Infectious Diseases Flashcards

(260 cards)

1
Q

TB Meningitis Tx

A

Rifampicin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol for 2 months

R + I for 10 more months

+/- dexamethasone

+/- fludrocortisone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

side effects of ethambutol

A

optic neuritis

AVOID if renal impairment (CrCl 10-50ml/min)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

side effects of pyrazinamide

A

hepatitis

arthralgia

contraindicated in gout, porphyria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

side effects of rifampicin

A

orange secretions

enzyme (CYP450) induction

hepatitis

if renal impairment-> reduce rifampicin dose by 50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

side effects of isoniazid

A

hepatitis

peripheral sensory neuropathy

(can give Vit B6 - pyridoxine alongside)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

tx for latent TB

A

Rifampicin + Isoniazid for 3 months

or

Isoniazid alone for 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

hypopigmented, insensate plaques

trophic ulcers

thickened nerves

keratitis

A

mycobacterium leprae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

pauci vs multibacillary leprosy

  • what is the difference?
A

Pauci: 2-5 spots

Multi: >5 spots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

tx of lepromatous leprosy

(mycobacterium leprae)

A

tx for 2 years

rifampicin monthly

clofazamine + dapsone daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

tuberculoid vs lepromatous leprosy

  • who develops lepromatous leprosy?
A

failure of Th1 cell activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

tx of tuberculoid leprosy?

A

6 month tx

rifampicin monthly

clofazamine daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

mycobacterium avium intracellulare (MAI)

  • who is affected?
A

usually HIV patients / any immunosuppressed

CD4 <100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

symptoms of MAI (mycobacterium avium intracellulare) complicating HIV infection

A

widely disseminated disease: lungs/ GIT

fever, night sweats, weight loss

diarrhoea

hepatomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

in immunocompromised host,

begins as a painless dermal papule or subcutaneous edematous nodule, which, over a period of weeks to months, breaks down to form an extensive necrotic ulcer with undermined edges

A

Buruli Ulcer

mycobacterium ulcerans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

buruli ulcer

which organism?

A

mycobacterium ulcerans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

fish tank granuloma

what organism?

A

mycobacterium marinum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

oral neuraminidase inhibitor

against Influenza A and B

A

Oseltamivir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

inhaled neuraminidase inhibitor

against Influenza A and B

A

Zanamivir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how does HIV seroconversion present?

A

transient illness 2-6 wks after exposure

fever, malaise, myalgia, pharyngitis, macpap rash

sore throat, lymphadenopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Dx of HIV?

A

HIV PCR

p24 antigen tests: usually +ve wk1 - wk3/4

screening ELISA- for serum anti-HIV Abs

confirmatory Western Blot: HIV Abs (95% by 4-6 wks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Monitoring of HIV

using?

A

CD4 count

Viral Load (HIV RNA)

FBC, U+Es, LFTs, lipids, glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Ix of suspected HIV?

A

HIV diagnostic tests

Drug resistance studies

Mantoux test

Serology: CMV, toxo, HBV, HCV, syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

CD4<50 - prophylaxis against MAI?

A

azithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

HIV CD4 <100: prophylaxis against toxoplasmosis?

A

co-trimoxazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
HIV + CD4 \<200: prophylaxis against PCP
co-trimoxazole
26
Diagnosing TB in HIV pts problems?
higher false -ve skin tests higher false -ve sputum cultures
27
presentation of PCP?
dry cough exertional dyspnoea fever desaturation on exercise
28
CXR signs of PCP?
bilateral perihilar interstitial shadowing may be normal
29
CMV in HIV patients causes?
CMV retinitis + pneumonitis, colitis, hepatitis
30
Tx for CMV retinitis in HIV pt
Ganciclovir
31
signs of CMV retinitis
decreased visual acuity eye pain photophobia pizza sign on fundoscopy
32
CT/MRI head findings of toxoplasmosis
ring shaped contrast enhancing lesions
33
tx of toxoplasmosis in HIV pts
pyrimethamine + sulfadiazine + folate
34
presentation of toxoplasmosis in HIV Pts
posterior uveitis encephalitis focal neurology
35
tx for oral candidiasis?
nystatin suspension
36
tx of oesophageal candidiasis
PO itraconazole
37
presentation of oesophageal candidiasis?
dysphagia retrosternal pain
38
Ix for suspected cryptococcal meningitis?
India Ink CSF stain Raised CSF pressure CrAg in blood and CSF
39
What virus causes progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy?
JC virus
40
Tx of cryptococcal meningitis
Amphotericin B + Flucytosine for 2 wks then Fluclonazole for 6 months/ until CD4 count \>200
41
Ix of suspected PML?
JC viral PCR
42
HIV patient with Weakness, paralysis, visual loss, cognitive decline. you suspect a demyelinating inflammation of brain white matter
Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy caused by JC virus
43
Mx of PML in HIV pt
HAART
44
benign recurrent aseptic meningitis?
mollaret's meningitis mostly HSV-2
45
Ix of herpes encephalitis
CSF findings: high lymphocytes CSF PCR MRI head
46
herpes infection painful red finger
herpetic whitlow mx: topical aciclovir
47
genital herpes -\> urinary retention + sacral sensory loss
Elsberg Syndrome HSV-2 Sacral radiculiltis
48
Complications of chicken pox
pneumonitis encephalitis hepatitis haemorrhage increased risk in immunocompromised/ pregnancy
49
complications of shingles
post-herpetic neuralgia (severe dermatomal pain) Ramsay Hunt Syndrome (Facial palsy, vesicles in ear, decreased taste/ hearing)
50
starry sky appearance t(8;14) c-myc jaw or abdo mass
Burkitt's lymphoma
51
what cells does EBV infect?
B lymphocytes
52
HIV pt painless shaggy white plaque along lateral tongue border
oral hairy leukoplakia EBV
53
tx of oral hairy leukoplakia
Aciclovir
54
lymphoma following solid organ transplant? B cell proliferation
post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder
55
Tx of post transplant lymphoproliferative disorder
Rituximab
56
mx of neisseria gonorrhoea?
ceftriaxone 500 mg IM + azithromycin 1 g oral
57
features of disseminated gonococcal infection?
tenosynovitis migratory polyarthritis dermatitis (lesions can be maculopapular or vesicular) Later complications include septic arthritis, endocarditis and perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome)
58
pathophysiology of tetanus?
clostridium tetani produces exotoxin - \> prevents the release of inhibitory transmitters GABA and glycine - \> generalise muscle overactivity
59
presentation of tetanus?
prodrome: fever, malaise, headache trismus risus sardonicus (spasm of facial muscles that appears grinning) opisthotonus (hyperextension of neck/ spine) spasms may -\> resp arrest autonomic dysfunction: arrhythmias, fluctuating BP
60
Mx of tetanus?
Mx in ITU: may need intubation Human tetanus Ig Metronidazole, benpen
61
Prevention of tetanus?
active immunisation w tetanus toxoid clean minor wounds - uncertain hx / \<3 doses: give vaccin 3 or more doses: only vaccinate if \> 10 yrs since last dose Heavily contaminated wounds - uncertain hx/ \< 3 doses: vaccine + Tetanus Ig 3 or more doses: vaccinate if 5 or more years since last dose
62
Actinomycosis features?
Subcut infections: esp. on jaw Forms sinuses which discharge pus containing sulphur granules.
63
tx of actinomycosis?
Ampicillin for 30d, then Pen V for 100d
64
Swelling of eyelid (Romana's sign) fever, swollen lymph nodes, headaches, or local swelling at the site of the bite enlargment of heart ventricles -\> heart failure enlargement of oesophagus/ colon
Chagas Disease transmitted by kissing bugs (Reduviids)
65
diagnosis of african trypanosomiasis (sleeping sickness)?
thick and thin films -\> flagellated protozoa serology
66
Tender subcut nodule @ site of infection _Haemolymphatic Stage (1st stage):_ - rash, fever, rigors, headaches - itchiness - joint pains - LNs and HSM - Posterior cervical nodes (Winterbottom’s sign) _Miningoencephalitic Stage (2nd stage)_ - Wks – Mos after original infection - Convulsions, agitation confusion - Apathy, depression, hypersomnolence, coma
Sleeping sickness African trypanosomiasis transmitted by Tsetse fly T. gambiense: more common, gradual onset T. rhodesiense: rapid, more severe
67
skin ulcer @ bite -\> depigmented scar bitten by sandflies
Cutaneous Leishmaniasis | (L. major, L. tropica)
68
Bitten by sandflies Widespread nodules which fail to ulcerate?
Diffuse cutaneous Leishmaniasis
69
bitten by sand flies skin and mucosal ulcers with damage primarily of the nose and mouth
Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis (L braziliensis)
70
bitten by sandflies Dry, warty hyperpigmented skin lesions (dark face and hands) - Prolonged fever - Massive splenomegaly, LNs, abdo pain
visceral leishmaniasis (Kala Azar) L donovani **leishman-donovan bodies**
71
lymphatic filariasis - Wuchereria bancrofti - elephantiasis
72
what carrier is responsible for transmitting dengue fever?
Aedes mosquito | (RNA virus)
73
features of dengue fever?
Flushes: face, neck, chest Central macpap rash Headache, arthralgia Hepatosplenomegaly Jaundice Haemorrhage: petechial, GI, gums or nose, GU NB. can exclude if fever starts \>2wks after leaving endemic area.
74
mx of uncomplicated falciparum ovale, vivax, malariae?
chloroquine then primaquine
75
mx of uncomplicated falciparum malaria?
artemeter-lumefantrine (Riamet) Quinine + doxy
76
mx of severe falciparum malaria?
need ITU mx IV Quinine (Antimalarials)
77
Prophylaxis against malaria in pt w no resistance?
proguanil + chloroquine
78
prophylaxis against Malaria in pts with resistance?
mefloquine or Malarone (atovaquone + proguanil)
79
Which antimalarial causes haemolysis if G6PD deficiency?
primaquine
80
Diagnosis of malaria?
serial thick and thin blood films parasitaemia level
81
Ix in malaria after diagnosis?
FBC: anaemia, thrombocytopenia Clotting: DIC Glucose ABG: lactic acidosis U+E: renal failure Urinalysis: haemoglobinuria
82
features of falciparum malaria?
90% present within 1 month. v acute illness flu like prodrome: headache, myalgia, malaise Rigors fever every 3-4 days
83
signs in malaria?
anaemia jaundice hepatosplenomegaly no rash, no LNs
84
which type of malaria species causes fever every 72 h? (Quartan fever)
Plasmodium malariae
85
which type of malaria species causes tertian rhythm fever (every 48h)?
Plasmodium falciparum Plasmodium vivax & ovale
86
which species of malaria have a chronic liver stage?
vivax and ovale
87
pathophysiology of Malaria?
Plasmodium sporozoites injected by females Anopheles mosquito. Sporozoites migrate to liver, infect hepatocytes and multiply asymptomatically (incubation period) → merozoites Merozoites released from liver and infect RBCs Multiply in RBCs Haemolysis RBC sequestration → splenomegaly Cytokine release
88
Features of Primary Syphilis?
indurated, painless ulcer = Chancre Regional LNs Heals in 1-3wks
89
features of secondary syphilis?
6wks -6mo wks after chancre Systemic bacteraemia → fever, malaise Skin rash: Symmetrical, non-itchy, mac pap / pustular Rash on Palms, soles, face, trunk Buccal snail-track ulcers Warty lesions: condylomata lata
90
features of tertiary syphilis?
2-20yrs latency 1. **Gummatous syphilis** Gummas: Granulomas in skin, mucosa, bones, joints 2. **Neurosyphilis** Tabes Dorsalis Argyll Robertson pupil dementia 3. **cardiovascular syphilis** Aortic aneurysm Aortic regurg
91
features of Syphilitic aortitis?
Aortic aneurysm Aortic regurg
92
features of Neurosyphilis?
Paralytic dementia Meningovascular: CN palsies, stroke **Tabes dorsalis** * Degeneration of sensory neurones, esp. legs * Ataxia and +ve Romberg’s * Areflexia * Plantars ↑↑ * Charcot’s joints **Argyll-Robertson pupil** accommodates, doesn’t react
93
Diagnosis of Syphilis?
_Cardiolipin antibody_ E.g. **VDRL, RPR** Not treponeme specific False +ve: pregnancy, pneumonia, SLE, malaria, TB +ve in 1O and 2O syphilis (wanes in late disease) Reflects disease activity: -ve after Rx _Treponeme-specific Ab_ +ve in 1O and 2O syphilis Remains +ve despite Rx **THPA and FTA** _Treponemes_ Seen by dark ground **microscopy of chancre fluid** Seen in lesions of 2O syphilis May not be seen in late syphilis
94
What marker is used to monitor disease activity in syphilis?
RPR
95
What test would remain +ve even after tx of syphilis?
THPA and FTA: treponene-specific Ab
96
Mx of syphilis?
IM Benzathine Penicillin 2-3 doses or Doxycycline for 28 days
97
What reaction is common after receiving tx for syphilis?
Jarisch-Herxheimer Reaction Fever, ↑HR, vasodilatation hrs after first Rx ? sudden release of endotoxin Rx: steroids
98
features of Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction?
Fever, ↑HR, vasodilatation hrs after first Rx ? sudden release of endotoxin Rx: steroids
99
Mx of travellers diarrhoea? E coli
Cipro
100
Commonest bacterial diarrhoea Bloody diarrhoea, fever assoc w Guillain-Barre + Reactive arthritis
Campylobacter jejuni - unpasteurized milk, animal faeces 2-5d incubation
101
Mx of Campylobacter jejuni GI infection?
Dx by stool MCS erythromycin or Ciprofloxacin
102
Commonest cause of diarrhoea/ vomiting in adults 50% of all gastroenteritis worldwide Fever, diarrhoea, projectile vomiting
Norovirus 12-48h incubation time
103
Commonest cause of diarrhoea in children Secretory diarrhoea and vomiting
Rotavirus
104
Profuse diarrhoea, abdo pain, vomiting assoc w Raw/undercooked seafood Japan
Vibrio parahaemolyticus tx: Doxycycline 100-200mg/d PO
105
Rice-water stools Shock, acidosis, renal failure
Vibrio cholera Faecal-oral spread Dirty water hrs-5d incubation diagnosis by stool MCS
106
Mx of vibrio cholera?
dx by stool MCS **Rehydrate** - Cooked rice powder solution - Hartmann’s w K+ supplements Cipro Zn supplement
107
Watery diarrhoea + cramps assoc w gas gangrene
Clostridium perfringens - assoc w reheated meat
108
Mx of clostridium perfringens?
Diagnosis by stool MCS Benpen + metro
109
Afebrile Descending symmetric flaccid paralysis No sensory signs Autonomic: dry mouth, fixed dilated pupils recently eaten canned/ vacuum packed food Kids = honey students = beans
Clostridium botulinum dx: Toxin in blood samples
110
Mx of clostridium botulinum?
Antitoxin Benpen + metro
111
Bloody diarrhoea, abdo pain, fever - foul smelling Pseudomembranous colitis Toxic megacolon GI perforation
C difficile assoc w antibiotic use cephalopsporins, ciprofloxacin, clindamycin Faecal oral spread Environment: spores
112
Mx of C difficile?
Stop causative Abx 1st: Metronidazole 400mg TDS PO for 10d 2nd: Vanc 125mg QDS PO Colectomy may be needed
113
Watery diarrhoea, cramps, flu-like Pneumonia Meningoencephalitis Miscarriage assoc w refrigerated food, soft cheeses, pates
Listeria monocytogenes
114
Mx of listeria monocytogenes?
diagnosis by blood culture Ampicillin
115
Diarrhoea, vomiting, fever, abdo pain Poultry, eggs, meat
Salmonella enteritidis
116
features of gonorrhoea?
**Men**: - Purulent urethral discharge, dysuria, prostatitis **Women**: - Usually asympto, dysuria, discharge
117
diagnosis of Gonorrhoea?
Urine NAATs **Culture is gold standard** - Intracellular Gm- diplococci - Transport in Stuart’s Medium
118
Mx of gonorrhoea?
Cefixime PO Ceftriaxone IM + azithromycin
119
complications of gonorrhoea?
Prostatitis Epididymitis Salpingitis / PID Reactive Arthritis Ophthalmia neonatorum
120
Features of chlamydia?
v common iin \<25 yr group Asympto in 50% men and 80% women Men: - Urethritis Women: - Cervicitis, urethritis, salpingitis
121
diagnosis of chlamydia?
**1st line NAATs** (Nucleic Acid Amplification Test) - Urine **Culture** - Endocervical swab - Discharge
122
mx of chlamydia?
Azithromycin 1g PO once or Doxycycline PO 100mg BD for 7 days
123
complications of chlamydia?
Prostatitis Epididymitis Salpingitis / PID increased incidence of ectopic pregnancies Reactive Arthritis Opthalmia neonatorum perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome)
124
features of Lymphogranuloma venereum primary stage?
caused by the invasive serovars L1, L2, L2a or L3 of Chlamydia trachomatis primarily an infection of lymphatics and lymph nodes. common in MSM tropical STI - painless genital ulcer, heals fast - balanitis, proctitis, cervicitis
125
features of lymphogranuloma venereum? Inguinal syndrome
caused by the invasive serovars L1, L2, L2a or L3 of Chlamydia trachomatis primarily an infection of lymphatics and lymph nodes. common in MSM tropical STI - Painful inguinal buboes - Fever, malaise → genital elephantiasis
126
features of lymphogranuloma venereum? anorectal syndrome
caused by the invasive serovars L1, L2, L2a or L3 of Chlamydia trachomatis primarily an infection of lymphatics and lymph nodes. common in MSM tropical STI - Proctocolitis → Rectal strictures → Abscesses and fistulae
127
diagnosis of lymphogranuloma venereum?
Chlamydia serovars L1, L2, L3 NAATs
128
Mx of lymphogranuloma venereum?
Azithromycin / doxycycline
129
Complications of lymphogranuloma venereum?
Genital elephantiasis Rectal strictures
130
features of HPV 6/11
often asymptomatic genital warts
131
Mx of genital warts
multiple, non-keratinised warts: topical podophyllum solitary, keratinised warts: Cryotherapy
132
Features of HSV?
Flu-like prodrome Inguinal LNs Painful grouped vesicles → ulcers Dysuria may -\> urinary retention
133
diagnosis of HSV
PCR Serology
134
mx of HSV
Analgesia Aciclovir cold sores: topical aciclovir
135
Complications of HSV?
Meningitis Elsberg Syndrome: sacral radiculomyelitis → retention + saddle paraesthesia
136
sacral radiculomyelitis → retention + saddle paraesthesia HSV?
Elsberg syndrome
137
features of Chancroid?
Papule → Painful soft genital ulcer - base covered in yellow/grey Progressing to inguinal buboes Haemophilus ducreyi mainly Africa
138
Diagnosis of Chancroid?
Haemophilus ducreyi - Culture - PCR
139
Mx of Chancroid?
Azithromycin
140
Features of Donovanosis?
aka Granuloma inguinale - Klebsiella granulomatis **Painless, beefy-red** ulcer Subcutaneous inguinal granulomas = Pseudobuboes Possible elephantiasis
141
Diagnosis of Donovanosis?
**Donovan bodies** - Giemsa stain
142
Mx of Donavonosis?
Erythromycin
143
secretory vs inflammatory diarrhoea?
**_Secretory Diarrhoea_** Bacteria only found in lumen: don’t activate innate immunity No / low fever No faecal leukocytes Caused by bacterial toxins: Cholera, E. coli (except EIEC), S. aureus Toxin → ↑cAMP→ open CFTR channel → Cl loss followed by HCO3, Na and H2O loss → secretory diarrhoea **_Inflammatory Diarrhoea_** Bacteria invade lamina propria: activate innate immunity Fever PMN in stool Campylobacter, shigella, non-typhoidal salmonella, EIEC
144
malaise, headache, cough, constipation high fever w relative bradycardia Rose spots: patchy red macules Epistaxis, splenomegaly Diarrhoea after 1st wk
Salmonella typhi/paratyphi (typhoid fever) incubates 3-21d
145
main features of typhoid fever?
constipation high fever w relative bradycardia Rose spots: patchy red macules splenomegaly
146
diagnosis of typhoid fever?
Leukopenia Blood culture: salmonella typhi/ paratyphi Urine or stool culture
147
mx of typhoid fever?
Cefotaxime or cipro
148
abdo pain, fever, diarrhoea Mesenteric adenitis Reactive arthritis, pharyngitis, pericarditis Erythema Nodosum
Yersinia enterocolitica dx: by serology mx: cipro
149
Bloating, explosive diarrhoea, offensive gas Malabsorption → steatorrhoea and wt. loss symptoms for 1-4wk assoc w MSM, Hikers, Travellers
Giardia lamblia
150
diagnosis of giardia?
Direct fluorescent Ab assay Stool microscopy: Pear-shaped trophozoites w 2 nuclei Duodenal fluid analysis on swallowed string
151
mx of giardia?
Tinidazole
152
Who should be screened for MRSA?
all patients awaiting elective admissions (exceptions include day patients having terminations of pregnancy and ophthalmic surgery. Patients admitted to mental health trusts are also excluded) all emergency admissions screened
153
How should a patient be screened for MRSA?
nasal swab and skin lesions or wounds the swab should be wiped around the inside rim of a patient's nose for 5 seconds the microbiology form must be labelled 'MRSA screen'
154
Suppression of MRSA from a carrier once identified?
nose: **mupirocin** 2% in white soft paraffin, tds for 5 days skin: **chlorhexidine** gluconate, od for 5 days. Apply all over but particularly to the axilla, groin and perineum
155
what antibiotics are commonly used in the treatment of MRSA infections?
**vancomycin** teicoplanin linezolid
156
recommended abx for Hospital-acquired pneumonia?
Within 5 days of admission: co-amoxiclav or cefuroxime More than 5 days after admission: piperacillin with tazobactam OR a broad-spectrum cephalosporin (e.g. ceftazidime) OR a quinolone (e.g. ciprofloxacin)
157
recommended abx for Exacerbations of chronic bronchitis?
Amoxicillin or tetracycline or clarithromycin
158
recommend abx for UTI?
Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin. Alternative: amoxicillin or cephalosporin
159
Recommended abx for acute prostatis?
Quinolone (e.g. cipro) or trimethoprim
160
recommended abx for Acute pyelonephritis?
Broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone (e.g. cipro)
161
recommended abx for Animal or human bite?
Co-amoxiclav (doxycycline + metronidazole if penicillin-allergic)
162
recommended abx for Mastitis during breast-feeding?
Flucloxacillin
163
recommended abx for Erysipelas?
Flucloxacillin (erythromycin if penicillin-allergic)
164
recommended abx for Cellulitis?
Flucloxacillin (clarithromycin or clindomycin if penicillin-allergic)
165
recommended abx for Impetigo?
Topical fusidic acid oral flucloxacillin or erythromycin if widespread
166
recommended abx for Throat infections?
Phenoxymethylpenicillin (erythromycin alone if penicillin-allergic)
167
recommended abx for Sinusitis?
Amoxicillin or doxycycline or erythromycin
168
recommended abx for Otitis media?
Amoxicillin (erythromycin if penicillin-allergic)
169
recommended abx for Otitis externa\*?
Flucloxacillin (erythromycin if penicillin-allergic)
170
recommended abx for Periapical or periodontal abscess?\>
Amoxicillin
171
recommended abx for Gingivitis: acute necrotising ulcerative?
Metronidazole
172
recommended abx for Pelvic inflammatory disease?
Oral ofloxacin + oral metronidazole or IM ceftriaxone + oral doxycycline + oral metronidazole
173
recommended abx for Chlamydia?
Doxycycline or azithromycin
174
recommended abx for Gonorrhoea?
IM ceftriaxone + oral azithromycin
175
recommended abx for Syphilis?
Benzathine benzylpenicillin or doxycycline or erythromycin
176
recommended abx for Bacterial vaginosis?
Oral or topical metronidazole or topical clindamycin
177
recommended abx for Shigellosis/ Salmonella (non-typhoid)?
Ciprofloxacin
178
painful vs painless Genital ulcers?
painful: herpes, chancroid painless: syphilis, lymphogranuloma venereum (may have painful inguinal lymphadenopathy)
179
dysentery, wind, tenesmus weight loss if chronic liver abscess - RUQ pain, swinging fever, sweats - mass in R lobe flask shaped ulcer on histo
Entamoeba histolytica assoc w MSM, travelling 1-4 wks incubation
180
features of Entamoeba histolytica?
dysentery, wind, tenesmus weight loss if chronic liver abscess - RUQ pain, swinging fever, sweats - mass in R lobe flask shaped ulcer on histo assoc w MSM, travellers
181
Diagnosis of entamoeba histolytica?
Stool micro: - motile trophozoite w 4 nuclei Stool Ag
182
Mx of Entamoeba histolytica?
Metronidazole - Tindazole if severe or abscess
183
Migrating urticarial rash on trunk and legs Pneumonitis, enteritis Malabsorption → chronic diarrhoea
**Strongyloides stercoralis** Endemic in sub-tropics Hyperinfestation in AIDS mx: Ivermectin
184
what is enteric fever?
Abdo pain, fever, mononuclear cells in stool e.g Typhoidal salmonella, Yersinia enterocolitica, Brucella
185
features of Rabies?
animal bites Prodrome: headache, malaise, itch, odd behaviour Furious Rabies: Hydrophobia, Muscle spasms hypersalivation Dumb Rabies: flaccid limb paralysis
186
Diagnosis of Rabies?
"bullet shaped" RNA virus Negri bodies
187
Mx of rabies?
immunised: diploid vaccine Unimmunised: vaccine + rabies Ig
188
features of Toxoplasmosis?
cats are definitive hosts mostly asympto reactivated in immunodeficiency - \> encephalitis: confusion, seizures, focal - \> SOL/ raised ICP - \> Posterior uveitis
189
Diagnosis of Toxoplasmosis?
CT/ MRI head: ring-shaped contrast enhancing CNS lesions Serology
190
Mx of toxoplasmosis?
Pyrimethamine + sulfadiazine Septrin (co-trimoxazole) Prophylaxis in HIV
191
features of cat scratch disease?
bartonella henselae hx of cat scratch tender regional LNs
192
Mx of cat scratch disease?
Azithromycin Diagnosis: +ve cat scratch skin Ag test
193
Features of Anthrax?
Cutaneous - ulcer w Black centre - rim of oedema Inhalational: - massive Lymphadenopathy - mediastinal haemorrhage - resp failure GI - severe bloody diarrhoea
194
Mx of anthrax?
Cipro + clindamycin
195
features of Lyme Disease?
Borrelia burgdorferi Ixodes tick bite walkers, hikers **Early localised: erythema migrans** (target lesions) **Early disseminated:** mirgatory **arthritis**, malaise, LN, hepatitis **Late persistent:** Arthritis, focal Neuro (Bells Palsy), heart block, myocarditis Lymphocytoma: blue/ red ear lobe
196
Mx of Lyme Disease?
Rash: Doxycycline Complications: IV benpen
197
Undulant Fever (PUO): peak PM, normal AM sweats, malaise, anorexia arthritis, spinal tenderness LN, HSM Rash, jaundice assoc w unpasteurised milk/ cheeses
Brucellosis Diagnosed by pancytopenia, Positive Rose Bengal Test: anti-O-polysaccharide Ag
198
Mx of Brucellosis?
Doxy + Rifampicin + Gent
199
High fever, headache, myalgia / myositis Cough, chest pain ± haemoptysis ± hepatitis w jaundice ± meningitis assoc w infected rat urine, swimming, canoeing
Leptospirosis mx: doxycycline
200
presentation of Hepatitis A?
prodromal phase: fever, malaise, arthralgia, nausea, anorexia distaste for cigarettes Icteric phase: jaundice, HSM, lymphadenopathy, cholestasis
201
Ix of hepatitis A?
↑↑ALT, ↑AST (AST:ALT \<2) IgM+ ~25d after exposure = recent infection IgG+ for life
202
Mx of Hepatitis A?
Supportive Avoid alcohol IFN-a for fulminant hepatitis prevention: passive Ig -\> \<3 mo protection can give active vaccine
203
Ix of Hep B?
HBsAg +ve = current infection +ve \>6mo = chronic disease HBeAg +ve = high infectivity Anti-HBc IgM = recent infection Anti-HBc IgG = past infection Anti-HBs Ab = cleared infection or vaccinated HBV PCR: monitoring response to Rx
204
complications of Hep B?
Fulminant hepatic failure Chronic hepatitis (5-10%) -\> cirrhosis in 5% HCC glomerulonephritis polyarteritis nodosa cryoglobulinaemia
205
Ix of Hep C?
Anti-HCV Abs HCV-PCR Liver biopsy if PCR +ve to assess liver damage and need for tx HCV genotype
206
Mx of Hepatitis C?
_Indications_ * Chronic haepatitis * ↑ ALT * Fibrosis treatment depends on viral genotype - test prior to tx combination of protease inhibitors (e.g. daclatasvir + sofosbuvir or sofosbuvir + simeprevir) +/- ribavarin ↓ efficacy if: - Genotype 1, 4, 5 or 6 - ↑ VL - Older - Black - Male
207
what diseases are assoc w EBV?
Infectious mononucleosis Burkitt's lymphoma Post Transplant Lymphoproliferative Disorder Oral hairy leukoplakia Primary brain lymphoma Nasopharyngeal Ca
208
Jaw or abdo mass Endemic: Africa, malaria Sporadic: non-African, impaired immunity Immunodeficiency: HIV or post-Tx
Burkitt's lymphoma
209
Diagnosis of Burkitt's lymphoma?
Starry-sky appearance CD10, BCL6 t(8;14)
210
complications of infectious mono?
splenic rupture CN lesion (e.g. 7) ataxia GBS pancytopenia with megaloblastic marrow meningoencephalitis chronic fatigue
211
Diagnosis of Infectious mono?
Lymphocytosis Atypical Lymphocytes +ve heterophile abs: Monospot, Paul Bunnell NICE guidelines suggest FBC and Monospot in the 2nd week of the illness to confirm a diagnosis of glandular fever. Blood: serology, PCR
212
features of infectious mono?
Saliva or droplet spread Fever, malaise, sore throat, cervical LNs +++ Splenomegaly, hepatitis (→ hepatomegaly and jaundice)
213
features of CMV reactivation?
immunocomprised HIV: retinitis \> colitis \> CNS disease Transplant: penumonitis \> colitis \> hepatitis \> retinitis
214
Diagnosis of CMV?
Blood; PCR, serology Owl's Eye intranuclear inclusions Atypical Lymphocytes
215
Mx of PCP?
co-trimoxazole IV pentamidine in severe cases steroids if hypoxic (if pO2\<9.3 kPa then steroids reduce risk of resp failure by 50% and death by 1/3)
216
choice of antibiotic for UTI in breastfeeding mother?
Trimethoprim
217
most common infective cause of diarrhoea in HIV patients?
Cryptosporidium Presentation is very variable, ranging from mild to severe diarrhoea A modified Ziehl-Neelsen stain (acid-fast stain) of the stool may reveal the characteristic red cysts of Cryptosporidium. Treatment is difficult, with the mainstay of management being supportive therapy\*
218
what organism may cause diarrhoea in HIV pts w CD4 count \<50?
Mycobacterium avium intracellulare ypical features include fever, sweats, abdominal pain and diarrhoea. may be hepatomegaly and deranged LFTs. Diagnosis is made by blood cultures and bone marrow examination Management is with rifabutin, ethambutol and clarithromycin
219
what organism is most common in bronchiolitis?
Respiratory syncytial virus
220
what organism is most responsible in croup?
parainfluenza virus
221
what organism is most responsible for pneumonia following influenza?
staph aureus
222
Atypical pneumonia Classically spread by air-conditioning systems, causes dry cough. Lymphopenia, deranged liver function tests and hyponNa may be seen
Legionella pneumophilia
223
post-exposure prophylaxis for Hep A?
Human Normal Immunoglobulin (HNIG) or hep A vaccine
224
Post-exposure prophylaxis for Hep B?
HBsAg positive source: hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) and accelerated course of the vaccine unknown source: HBIG and accelerated course of the HBV vaccine
225
Post-exposure prophylaxis for Hep C?
monthly PCR - if seroconversion then interferon +/- ribavirin
226
Post-exposure prophylaxis of HIV?
combination of oral antiretrovirals (e.g. Tenofovir, emtricitabine, lopinavir and ritonavir) asap (i.e. Within 1-2 hours, but may be started up to 72 hours following exposure) for 4 weeks ## Footnote serological testing at 12 weeks following completion of PEP
227
diagnosis of legionella pneumophilia?
urinary antigen tx: w erythromycin
228
mx of infectious mono?
supportive rest during the early stages, drink plenty of fluid, avoid alcohol simple analgesia for any aches or pains avoid playing contact sports for 8 weeks after having glandular fever to reduce the risk of splenic rupture
229
main test to check for latent TB?
Mantoux test IGRA: when Mantoux test is positive or equivocal people where a tuberculin test may be falsely negative: miliary TB sarcoidosis HIV lymphoma very young age (e.g. \< 6 months)
230
HIV+ve associated with the Epstein-Barr virus CT: single or multiple homogenous enhancing lesions
Primary CNS lymphoma treatment generally involves steroids (may significantly reduce tumour size), chemotherapy (e.g. methotrexate) + with or without whole brain irradiation. Surgical may be considered for lower grade tumours
231
Toxoplasmosis vs primary CNS lymphoma?
**_Toxoplasmosis_** Multiple lesions Ring or nodular enhancement Thallium SPECT negative **_Lymphoma_** Single lesion Solid (homogenous) enhancement Thallium SPECT positive
232
most common fungal infection of CNS?
Cryptococcus headache, fever, malaise, nausea/vomiting, seizures, focal neurological deficit
233
Ix of cryptococcus?
CSF: high opening pressure, India ink test positive CT: meningeal enhancement, cerebral oedema
234
widespread demyelination due to infection of oligodendrocytes by JC virus (a polyoma DNA virus) symptoms, subacute onset : behavioural changes, speech, motor, visual impairment MRI is better - high-signal demyelinating white matter lesions are seen
Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML)
235
Pneumonia in an alcoholic?
Klebsiella pneumoniae
236
mx of anti-HbS \<10 mIU/ml after undergoing primary immunisation against hep B?
Non-responder. Test for current or past infection. Give further vaccine course (i.e. 3 doses again) with testing following. If still fails to respond then HBIG would be required for protection if exposed to the virus
237
mx of anti-HbS 10-100 mIU/ml after undergoing primary immunisation against hep B?
Suboptimal response - one additional vaccine dose should be given. If immunocompetent no further testing is required
238
mx of anti-HbS \>100 mIU/ml after undergoing primary immunisation against hep B?
Indicates adequate response, no further testing required. Should still receive booster at 5 years
239
recommended abx prophylaxis for close contacts of pt w meningococcal meningitis?
oral **ciprofloxacin** (preferred) or rifampicin or may be used
240
abx for mengingitis caused by listeria?
IV amoxicillin + gentamicin
241
Mx of rabies immunised person who just got an animal bite?
the wound should be washed if an individual is already immunised then 2 further doses of vaccine should be given if not previously immunised then human rabies immunoglobulin (HRIG) should be given along with a full course of vaccination. If possible, the dose should be administered locally around the wound
242
Kaposi's sarcoma caused by HHV-8 presents as purple papules or plaques on the skin or mucosa may later ulcerate respiratory involvement may cause massive haemoptysis and pleural effusion
243
Mx of kaposis sarcoma?
radiotherapy + resection
244
what virus causes progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy?
JC virus
245
what type of medications should be stopped during a c diff infection?
medications which are anti motility or anti-peristaltic (e.g. opioids)
246
For a patient undergoing an elective splenectomy, when is the optimal time to give the pneumococcal vaccine?
at least 2 weeks before surgery
247
mx of bacterial vaginosis?
metronidazole Treatment should be offered to all pregnant woman who are symptomatic. Symptomatic BV in pregnancy is associated with late miscarriage and preterm delivery.
248
what organism is mainly implicated in bacterial vaginosis?
Gardnerella vaginalis This leads to a consequent fall in lactic acid producing aerobic lactobacilli resulting in a raised vaginal pH.
249
What are Ansels criteria for diagnosis of BV?
3 of the following 4 points should be present: thin, white homogenous discharge clue cells on microscopy: stippled vaginal epithelial cells vaginal pH \> 4.5 positive whiff test (addition of potassium hydroxide results in fishy odour)
250
Malignancies associated with EBV infection
Burkitt's lymphoma\* Hodgkin's lymphoma nasopharyngeal carcinoma HIV-associated central nervous system lymphomas
251
which pneumonia commonly causes reactivation of the herpes simplex virus resulting in 'cold sores'?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
252
diagnosis of mycoplasma pneumoniae?
diagnosis is generally by Mycoplasma serology positive cold agglutination test
253
PEP for Hep C?
monthly PCR - if seroconversion then interferon +/- ribavirin
254
PEP for HIV?
a combination of oral antiretrovirals (e.g. Tenofovir, emtricitabine, lopinavir and ritonavir) as soon as possible (i.e. Within 1-2 hours, but may be started up to 72 hours following exposure) for 4 weeks serological testing at 12 weeks following completion of post-exposure prophylaxis
255
most common causes of meningitis in 0-3 mo old?
Group B Streptococcus (most common cause in neonates) E. coli Listeria monocytogenes
256
Causes of meningitis is immunosuppressed?
Listeria monocytogenes
257
classic description involves sudden onset of high fever, rigors, nausea & vomiting. Bradycardia may develop. A brief remission is followed by jaundice, haematemesis, oliguria Councilman bodies (inclusion bodies) may be seen in the hepatocytes
Yellow fever Type of viral haemorrhagic fever (also dengue fever, Lassa fever, Ebola).
258
live attenuated vaccines?
BCG measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) influenza (intranasal) oral rotavirus oral polio yellow fever oral typhoid
259
Toxoid (inactivated toxin) vaccines?
tetanus diphtheria pertussis
260
Inactivated preparations vaccines?
rabies hepatitis A influenza (intramuscular)