\> palpitations + emboli haemoptysis: rupture of bronchial veins
238
signs of mitral stenosis?
AF Malar flush (back pressure) JVP raised Left parasternal heave (RVH 2º to Pulm HTN) tapping apex (palpable S1) HS: Loud S1, Loud P2 (if PHT), early diastolic opening snap + rumbling mid diastolic murmur in apex louder in Left lateral position in end expiration, radiates to the axilla
239
complications of Mitral stenosis?
pulmonary HTN emboli: TIA, CVA, PVD, ischaemic colitis Hoarseness: recurrent laryngeal n palsy dysphagia (oesophageal compression) bronchial obstruction
240
Ix of mitral stenosis?
Bloods: FBC, U+E, glucose, lipids ECG: AF, P mitrale, RVH w strain CXR: LA enlagement, pulmonary oedema (ABCDE), mitral valve calcification Echo: to assess severity, use TOE to look for left atrial thrombus if intervention considered Cardiac catheterisation: assess coronary arteries
241
what criteria would determine severe mitral stenosis on echo?
valve orifice \< 1cm2 pressure gradient \> 10 mmHg Pulmonary artery systolic pressure \> 50 mmHg
242
Mx of mitral stenosis?
Medical: optimise RFs: statins, anti-hypertensives, DM Regular followup w echo AF: anticoagulation and rate control Consider prophylaxis vs RF: Pen V diuretics provide symptomatic relief Surgical: indicated in mod-severe MS **percutaneous balloon valvuloplasty** valve repair valve replacement if repair not possible
243
what is the surgical tx of choice in Mitral stenosis?
Percutaneous mitral balloon Valvotomy (commissurotomy)
244
causes of aortic regurgitation?
**Acute** Infective endocarditis Type A aortic dissection **Chronic** Congenital: bicuspid aortic valve Rheumatic heart disease Connective tissue: Marfan’s, Ehler’s Danlos Autoimmune: Ank spond, RA
245
symptoms of aortic regurgitation?
LVF:
246
signs of aortic regurgitation?
collapsing pulse (corrigans pulse) wide pulse pressure Apex: displaced (volume overloaded) Heart sounds: soft/ absent S2 +/- S3 + Early diastolic murmur at URSE, sitting forward in end expiration +/- Ejection systolic flow murmur Underlying cause: high-arched palate spondyloarthropathy embolic phenomena Corrigans sign: Carotid pulsation de mussets: head nodding Quinckes: capillary pulsation in nail bed Traubes: pistol shot sound over femorals Austin Flint murmur: rumbling MDM @ apex due to regurgitant jet fluttering ant mitral valve cusp = severe AR Duroziez's: systolic murmur over the femoral artery w proximal compression, diastolic murmur w distal compression
247
clinical indicators of severe AR?
wide PP and collapsing pulse S3 long murmur austin flint murmur decompensation: LVF
248
Ix of aortic regurgitation?
Bloods: FBC, U+E, Lipids, glucose ECG: LVH (S1 + R6 \>35mm) CXR: cardiomegaly, dilated ascending aorta, pulmonary oedema Echo: assess severity of aortic regurg, aortic valve structure and morphology (e.g. bicuspid), evidence of Infective endocarditis (vegetations), LV function: ejection fraction Cardiac catheterization: coronary artery disease
249
what are the criteria to assess severity of aortic regurg on echo?
Jet width (\>65% outflow tract = severe) Regurgitant jet volume premature closure of mitral valve
250
mx of aortic regurgitation?
Medical: optimise Risk factors: anti-hypertensives, statins, DM monitor w regular follow up + echo decrease systolic HTN: ACEi, CCB (decrease afterload -\> decrease regurg) Surgery: aortic valve replacement
251
when is aortic valve replacement indicated?
in severe AR if symptoms of HF asymptomatic w LV dysfunction: low ejection fraction
252
e.g.s of thrombolytics?
alteplase tenecteplase streptokinase
253
how do thrombolytics work?
Thrombolytic drugs activate plasminogen -\> plasmin. This in turn degrades fibrin and help breaks up thrombi. They in primarily used in patients who present with a STEMI. Other indications include acute ischaemic stroke and pulmonary embolism, although strict inclusion criteria apply.
254
contraindications to thrombolysis?
active internal bleeding recent haemorrhage, trauma or surgery (including dental extraction) coagulation and bleeding disorders intracranial neoplasm stroke \< 3 months aortic dissection recent head injury pregnancy severe hypertension
255
side effects of thrombolysis?
haemorrhage hypotension - more common with streptokinase allergic reactions may occur with streptokinase
256
Ix to confirm diagnosis of HTN?
both ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) measure BP in both arms: If the difference in readings between arms is \> 20 -\> measurements should be repeated. If difference remains \> 20 then subsequent blood pressures should be recorded from the arm with the higher reading.
257
classification of HTN?
Stage 1: Clinic BP \>= 140/90 and subsequent ABPM daytime average or HBPM average BP \>= 135/85 mmHg Stage 2: Clinic BP \>= 160/100 mmHg and subsequent ABPM daytime average or HBPM average BP \>= 150/95 mmHg Severe HTN: Clinic systolic BP \>= 180 mmHg, or clinic diastolic BP \>= 110 mmHg Malignant: BP \> 180/110 + papilloedema and/or retinal haemorrhage
258
what is isolated systolic HTN?
SBP ≥140, DBP \<90
259
what is Ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM)?
at least 2 measurements per hour during the person's usual waking hours (for example, between 08:00 and 22:00) use the average value of at least 14 measurements
260
what is Home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM)?
for each BP recording, two consecutive measurements need to be taken, at least 1 minute apart and with the person seated BP should be recorded twice daily, ideally in the morning and evening BP should be recorded for at least 4 days, ideally for 7 days discard the measurements taken on the first day and use the average value of all the remaining measurements
261
mx if BP \>180/110 in clinic?
immediate treatment should be considered if there are signs of papilloedema or retinal haemorrhages -\> same day assessment by a specialist NICE also recommend referral if a phaeochromocytoma is suspected (labile or postural hypotension, headache, palpitations, pallor and diaphoresis)
262
causes of aortic stenosis?
degenerative calcification (most common cause in older patients \> 65 years) bicuspid aortic valve (most common cause in younger patients \< 65 years) William's syndrome (supravalvular aortic stenosis) post-rheumatic disease subvalvular: HOCM
263
Clinical features of symptomatic disease of aortic stenosis?
chest pain dyspnoea syncope
264
Features of severe aortic stenosis?
narrow pulse pressure slow rising pulse delayed ESM soft/absent S2 S4 thrill duration of murmur left ventricular hypertrophy or failure
265
signs of aortic stenosis?
slow rising pulse w narrow Pulse pressure aortic thrill apex: forceful, non-displaced (pressure overload) heart sounds: Quiet A2, early syst ejection click if pliable (young) valve +/- S4 Murmur: ESM @ right 2nd ICS, sitting forward in end expiration, radiates to carotids
266
aortic stenosis vs aortic sclerosis?
aortic stenosis: valve narrowing due to fusion of the commissures narrow PP, slow rising pulse forceful apex ESM radiating -\> carotids ECG: LVF aortic sclerosis: valve thickening ESM w no radiation
267
differential for aortic stenosis?
Mitral regurg coronary artery disease aortic sclerosis HOCM: ESM murmur which increases in intensity w valsalva
268
Ix of Aortic Stenosis?
Bloods: FBC, u+E, glucose, lipids ECG: LVH, LV strain, LBBB or complete AV block (septal calcification) -\> may need pacing CXR: LVH, calcified Aortic valve, evidence of heart failure, post-stenotic aortic dilatation Echo + doppler: diagnostic - thickened, calcified, immobile valve cusps - assess severity of AS Cardiac catheterisation + angiography: can assess LV function, valve gradient assess coronaries in all pts planned for surgery Exercise stress test: contraindicated if symptomatic may be useful to assess exercise capacity in asympto pts
269
what is the criteria to assess severity of aortic stenosis on echo?
pressure gradient \> 40 mmHg jet velocity \>4m/s Valve area \<1 cm2
270
Mx of aortic stenosis?
**medical**: regular follow ups w echo optimise risk factors: statins, anti-hypertensives, DM Angina: BB Heart failure: ACEi, diuretics Avoid nitrates Surgical: Valve replacement Options for unfit pts: TAVI - transcatheter aortic valve implantation, balloon valvuloplasty
271
indications for valve replacement in aortic stenosis?
severe asymptomatic AS severe asymptomatic AS w decreased ejection fraction (\<50%) severe AS undergoing CABG or other valve op \*poor prognosis if symptomatic: - angina/ syncope: 2-3 yrs - LVF: 1-2 yrs
272
what are the differences between prosthetic and mechanical valves?
mechanical last longer but need anticoagulation: younger pts prosthetic valves do not require anticoagulation but fail sooner
273
when is a TAVI indicated?
used in aortic stenosis - for unfit patients not suitable for valve replacement folded valve deployed in aortic root
274
adverse effects of statins?
myopathy: includes myalgia, myositis, rhabdomyolysis and asymptomatic raised creatine kinase. liver impairment: the 2014 NICE guidelines recommend checking LFTs at baseline, 3 months and 12 months. Treatment should be discontinued if serum transaminase concentrations rise to and persist at 3 times the upper limit of the reference range some evidence that statins may increase the risk of intracerebral haemorrhage in patients who've previously had a stroke
275
causes of HTN?
Primary: 95% Renal: RAS, GN, APKD Endo: Cushings, phaeo, acromegaly, Conns, thyrotoxicosis Drugs: cocaine, NSAIDs, OCP Coarctation of aorta
276
end organ damage due to HTN?
CANER Cardiac: Ischaemic heart disease, LVH -\> CCF, AR, MR Aortic: dissection, aneurysm Neuro: CVA: ischaemic, haemorrhagic, encephalopathy (malignant HTN) Eyes: hypertensive retinopathy renal: proteinuira, chronic renal failure
277
ix of HTN?
24h ABPM (for dx) urine: haematuria, Alb:Cr ratio bloods: FBC, U+Es, eGFR, glucose, lipids 12 lead ECG: LVH, old infarct calculate 10 yr CV risk
278
treatment ladder for antihypertensives?
\<55: start with ACEi (or ARB) e.g. lisinopril (or candesartan) \>55 or afrocarribean: start with CCB (e.g. nifedipine/ amlodipine) step 2: ACEi + CCB step 3: add thiazide diuretic (e.g. chlorthalidone or indapamide) step 4: * consider further diuretic treatment * if potassium \< 4.5 mmol/l add spironolactone 25mg od * if potassium \> 4.5 mmol/l add higher-dose thiazide-like diuretic treatment * if further diuretic therapy is not tolerated, or is contraindicated or ineffective, consider an alpha- or beta-blocker Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist.
279
Blood pressure targets in clinic?
Age \>80: 150/90 age \<80: 140/90
280
blood pressure targets for ABPM/ HBPM?
age \>80: 145/85 age \<80: 135/85
281
options for pts who are intolerant of established antihypertensive drugs?
direct renin inhibitors e.g. Aliskiren by inhibiting renin blocks the conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I -\> reduces BP
282
CTPA vs V/Q scan?
CTPA is imaging of choice if CTPA -ve -\> pts do not need further ix or tx for PE V/Q scan may be used instead if pt has allergy to contrast media or renal impairment. and may be used initially if CXR is normal, and no significant symptomatic concurrent cardiopulmonary disease
283
Large saddle embolus straddling the main pulmonary artery bifurcation CT pulmonary angiogram -\> PE
284
e.g. of thiazide like diuretic used in step 3 of HTN?
chlortalidone 25-50mg OD indapamide
285
what is the gold standard ix for PE?
Pulmonary angiography CT
286
Indications for pharmacological tx of HTN?
\<80 yo: Stage I HTN + - target organ damage - 10yr CV risk \>20% - established CVD - DM - renal disease anyone w stage 2 HTN (\>160/100) severe/ malignant HTN (specialist referral) consider specialist opinion if \<40 yrs w stage I HTN and no end organ damage
287
Mx of HTN?
Conservative: lifestyle interventions- exercise, decrease smoking/ alcohol/ salt/ caffeine Medical: ACEi / CCB (if \>55 or afrocarribean) Statins for pirmary prevention of CVD aspirin may be indicated: evaluate risk of bleeding
288
mx of malignant HTN?
controlled decrease in BP over days to avoid stroke atenolol or long acting CCB PO encephalopathy/ CCF: frusemide + nitroprusside / labetalol IV - aim to decrease BP to 110 diastolic over 4 h - nitroprusside requires intral arterial BP monitoring
289
definition of cardiogenic shock??
inadequate tissue perfusion primarily due to pump failure
290
causes of cardiogenic shock?
Infarction: MI Electrolytes: HyperK Infection: endocarditis arrhythmias aortic dissection Obstructive: tension pneumo, massive PE
291
mx of cardiogenic shock?
A-\> E approach Oxygen: 15L via non rebreather mask IV access + monitor ECG (bloods for U+E, troponin, ABG) Diamorphine 2.5-5mg IV + metoclopramide 10mg IV Correct any electrolyte disturbance, arrhythmias, acid-base abnormalities Ix: CXR, Echo, CT thorax (PE/ dissection) consider need for dobutamine tx underlying cause
292
causes of pulmonary oedema?
cardiogenic: MI arrhythmia fluid overload: renal, iatrogenic non-cardiogenic: ARDS: sepsis, post op, trauma Upper airway obstruction neurogenic: head injury
293
Mx of severe pulmonary oedema?
A-\> E approach sit pt up O2 via 15L nonrebreather mask IV access + monitor ECG (bloods for U+E, troponin, BNP, ABG) -\> tx any arrhythmias Morphine 5mg IV + metoclopramide 10mg IV Frusemide 40-80mg IV GTN tabs sublingual or nitrate IVI (unless SBP \< 90) if worsening, consider: CPAP more frusemide or increase nitrate infusion haemofiltration/ dialysis if SBP \<100: tx as cardiogenic shock consider inotropes (dobutamine)
294
role of morphine in pulmonary oedema?
make pt more comfortable pulmonary venodilators -\> decrease pre load -\> optimise position on starling curve
295
continuing therapy for pts w severe pulmonary oedema after acute mx
daily weights DVT prophylaxis repeat CXR change to oral frusemide/ bumetanide ACEi + BB if HF consider spironolactone consider digoxin +/- warfarin (esp if in AF)
296
how long should pts be anticoagulated for after a PE?
LMWH or fondaparinux initially (unless thrombolysed) Warfarin within 24h of diagnosis and continued for at least 3 months - if unprovoked PE: 6 months or longer - if pt w active cancer: LMWH for 6 months
297
mx of stable angina?
conservative: lifestyle changes medical: optimise RFs, antihypertensives, statins, aspirin Sublingual GTN to abort angina attacks 1st line- BB or CCB (rate limiting one e.g. verapamil or diltiazem) 2nd: BB + CCB (then use long acting CCB e.g. modified release nifedipine) Interventional: Percutaneous coronary intervention Surgery: CABG
298
can BB be prescribed w verapamil?
no. risk of complete heart block!! verapamil - rate limiting CCB If giving BB + CCB in angina -\> use long acting dihydropyridine CCB e.g. modified release nifedipine
299
Which one of the following types of anti-anginal medication do patients commonly develop tolerance to?
standard release isosorbibe mononitrate (not seen in modified release) - develop tolerance and reduced efficacy the BNF advises that patients who develop tolerance should take the second dose of isosorbide mononitrate after 8 hours, rather than after 12 hours. This allows blood-nitrate levels to fall for 4 hours and maintains effectiveness
300
pt who requires anticoagulation but do not want regular monitoring?
consider NOACs e.g. rivaroxaban
301
What mutation leads to hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy?
usually due to mutation of gene encoding B-myosin heavy chain protein common cause of sudden death
302
echo findings of HOCM?
mitral regurg systolic anterior motion of the anterior mitral valve asymmetric septal hypertrophy
303
what is arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia?
R ventricular myocardium is replaced by fatty and fibrofatty tissue ~50% of pts have mutation of one the genes that encode desmosome ECG abnormalities in V1-3, typically T wave inversion. An epsilon wave is found in about 50% of those with ARV - this is best described as a terminal notch in the QRS complex
304
types of cardiomyopathies?
genetic: both auto dom - implantable cardioverter-defibrillator often inserted to reduce incidence of sudden cardiac death 1. HOCM 2. Arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia mixed: genetic predisposition which is triggered by a secondary process 1. dilated cardiomyopathy 2. restrictive cardiomyopathy acquired: 1. peripartum cardiomyopathy 2. Takotsubo cardiomyopathy Secondary - pathological myocardial involvement as part of generalized systemic disorder infective, infiltrative, inflammatory, neuromuscular, autoimmune, storage etc
305
causes of dilated cardiomyopathy?
genetic predisposition to cardiomyopathy which is then triggered by the secondary process Classically: - alcohol - Coxsackie B virus - wet beri beri - doxorubicin
306
causes of restrictive cardiomyopathy?
genetic predisposition to cardiomyopathy which is then triggered by the secondary process classically: amyloidosis post-radiotx Loeffler's endocarditis
307
what is peripartum cardiomyopathy?
typically during last month of pregnancy - 5 months post partum
308
what is Takotsubo cardiomyopathy?
'Stress'-induced cardiomyopathy e.g. patient just found out family member dies then develops chest pain and features of heart failure Transient, apical ballooning of the myocardium (Takotsubo = jap for octopus trap) ST elevation + normal coronary angiogram Treatment is supportive
309
E.g.s of secondary cardiomyopathies?
infective: coxsackie B virus, Chagas disease infiltrative: amyloidosis storage: haemochromatosis toxicity: doxorubicin, alcoholic cardiomyopathy inflammatory: sarcoidosis endocrine: DM, thyrotoxicosis, acromegaly neuromuscular: Friedreichs ataxia, duchenne muscular dystrophy, myotonic dystrophy Nutritional deficiencies: beriberi (thiamine) autoimmune; SLE
310
if drug therapy fails in managing ventricular tachycardia?
electrophysiological study implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) - particularly indicated in pts w significantly impaired LV fn
311
when is adrenaline given during a VF/VT cardiac arrest?
adrenaline 1 mg given once chest compressions have restarted after the third shock and then every 3-5 mins
312
scale for determining intensity of murmur?
The Levine Scale: ## Footnote Grade 1 - Very faint murmur, frequently overlooked Grade 2 - Slight murmur Grade 3 - Moderate murmur without palpable thrill Grade 4 - Loud murmur with palpable thrill Grade 5 - Very loud murmur with extremely palpable thrill. Can be heard with stethoscope edge Grade 6 - Extremely loud murmur - can be heard without stethoscope touching the chest wall
313
what causes a late systolic murmur?
mitral valve prolapse coarctation of aorta
314
early diastolic murmur?
aortic regurg (high pitched and blowing in character) Graham-Steel murmur (pulm regurg)
315
mid late diastolic murmur?
mitral stenosis austin-flint murmur- severe aortic regurg
316
continuous machine like murmur?
patent ductus arteriosus
317
Monitoring of pts taking amiodarone prior to starting treatment?
TFTs: risk of thyrotoxicosis LFTs U+Es: low K+ CXR: risk of pulmonary fibrosis/ pneumonitis
318
long term monitoring of pts taking amiodarone?
TFT, LFT every 6 months
319
how does amiodarone work?
blocks K+ channels which inhibits repolarisation and hence prolongs Action potential - long half life - should be given into central veins (causes thrombophlebitis) - proarrhythmic effects due to lengthening of QT interval
320
adverse effects of amiodarone use?
thyroid dysfunction: hypo + hyperthyroid eyes: corneal deposits, photosensitivity pulm fibrosis/ pneumonitis liver fibrosis/ hepatitis peripheral neuropathy, myopathy slate grey appearance lengthens QT interval, bradycardia
321
cardioversion of paroxysmal AF?
if haemodynamically unstable: electrical cardioversion pharmacological: amiodarone, flecainide (if no structural heart disease)
322
can adenosine be administered through small peripheral vein?
no Adenosine half-life is less than 10 seconds and therefore, a central route or large-calibre vein is required to administer adenosine effectively. BNF: For rapid intravenous injection give over 2s into central or large peripheral vein followed by rapid Sodium Chloride 0.9% flush; injection solution may be diluted with Sodium Chloride 0.9% if required.
323
what is adenosine enhanced/ blocked by?
enhanced by dipyridamole (anti-platelet) blocked by theophyllines avoided in asthmatics due to possible bronchospasm
324
complete heart block after MI - which artery is affected?
Right coronary artery AV node is supplied by the posterior interventricular artery, which in the majority of patients is a branch of the right coronary artery.
325
common side effects of thiazide diuretics?
dehydration postural hypotension hypoNa, hypoK, hyperCa\* gout impaired glucose tolerance impotence
326
A 65-year-old patient with a known history of stable angina is presented to his GP with poor control of his symptoms. He is taking atenolol for the angina. The patient's allergy notes indicate that he had developed ankle oedema when tried on nifedipine in the past for hypertension. According to NICE guidelines, which of the following drugs can be added to help control his symptoms?
if a patient is on monotherapy and cannot tolerate the addition of a CCB or a BB then consider one of the following drugs: a long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil or ranolazine
327
1st line tx in bradycardia w signs of haemodynamic compromise?
Atropine If this fails to work, or there is the potential risk of asystole then transvenous pacing is indicated
328
causes of prolonged QT interval?
Congenital: Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome Romano-Ward Syndrome Drugs: amiodarone, sotalol, class 1a antiarrhythmic drugs TCAs chloroquine erythromycin Electrolytes: hypoCa, hypoK, hypoMg acute MI, myocarditis hypothermia subarachnoid haemorrhage
329
Type B dissection, seen in descending aorta mx: conservative management bed rest reduce blood pressure IV labetalol to prevent progression
330
Type A Aortic Dissection seen in ascending aorta mx: surgical management, but BP should be controlled to a target systolic of 100-120 mmHg whilst awaiting intervention
331
Mx of Type 1 HTN?
only treat medically if: diabetic, renal disease, QRISK2 \>20%, established coronary vascular disease, or end organ damage lifestyle advice: low salt diet, decrease caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less, exercise more, lose weight if QRISK2 10-20% -\> offer statin therapy
332
Causes of RBBB?
normal variant - more common with increasing age right ventricular hypertrophy chronically increased right ventricular pressure - e.g. cor pulmonale pulmonary embolism myocardial infarction atrial septal defect (ostium secundum) cardiomyopathy or myocarditis
333
most common cause of death following an MI?
VF -\>cardiac arrest/ arrhythmias
334
complications of MI?
immediate: cardiac arrest (VF) cardiogenic shock bradyarrhythmias (AV block) early: pericarditis rupture of interventricular seputm -\> VSD acute mitral regurg due to papillary muscle rupture late: Dressler's syndrome (2-6 wks) chronic heart failure L ventricular aneurysm L ventricular free wall rupture
335
mx of acute mitral regurg due to papillary muscle rupture after MI?
vasodilator therapy often require emergency surgical repair
336
Mx of rupture of interventricular septum following MI?
rupture -\> VSD features: acute HF w pan systolic murmur echo is diagnostic urgen surgical correction needed
337
mx of left ventricular aneurysm following MI?
ischaemic damage sustained may weaken the myocardium resulting in aneurysm formation -\> persistent ST elevation and LV failure thrombus may form in the aneurysm and increase risk of stroke Pts should be anticoagulated
338
mx of Dressler's syndrome?
NSAIDs or prolonged course of colchicine or steroids
339
mx of chronic heart failure following MI?
Loop diuretics such as furosemide decrease fluid overload ACEi and BBs improve long term prognosis
340
mx of left ventricular free wall rupture following MI?
Patients present with acute heart failure secondary to cardiac tamponade (raised JVP, pulsus paradoxus, diminished heart sounds) urgent pericardiocentesis and thoracotomy needed
341
mx of pt w chest pain in last 12 hrs (now settled) w an abnormal ECG?
emergency admission
342
mx of pt w chest pain 12-72h ago?
refer to hospital for same day assessment
343
features of Atrial septal defect?
ejection systolic murmur, fixed splitting of S2 embolism may pass from venous system to left side of heart causing a stroke ostium secundum ECG: RBBB w RAD
344
what statin dose is used for secondary prevention? prev IHD/ CVD/ PAD
Atorvastatin 80mg OD
345
what dose of statin is used for primary prevention? ie chronic kidney disease, T1DM, 10yr CV risk \>10%
Atorvastatin 20mg OD | (can titrate up after)
346
what protein is affected in Marfans?
fibrillin-1 auto dom connective tissue disorder defect in the FBN1 gene
347
SEs of Beta blockers?
bronchospasm cold peripheries fatigue sleep disturbances, including nightmares erectile dysfunction
348
Contraindications of beta blockers?
uncontrolled heart failure asthma sick sinus syndrome concurrent verapamil use: may precipitate severe bradycardia
349
ECG changes seen in hypothermia?
bradycardia 'J' wave - small hump at the end of the QRS complex first degree heart block long QT interval atrial and ventricular arrhythmias
350
Why are AF patients only cardioverted when its new onset \<48h or anticoagulated for 3 wks beforehand?
the moment a patient switches from AF to sinus rhythm presents the highest risk for embolism leading to stroke. Imagine the thrombus formed in the fibrillating atrium suddenly being pushed out when sinus rhythm is restored. For this reason patients must either have had a short duration of symptoms (less than 48 hours) or be anticoagulated for a period of time prior to attempting cardioversion.
351
what scenarios would u choose to rhythm control AF instead of rate control?
Use rhythm control to treat AF if there is coexistent heart failure, first onset AF or an obvious reversible cause e.g. amiodarone Immediate DC cardioversion is only recommended when there is life-threatening haemodynamic instability caused by new-onset atrial fibrillation.
352
which valve is most commonly affected by IE in IVDU?
Tricuspid
353
most common organism causing infective endocarditis?
staph aureus
354
coarctation of aorta assoc w?
Turner's syndrome bicuspid aortic valve berry aneurysms neurofibromatosis
355
causes of postural hypotension?
hypovolaemia autonomic dysfunction: diabetes, Parkinson's drugs: diuretics, antihypertensives, L-dopa, phenothiazines, antidepressants, sedatives alcohol
356
long term antiplatelets after Peripheral arterial disease?
1st line: lifelong clopidogrel 2nd: lifelong aspirin
357
long term antiplatelets after ischaemic stroke?
1st line: lifelong clopidogrel 2nd line: lifelong aspirin + dipyridamole
358
long term antiplatelet therapy after TIA?
1st line: lifelong clopidogrel 2nd line: lifelong aspirin + dipyridamole
359
long term antiplatelet therapy after Percutaneous coronary intervention?
1st line: Aspirin (lifelong) & prasurgrel or ticagrelor (12 months) 2nd line: lifelong clopidogrel
360
long term antiplatelets after acute coronary syndrome (medically treated)?
1st line: Aspirin (lifelong) & ticagrelor (12 months) 2nd line: lifelong clopidogrel
361
Patients on warfarin undergoing emergency surgery?
give four-factor prothrombin complex concentrate If surgery can wait for 6-8 hours - give 5 mg vitamin K IV
362
causes of cardiac syncope?
arrhythmias: bradycardias (sinus node dysfunction, AV conduction disorders) or tachycardias (supraventricular, ventricular) structural: valvular, MI, HOCM others: PE
363
causes of orthostatic syncope?
primary autonomic failure: Parkinson's, Lewy body dementia secondary autonomic failure: e.g. Diabetic neuropathy, amyloidosis, uraemia drug-induced: diuretics, alcohol, vasodilators volume depletion: haemorrhage, diarrhoea
364
causes of reflex syncope?
vasovagal: triggered by emotion, pain or stress. Often referred to as 'fainting' situational: cough, micturition, gastrointestinal carotid sinus syncope
365
evaluation of pt with syncope?
cardiovascular examination postural blood pressure readings: a symptomatic fall in systolic BP \> 20 mmHg or diastolic BP \> 10 mmHg or decrease in systolic BP \< 90 mmHg is considered diagnostic ECG carotid sinus massage tilt table test 24 hour ECG
366
What is the pulse like in Severe Left HF?
Pulsus alternans: regular alternation of the force of the arterial pulse (strong-weak-strong-weak)
367
diagnostic test of choice for cardiac tamponade?
echocardiogram
368
Mx of chronic limb ischaemia?
**Non-surgical:** - CV risk factor control - Antiplatelet agents - Analgesia - Graded exercise programs: walk through pain **Interventional:** Angioplasty ± stenting * *Surgical:** - Reconstruction - Endarterectomy - Amputation
369
Mx of acute limb ischaemia?
**Resus**: NBM, hydration, analgesia **UH IVI**: prevent thrombus extension **Angiography**: only if incomplete occlusion **Surgery** - Embolectomy w Fogarty catheter - Emergency reconstruction **Treat cause** - e.g. warfarinise - Mx CV risk
370
SEs of GTN?
hypotension tachycardia headaches flushing
371
Statins + erythromycin/clarithromycin -??
statin-induced myopathy
372
Mx of Long QT syndrome?
beta-blockers\*\*\* implantable cardioverter defibrillators in high risk cases \*\*\*not sotalol
373
when should a gpIIb./IIIa receptor antagonist be used in STEMI?
e.g. eptifibatide or tirofiban should be given to patients who have an intermediate - high risk of adverse CV events, and who are scheduled to undergo angiography within 96 hours of hospital admission. (ie. PCI)
374
What dose of adrenaline should be given during a cardiac arrest?
1mg
375
what are Ticagrelor and prasugrel?
now the preferred second antiplatelet instead of clopidogrel
376
What is the dose of hydrocortisone administered in anaphylaxis?
200mg
377
What is the dose of adrenaline administered in anaphylaxis?
0.5 ml 1:1000 or 500 mcg
378
What is the dose of chlorphenamine administered in anaphylaxis?
10mg
379
If unsure of anaphylaxis, what ix can be used to confirm?
Serum tryptase levels remain elevated for up to 12h following an acute episode of anaphylaxis.
380
Mx of Aortic stenosis general rules?
if asymptomatic -\> conservative if symptomatic -\> valve replacement if asymptomatic but valve gradient \>40mmHg and features of LV systolic dysfn -\> consider surgery Critical AS not fit for valve replacement -\> balloon valvuloplasty
381
An elderly man with aortic stenosis is assessed. Which one of the following would make the ejection systolic murmur quieter?
Left ventricular systolic dysfunction will result in a decreased flow-rate across the aortic valve and hence a quieter murmur.
382
Apart from clopidogrel, what other antiplatelets can be added to aspirin post-MI?
ticagrelor and prasugrel (also ADP-receptor inhibitors) stop the second antiplatelet after 12 months
383
What mx for patients who have had an acute MI and who have symptoms and/or signs of heart failure and left ventricular systolic dysfunction?
treatment with an aldosterone antagonist licensed for post-MI treatment (e.g. eplerenone) should be initiated within 3-14 days of the MI, preferably after ACE inhibitor therapy
384
what diuretic increases risk of gout?
Thiazide diuretics reduce uric acid excretion from the kidneys
385
ECG finding of hyperCa?
Shortening of QT interval
386
Heart failure medical mx?
1st: ACEi + BB 2nd: aldosterone antagonist, ARB or hydralazine + nitrate 3rd: cardiac resynchronisation therapy or digoxin or ivabradine \*\*diuretics should be given for fluid overload
387
normal corrected QT interval?
\< 430 ms in males and 450 ms in females.
388
congenital causes of a prolonged QT interval?
Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome (includes deafness) Romano-Ward syndrome (no deafness)
389
Drugs that cause Long QT syndrome?
amiodarone, sotalol TCAs, SSRIs (esp citalopram) erythromycin haloperidol
390
causes of long QT syndrome?
electrolyte: hypoCa, hypoK, hypoMg MI myocarditis hypothermia subarachnoid haemorrhage
391
Mx of Long QT syndrome?
avoid drugs which prolong the QT interval and other precipitants if appropriate (e.g. Strenuous exercise) BBs ICD in high risk cases
392
monitoring of pts taking amiodarone?
TFT, LFT, U&E, CXR prior to treatment TFT, LFT every 6 months