Cardiology Flashcards

(140 cards)

1
Q

low pitched systolic ejection murmur at base with fixed split S2 (1)

A
ASD
•Fixed and wide splitting of the 2nd
heart sound (volume load, delayed
right bundle conduction).
•diastolic rumble at the mid to
lower right sternal border
(increased flow across TV)
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2
Q

Systolic ejection murmur radiating to the neck (1)

A

aortic stenosis

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3
Q

systolic ejection murmur radiating to the back (3)

A

pulmonary stenosis
PDA
coarctation

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4
Q

high pitched short systolic regurgitation murmur at the apex or LLSB

A

small VSD

mitral regurgitation

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5
Q

what are some features of cardiac syncope

A

little or no prodrome
prolonged LOC >5min
exercise-induced
fright/startle induced
associated chest pain or palpitations
history of cardiac disease- AS, pulmonary hypertension
positive family hx (long QT, arrhythmia syndromes, devices, cardiomyopathy, sudden death)

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6
Q

long QT and deafness=

A

Jervell Lange- Nielson syndrome

autosomal recessive

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7
Q

palpitations while swimming

A

long QT syndrome

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8
Q

where should you measure QTc

A

lead II or V5

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9
Q

what is QTc

A

QT/√RR

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10
Q

what is a normal QTc Boys? girls?

A

Boys >10: <0.45
Girls >10: <0.47
younger kids <0.46

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11
Q

when can you not interpret QTc

A

cannot interpret in presence of abnormal depolarization
BBB
WPW

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12
Q

what electrolyte abnormalities can cause long QT interval? what class of drugs?

A

low Ca
low Mg
low K
drugs (tricyclic antidepressants)

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13
Q

what is the first line treatment for long QT syndrome

A

beta blockers

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14
Q

when do we see torsades de point?

A

form of polymorphic VT
long QT syndrome
or hypomagnesemia
tx: magnesium

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15
Q

what are the EKG findings associated with WPW (3)

A

delta wave

short PR

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16
Q

what are two complications of WPW

A

sudden death

SVT

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17
Q

what are the treatment options for WPW
no symptoms
SVT
fainting with palpitations

A

no symptoms- no treatment
SVT- beta blockers or ablation (no digoxin!)
fainting with palpitations- ablation

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18
Q

what is the most common congenital heart defect with trisomy 21

A

VSD

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19
Q

who should get palivizumab in children with CHD

A

children <1 with cyanotic CHD or hemodynamically significant cyanotic CHD (requiring meds)

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20
Q

what is the Norwood/Sano procedure

A

1st surgery for HLHS
used for patients with hypoplastic left heart syndrome
1. connect pulmonary artery to the aorta, close PDA
2. augment the aortic arch
3. create ASD (or make bigger to allow oxygenated blood to right ventricle)
4. place a shunt from right subclavian (aorta) to right pulmonary artery or Sano shunt from right ventricle to pulmonary artery
usual saturations 75-85% ** (too high is bad too, too much pulmonary blood flow

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21
Q

what is the surgical treatment for TGA

A

arterial switch procedure

usual saturations are 100%

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22
Q

what is the surgical treatment for too much pulmonary artery blood flow

A

pulmonary artery band

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23
Q

what are two complications of Fontan

A

plastic bronchitis

protein losing enteropathy **

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24
Q

what are the surgeries for a single functional ventricle

A
  1. Glenn- SVC to RPA
    sats: 75%-85%
  2. Fontan
    IVC to RPA
    expected sats >90% (usually)
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25
who needs antibiotic prophylaxis for endocarditis before high risk procedures? (4)
1) a prothetic heart valve 2) a history of endocarditis 3) a heart transplant with abnormal heart valve function 4) certain congenital heart defects including: - cyanotic congenital heart disease - a congenital heart defect that has been completely repaired with prosthetic material for the first 6 months after repair repaired congenital heart disease with residual defects such adjacent to the prosthetic device
26
what is considered a high risk procedure requiring endocarditis prophylaxis (2)
dental procedure where the gums or lining of the mouth are likely to be injured (Eg extraction or surgery) usually not routine cleaning gut or genitourinary surgery through an area that is infected
27
things that do NOT need antibiotic prophylaxis for endocarditis
injections of anaesthetic to mouth loss of baby teeth accidental injury to gums/mouth nosebleeds routine placement or adjustment of braces deliveries and episiotomies most surgeries and procedures, including non-infected gut and urinary tract procedures
28
Ddx of cyanosis in a newborn
heart - cyanotic congenital heart disease - severe congestive heart failure lung - parenchymal disease: RDS, pneumonia, pulmonary hemorrhage - non parenchymal disease: CPAM, pleural effusion, CDH neurological Blood - polycythemia - methemoglobinemia
29
Types of cyanotic congenital heart disease (8)
``` T- Transposition of the great arteries T- Tetralogy of Fallot T- Tricuspid atresia T- Total anomalous pulmonary venous connections T- Truncus arteriosus T- 'Tingle' ventricle (single ventricle) ``` A- pulmonary atresia A- Ebstein's anomaly
30
what are the characteristics of pericarditis on history
sharp stabbing or squeezing chest pain better with sitting up worse with lying down often pleuritic no sensory innervation of the pericardium( pain referred from diaphragmatic and pleural irritation) friction rub on exam
31
what are the EKG findings for pericarditis
``` 4 stages on EKG: ST elevation/PR depression T wave flattening T wave inversion resolution ``` ECHO is diagnostic
32
what are some causes of pericarditis?
``` Idiopathic- most common viral bacterial- rare now secondary to H. Influenza vaccination neoplastic- leukemia, lymphoma inflammatory- lupus, JIA ``` * common with connective tissue diseases- RA, rheumatoid factor, SLE
33
what would you see on physical exam for pericarditis? (3)
narrow pulse pressure pericardial friction rub pulsus paradoxus >15mmHg
34
what is Pulsus paradoxus
Pulsus paradoxus refers to an exaggerated fall in a patient’s blood pressure during inspiration by greater than 10 mm Hg.
35
what is the treatment of pericarditis
NSAIDs steroids if persistent pericardial tap if evidence of tamponade or persistent on meds antibiotics if suppurative pericarditis is suspected (Rare in Canada and pt is very sick)
36
what are 3 cardinal signs of CHF in infants?
tachycardia tachypnea hepatomegaly
37
what are the causes of CHF by age: first week of life 2-6 weeks older children
``` first week of life: obstructions primarily - hypo plastic left heart syndrome (d3-5) - severe aortic stenosis - coarctation (d7-10) asphyxia severe mitral or tricuspid regurgitation uncontrolled tachycardias (SVT>24h) ``` ``` 2-6weeks: L to R shunts VSD AVSD PDA NOT ASD!!! (DO NOT CAUSE OBSTRUCTION- low pressure shunt) ``` older children: pump failure dilated cardiomyopathy myocarditis tachycardia (sustained tachycardia) induced cardiomyopathy
38
what are some symptoms of congestive heart failure in infants
``` poor feeding poor weight gain sweating, especially with feeds shortness of breath with feeds, grunting frequent chest infections ```
39
what are some symptoms of congestive heart failure in older chidren
``` shortness of breath with activity decreased activity tolerance easily tired puffiness of eyelids swollen feet ```
40
what are some supportive treatment options for CHF
head of the bed up (decrease respiratory distress) tube feeds (Decrease work for heart) high calorie formula salt restrictions (in older children- avoids excess preload) fluid limitation (if severe) immunize (RSV, flu) Medication: Improve contractility • Dopamine, dobutamine, milrinone, epinephrine, norepinephrine – Decrease preload or filling of the heart • Diuretics – Decrease afterload (pump related dysfunction) • ACE inhibitors, angiotensin receptor blockers – Minimize ongoing damage (pump related dysfunction) • Beta blockers
41
AV re-entry tachyarhythmias R to P interval
R to P distance is shorter than the P to R distance almost certainly had an AV re-entry mechanism responds to adenosine
42
Ectopic- R to P interval
R to P distance is longer then the P to R interval not an artioventricular re-entry mechanism NOT likely to respond favourably to adenosine
43
what investigations can be done for palpiations
TSH lytes, ca, Ng EKG +/- holter (of having at least once per day) if event only every 2 weeks then an event monitor would be better not everyone would do lytes but most would do TSH
44
what are 4 physical exam findings of endocarditis?
Janeway lesion- non tender osler node- tender "OW" splinter hemorrhage embolus
45
what is seen pathologically with rheumatic fever
Aschoff bodies are characteristic lesions seen
46
what are the major criteria for rheumatic heart disease
``` carditis POLYarthrtiis subcutaneous nodules erythema marginatum syndenhams chorea ``` 2 major or 1 major and 2 minor RECURRENT: 2 major or 1 major and 2 minor or 3 MINOR
47
what are the minor criteria for rheumatic heart disease
Fever >38.5 Elevated CRP/ESR >60 Polyarthralgia (low risk) prolonged PR interval on ECG (if carditis not major)
48
what is the definition of pulmonary hypertesion
pulmonary artery pressure >25mmHg
49
what is cor pulmonale
right heart dysfunction secondary to pulmonary disease
50
physical exam findings of cor pulmonale
``` precordial bulge RV heave single S2 TR, PR murmurs (Graham steele) pulsatile liver (tricuspid regurgitation) hepatomegaly oedema ```
51
what do you see on EKG for pulmonary hypertension?
RV strain | RVH
52
what would you see on CXR for hypoplastic left heart
wall to wall heart with increased pulmonary vasculature
53
Boot shaped heart on CXR
Tetralogy of Fallot
54
Egg on a string CXR
Transposition of the great arteries
55
snowman on CXR
TAPVR
56
Large LV on CXR (3)
cardiomyopathy myocarditis pericardial effusion
57
what is characteristic of still murmur
vibratory murmur Still murmur: Grade 1 to 3, early systolic murmur; Low to medium pitch with a vibratory or musical quality Best heard at lower left sternal border Loudest when patient is supine and decreases when patient stands Infancy to adolescence, often 2 to 6 years old.
58
An infant is in shock with paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia, what is the treatment?
synchronized cardioversion
59
Neonatal goiter. What anti-arrhythmic was mom on? a. Digoxin b. Procainimide c. Amiodarone d. Sotalol
Amiodarone contains iodine. The iodine load causes fetal/neonatal hypothyroidism and goiter, which is transient
60
What is the most common cardiac defect with Marfans?
Dilatation Ascending aorta
61
What is the most common cardiac lesion in a IDM?
HCM
62
what is the cardiac finding with neonatal lupus
complete heart block due to anti-rho/la
63
Baby 4 days old, now fussy, no work of breathing but sats 88% despite oxygen. Poor perfusion. You’re in a peripheral hospital. What’s the next step in management?
start prostaglandin
64
What’s the most common cyanotic congenital heart defect to present in the neonatal period?
TGA
65
what is the treatment for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
beta blockers
66
EKG findings ALCAPA
Signs anterolateral myocardial infarction Q waves in leads I, aVL, V5 and V6 May progress to ischemic cardiomyopathy
67
Kid with occasional PVCs, what's the sports recommendation?
No restrictions
68
WPW is strongly associated with which anomaly?
Ebsteins anomaly
69
what are the EKG findings for WPW
delat wave short PR wide QRS
70
List 4 Risk Factors for Artherosclerosis
``` Obesity Diabetes Hypertension Hyperlipidemia Smoking Metabolic syndrome (T2DM, abdominal obesity, hyperglycemia, dyslipidemia, and hypertension) Familial Hypercholestremia ```
71
what are 4 types of cardiomyopathy in children
dilated cardiomyopathy- most common both ventricles dilated hypertrophic cardiomyopathy with LV outflow obstruction hypertrophic cardiomyopathy without LV outflow obstruction (storage diseases) restrictive cardiomyopathy
72
Rib notching on CXR
Rib notching: Coarctation of the aorta (older children)
73
Describe the clinical manifestations of a large patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)
``` Tachypnea and tachycardia • Bounding pulses • Hyperdynamic precordium • Wide pulse pressure • Continuous murmur (older child) • Systolic murmur (premature infant) • Labile oxygenation (premature infant) • Apnea (premature infant) ```
74
what is a PDA
persistent patency of a normal fetal structure between the left PA and the descending aorta shunts bloods from the aorta to the pulmonary artery and increases pulmonary blood flow
75
what type of murmur is associated with PDA
machinery continuous murmur best heard at the left infraclavicular area on PE: bounding pulses, wide pulse pressure
76
AVSD is commonly associated with what?
Down syndrome | ~70% have Down syndrome
77
Acyanotic congenital; heart lesions with increased pulmonary blood flow
``` ASD AV Septal Defect VSD PDA AV Malformation ```
78
Acyanotic congenital heart lesions with normal pulmonary blood flow
Pulmonic Stenosis Mitral Stenosis/Regurgitation Aortic Stenosis Coarctation of the Aorta
79
what is the most common ASD
secundum (75%) RAD on EKG 2nd most common CHD (6-10%) ``` Primum (15%) – associated with other endocardial cushion defects (cleft AV valves, inlet type VSD) Sinus Venosus (10%) ```
80
Treatment for ASD
Percutaneous Closure – only for secundum ASD – adequate superior/inferior rim around ASD
81
what is the most common congenital lesion?
VSD
82
when do VSDs typically become symptomatic
``` 6-8 weeks •Large VSD’s may be silent and become symptomatic in first few weeks as pulmonary resistance decreases •SOB and diaphoresis with feeds •Poor weight gain •Systolic murmur •CXR demonstrates increased pulmonary vasculature, cardiomegaly ```
83
Treatment for AVSD
“All” require surgical intervention • Repair at 4-6 months of age for complete defects and about 3 years of age for primum defects
84
Duke criteria for IE
2 major 1 major + 3 minor or 0 major and 5 minor BE JOAN OF ARC Major criteria B-blood culture positive E- echo evidence of vegetation and valvular regurgitation ``` Minor criteria J- janeway lesion O- oslers node A- aneurysm(mycotic); abuse(idu) N- nephritis O- other predisposing heart condition F-fever A- arterial emboli R-roth's spot; rheumatoid factor C- culture positive not meeting major criteria ```
85
what is the classic cardiac finding with acute rheumatic fever?
mitral regurgitation most common | aortic regurgitation second most common
86
Jones major criteria
Major –Carditis (40-50% in initial episode, up to 90% overall; new/ changing murmur, cardiomegaly, CHF) –migratory polyarthritis (large joints) –Chorea (F>M) –erythema marginatum (erythema w serpiginous, advancing margins, central clearing, trunk, inner thighs) –subcutaneous nodules (usually with carditis, extensor surfaces)
87
Jones minor criteria (5)
``` –fever –arthralgia –history of previous ARF –elevated ESR, CRP –prolonged PR on ECG ```
88
What is the antibiotic treatment for rheumatic fever?
10 days of penicillin or amoxicillin | erythromycin if pen allergic
89
RF secondary prevention (3)
Without carditis: up to 5 years after last acute episode or until age 21 years, whichever longest •Carditis without sequelae: 10 years from last acute episode or age 25 years •Carditis with residual valvar lesions: at least age 40 years or life-long
90
what cardiac findings are associated with Pompe disease
Pompe disease: Cardiomegaly, increased wall thickness, supraventricular tachycardia, short PR interval, extremely tall high QRS voltages.
91
most common cause of sudden death in children and young adults < 35 years
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
92
what is one syndrome associated with HCM (5)
``` Syndromic HCM •Noonan’s syndrome*** •LEOPARD syndrome •Friedreich’s ataxia •Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome •Swyer’s syndrome ```
93
Pharmacologic agents that prolong QT Interval
Antiarrhhythmic Agents •Procainamide, Flecainide, Amiodarone, Sotalol * Antihistamines * Diphenhydramine * Antibiotics and Antifungals * Erythromicin, Azithromycin, Clarithromycin, Trimethoprim, Sulfamethoxazole, Clindamycin, Ketoconazole, Fluconazole ``` Psychotropic Drugs •Tricyclic antidepressants (Amitriptyline, imipramine) •Phenothiazines (Chlorpromaxine, Thioridazine) •Haloperidol •Risperidone •Carbamazepine •Other •Cisapride •Epinephrine •Caffeine ```
94
EKG findings associated with Brugada syndrome
coved-ST elevation in right precordial leads (V1-3) and RBBB
95
leading cause of acquired heart disease in children in the U.S.
Kawasaki disease
96
Diagnostic criteria for Kawasaki disease
Diagnostic criteria: –fever > 5 days and at least 4 of the following features: –(1) bilateral, painless, nonexudative conjunctivitis –(2) lip or oral cavity changes (eg, lip cracking and fissuring, strawberry tongue, and inflammation of the oral mucosa) –(3) cervical lymphadenopathy (≥ 1.5 cm in diameter and usually unilateral) –(4) polymorphous exanthem –(5) extremity changes (redness and swelling of the hands and feet with subsequent desquamation)
97
what are the most common organisms for infective endocarditis
``` –Alpha-hemolytic streptococcus –Staphylococcus aureus- worst!! causes most damage to the heart –Coagulase neg staphylococcus –Beta-hemolytic streptococcus –Candida- hardest to treat!! ```
98
predisposing factors for SVT (4)
•Infection, fever, drug exposure (20-24%) •WPW (10-22%) •Congenital heart disease (20-23%) –Ebstein, CC-TGA, cardiomyopathy, or postoperative TGA, ASD, or AVSD •Idiopathic (40-50%)
99
Causes of left axis deviation on EKG (3)
AVSD small RV (tricuspid atresia) Noonan syndrome
100
RV hypertrophy
Tall R waves for age V1 Deep S waves for age V6 Q waves in V1 Upright T waves in V1 after day 5 and before “latency age”
101
LV hypertrophy
Tall R waves for age V6 | Deep S waves for age V1
102
Flat T waves in contiguous leads, what does that mean? (2)
• Myocardial disease myocarditis cardiomyopathy
103
inferior leads
II, III and aVF
104
lateral leads
I, aVL, V5 and V6
105
what is the recurrence risk for congenital heart disease
~4%
106
post pericardiotomy syndrome
early pericardial effusion after surgery
107
when is the highest risk of onset of aneurysms with kawasaki? What are 3 risk factors for coronary artery involvement?
4-6 weeks after onset of fever risk factors: younger age (<6 months)- consider steroid tx abnormal echo at presentation severe disease (MAS, shock)
108
why do you need to monitor a baby on prostaglandin
need to monitor continuously for apnea
109
A 3 year old child is referred to your office after a murmur is picked up by the family doctor on routine physical examination. You hear a harsh continuous murmur in the right infraclavicular area that is loudest when sitting and disappears on lying flat. The remainder of her cardiac exam is within normal limits. What is this most consistent with: PDA Venous hum Still’s murmur
venous hum | ** disappears with lying down
110
A 2-day-old infant presents in congestive heart failure. He has hydrocephalus. He has a seizure 1 hour after admission. Most likely cause: a) vein of Galen aneurysm b) intraventricular hemorrhage c) hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy d) cerebral abscess e) meningitis
vein of Galen aneurysm Locations of AVMs include the vein of Galen (the most common), cerebral hemispheres, thalamus and third ventricle, and choroid plexus. Most infants with vein of Galen malformations present with heart failure
111
You are seeing a teenager with a history of recurrent syncopal episodes. What is the best screening test for prolonged QT syndrome.
EKG
112
36) Infant with large VSD. The murmur cannot be heard. What is the cause? VSD has closed There is increased pulmonary outflow obstruction Pulmonary arterial pressures have increased
Pulmonary arterial pressures have increased
113
what is seen on EKG with hyperkalemia following transfusion?
peaked t waves
114
80. A baby has been diagnosed with truncus arteriosus. What is the most likely complication in the first week? a) pulmonary edema b) severe cyanosis c) heart failure d) ?
pulmonary edema Both ventricles are at systemic pressure and both eject blood into the truncus When pulmonary vascular resistance is relatively high immediately after birth, pulmonary blood flow may be normal; as pulmonary resistance drops in first month of life, blood flow to lungs is increased and heart failure ensues
115
what are 4 complications from prostaglandin
1. apnea 2. hypotension 3. bradycardia 4. fever/flushing
116
Neonate with PDA treated with indocid. List four side effects of indocid
NEC and spontaneous intestinal perforation transient renal insufficiency increased bleeding risk kernicterus (theoretical risk - interfere with binding of albumin to bilirubin
117
List four clinical signs of endocarditis in a patient with fever and a new murmur
1. Janeway lesions 2. Osler nodes 3. splinter hemorrhages 4. Roth spots (white centered retinal hemorrhage)
118
Neonate with complete heart block. ECHO normal. List 2 causes
1. neonatal lupus 2. idiopathic 3. congenital heart disease (AVSD, TGA) 4. familial congenital heart block
119
what are 3 EKG findings that are consistent with SVT
``` absent p waves HR not variable HR >180 in children HR>220 in infants narrow QRS ```
120
4 week in obvious CHF. Huge voltages on EKG, short PR interval. Hypotonic and progressive weakness. Hepatosplenomegaly and large tongue. What does this child have?
Pompe disease
121
Name 3 EKG finding of Hyperkalemia
1. peaked T waves 2. prominent u waves 3. wide PR, wide QRS
122
what are 2 steps in management for long qt syndrome
1. exercise restriction 2. consult cardiology to start beta blocker or defibrillator 3. check family members for long qt
123
what are 3 heart conditions that would have a single S2
1. Tetralogy of Fallot 2. Hypotrophic left heart syndrome 3. Truncus arteriosus 4. pulmonary stenosis 5. Transposition of the great arteries
124
You are seeing a 7 year old with severe hypertension. List 4 investigations you would use to identify end organ damage.
ECG Echocardiogram Retinal examination Albumin to creatinine ratio
125
A child has been confirmed to have hypertension. His urinalysis, lytes, BUN, and creatinine are normal. Name 4 investigations you need to do.
Blood chemistry (sodium, potassium, chloride, total CO2, and creatinine) Urinalysis Renal ultrasonography Routine laboratory tests that should be performed for the assessment of cardiovascular risk in all children with hypertension include the following: Fasting blood glucose total cholesterol HDL, LDL, TG
126
Name 3 types of benign heart murmurs in children.
Still's murmur Venous hum flow murmur
127
What 4 features on a physical exam are most reassuring that a murmur is benign?
systolic musical/vibratory grade 1-2, no radiation changes with position/respiration
128
``` BP for ≥ 13yo Normal BP Elevated BP Stage I HTN Stage II HTN ```
Normal BP<120/80 Elevated BP: 120/80- 129/80 Stage I HTN: 130/80- 139/89 Stage II HTN: ≥140/90
129
``` BP for 1-13 yo Normal BP Elevated BP Stage I HTN Stage II HTN ```
Normal BP <90th %ile Elevated BP: >90th to <95%ile Stage I HTN: >95 to <95 + 12 Stage II HTN: ≥95%ile +12mmHg
130
When should you consider a statin?
in a child >8 yo with LDL-C > 4.9 mmol/L LDL-C > 4.1 mmol/L + family history of early heart disease or > 2 risk factors present LDL-C > 3.4 mmol/L + Diabetes Mellitus
131
what is POTS
HR increase of >40 beats/min during the 1st 10 min of upright tilt test without associated hypotension,
132
how do you diagnose POTS
head-up tilt test for at least 10 min
133
What are two management recommendations for POTS
1. aerobic exercise program | 2. salt supplementation
134
what is BT shunt
shunt from subclavian to pulmonary artery (done with Norwood for HLHS)
135
what is Sano shunt
shunt from right ventricle to pulmonary artery (done with Norwood for HLHS)
136
what are the 3 surgeries required for HLHS
1. Norwood (1- weeks) 2. Glenn (4-6 months) 3. Fontan (18 months- 3 years)
137
what is the Glenn procedure
Glenn procedure is 2nd surgery for HLHS occurs at 4-6 months because they have outgrown the shunt placed during the Norwood goal is to take away some of the extra work from the RV (currently pumping to the lungs and the body) - connect subclavian artery directly to the pulmonary artery - remove shunt placed during Norwood - Right ventricle now only pumps to the body and not to the lungs Expected sats 75-85%
138
what is the Fontan procedure
Fontan is the 3rd surgery for HLHS occurs at 18 months to 3 years goal is to connect the inferior vena cava to the pulmonary artery via a conduit there is a small fenestration between conduit and right atrium to act as a pop off valve blood flow: IVC and SVC to the pulmonary artery- to the left atrium- to the right atrium- to the right ventricle- to the body Expected sats > 90% (usually)**
139
Problems in Follow-up of “Repaired” CHD patients (10)
ongoing disease arrhythmia recurrence risk social issues- employment, pregnancy growth development- increased risk of specific learning difficulties and ADHD dental hygiene- few need SBE prophylaxis but all need good hygiene scoliosis- children with thoracotomies post pericardiotomy syndrome (early post operative pericardial effusion) Fontan- protein losing enteropathy and plastic bronchitis
140
EKG axis deviation
lead I and II both up- Normal axis thumbs away from each other= left axis deviation thumbs together= right axis deviation