Cardiovascular System Flashcards

(707 cards)

1
Q

Describe the structure of the pericardium?

A

Parietal pericardium- strong outer fibrous layer
Intrapericardial space- lubricating fluid
Visceral pericardium- inner serosal layer

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2
Q

What is the fibrous layer of the pericardium attached to? Why?

A

Sternum and mediastinal portions of the left and right pleurae
Keeps the pericardial sac firmly anchored within the thorax

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3
Q

What structures emerge from the pericardium?

A

Superiorly: aorta, pulmonary artery, superior vena cava
Inferiorly: inferior vena cava

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4
Q

Why do we need a cardiovascular system?

A

All cells require oxygen and release carbon dioxide

Diffusion is not efficient over long distances. Rate of diffusion is proportional to square of the distance.

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5
Q

Why doesn’t the left ventricle receive all oxygen and nutrients from the oxygenated blood within its ventricular cavity? Where does it receive its oxygen and nutrients from?

A

Some cells are supplied with blood directly from the ventricular cavity through tiny vascular channels known as thebesian veins.
There is a large distance from the source of oxygen to some of the cells in its thick muscle wall.
Majority of the left ventricle is supplied with blood from the left coronary artery which branches into the anterior interventricular artery and the circumflex artery

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6
Q

Which arteries branch off the aortic arch?

A

Brachiocephalic trunk- supplies right upper limb, head and neck
Left common carotid artery- supplies head and neck
Left subclavian artery- supplies left upper limb with some branches to the head and thorax

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7
Q

Describe the location of the heart.

A

The heart is enclosed in the mediastinum, the medial cavity of the thorax. It extends 12-14cm from the second rib to the fifth intercostal space. It is superior to the diaghragm. It is anterior to the vertebral column and posterior to the sternum. The lungs are lateral to the heart and partially obscure it.

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8
Q

What are the valves in the heart?

A

Mitral valve- two cusps- between left atrium and left ventricle
Tricuspid valve-three cusps- between right atrium and right ventricle
Aortic valve- semilunar, three cusps- between left ventricle and aorta
Pulmonary valve- semilunar, three cusps- between right ventricle and pulmonary artery

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9
Q

Where are the output vessels of the heart located?

A

The base of the heart consists of the hearts output vessels; the ascending aorta which leads on to the aortic arch and the pulmonary trunk which splits into the two pulmonary arteries.

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10
Q

What are the different layers of the heart?

A

Endocardium - layer of endothelial cells lining chambers
Myocardium - thick layer of cardiac muscle cells
Epicardium/ visceral pericardium- layer of connective tissue/adipose tissue through which pass the larger blood vessels and nerves that supply the heart muscle

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11
Q

Where is the fossa ovalis? What is this?

A

It is a depression in the right atrium of the heart at the level of the interatrial septum. It is the remnant of the opening between the atria in the foetus as blood flow to the lungs and double circulation only begins after birth with the baby’s first breath.

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12
Q

What are trabeculae carnae? Where are they?

A

Irregular muscle ridges in the heart. They are present in the right and left ventricular walls giving them a spongelike appearance.

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13
Q

What structures prevent the inversion of of the mitral and tricuspid valve cusps during systole?

A

3 papillary muscles in RV which hold thin string like chordae tendinae which attaches to the edges of the tricuspid valve leaflets
2 papillary muscles in LV which hold thin string like chordae tendinae which attaches to the ended of the mitral valve leaflets

Contraction of the papillary muscles prior to other regions of the ventricle tightens the chordae tendinae and the valve is forced closed.

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14
Q

What controls the opening and closing of the pulmonic and aortic valves?

A

During relaxation of the ventricles, elastic recoil of the pulmonary arteries forces blood back toward the heart, distending the valve cusps towards one another closing the valve. Therefore, there is slight backflow of blood into the ventricles.

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15
Q

Which vessels enter the atria and where from?

A

The superior vena cava enters the right atrium superiorly. The inferior vena cava and coronary sinus enter the right atrium inferiorly
The four pulmonary veins enter the left atrium posteriorly.

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16
Q

How is the left side of the heart adapted to the pumping blood at a higher pressure than the right side of the heart?

A

Structures on the left side of the heart are approximately three times thicker than structures on the right side of the heart.

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17
Q

What do the grooves on the surface of the heart indicate?

A

Anterior and posterior interventricular grooves (interventricular sulcus)
—> inter ventricular septum
Anterior and posterior atrioventricular grooves (coronary sulcus)
—>boundary between atria and ventricles

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18
Q

Where are impulses in the ventricles first transmitted to and why?

A

Impulses within the His-Purkinje fibres are transmitted first to the papillary muscles and then throughout the walls of the ventricles so the papillary muscles contract before the ventricles. This coordination prevents the regurgitation of blood through the AV valves.

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19
Q

Where do the right and left coronary arteries originate from and how do they reach the heart?

A

The root of the aorta just above the aortic valve cusps. The left main coronary artery arises in the left aortic sinus and the the right coronary artery arises in the right aortic sinus. After their origin, these vessels pass anteriorly one on each side of the pulmonary artery.

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20
Q

Describe the position of the atria relative to the ventricles?

A

The atria are positioned slightly posteriorly and to the right of the ventricles.

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21
Q

What factors affect the rate of diffusion in the cardiovascular system?

A

Surface area- higher capillary density in metabolically active tissues
Diffusion resistance- nature of the molecule and the barrier (exchange occurs in capillaries), proportional to square root of the distance
Concentration gradient- substance which is used by tissues will have a lower concentration in capillary blood than arterial blood

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22
Q

What factors affect how much lower the concentration of a substance is in the capillary blood than the arterial blood?

A

Rate of use by the tissue
Rate of blood flow through the capillary bed- the lower the blood flow, the lower the capillary concentration. Blood flow must be high enough to maintain a sufficient concentration gradient and must match the tissues metabolic needs.

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23
Q

How will capillary density and perfusion rate vary between a tissue that is not very metabolically active and a tissue that is very metabolically active?

A

The tissue that is metabolically active will have:

  • a higher capillary density
  • greater perfusion rate (greater rate of blood flow)
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24
Q

What is perfusion rate?

A

The rate of blood flow

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25
Which organs require high, constant flow of blood to them?
Brain Kidneys Heart
26
During exercise, blood flow to which tissues increases?
Heart Brain Skeletal muscle
27
What is the normal rate of blood flow? What can this increase to during exercise?
Normal-5 litres per minute | Exercise-25 litres per minute
28
What causes cardiac tamponade?
Excess fluid building up relatively rapidly in the pericardial space. The heart becomes compressed due to the inextensible fibrous pericardial layer Compression of the heart leads to cardiac tamponade Pressure of the fluid means that the heart cannot fully fill during diastole leading to a smaller stroke volume and smaller cardiac output.
29
When is pericardiocentesis required?
Fluid from pericardial space to be removed for testing | Fluid from pericardial space to be removed to relieve compression after a cardiac tamponade
30
Where is the transverse pericardial sinus? What is its relevance?
Posterior to the pulmonary trunk and the ascending aorta, superior to the left atrium and anterior to the superior vena cava. A clamp can be placed here during a heart lung bypass so that there is no blood leaving the heart without damaging the pericardium. The heart lung bypass machine receives blood from the inferior and superior vena cava, oxygenates the blood and transfers it to the aortic arch.
31
Where is the oblique sinus?
Small concavity in the pericardium, posterior to the heart bound by pulmonary veins on either side.
32
What happens if a major coronary artery is blocked?
Myocardial infarction
33
There is not a very high pressure gradient between the veins and the right atrium. What valves prevent the backflow of blood from the right atrium into the vessels?
Incomplete valves Inferior vena cava - eustachian valve Coronary sinus - thebesian ring
34
Why is mitral stenosis more common than tricuspid stenosis?
The entrance of the left atrium into the left ventricle is smaller than the entrance of the right atrium into the right ventricle.
35
At what rate should blood flow to the brain be at all times?
750ml per minute
36
What are the major components of the cardiovascular system?
``` Heart- pump Arteries - distributing vessels Arterioles - resistance vessels- restricting blood flow to easily perfused areas so that blood can flow to those often vulnerable parts that are not easily perfused Capillaries- exchange vessels Veins - capacitance vessels ```
37
What is the role of capacitance vessels? Which blood vessels are capacitance vessels?
Veins store blood (without an increase in pressure) to cope with temporary imbalances between the amount of blood returning to the heart and the amount that is required to pump out. This gives the cardiovascular system the ability to cope with changes in cardiac output.
38
What is the mediastinum?
The intervening region in the thoracic cavity between the right and left pleural cavities occupied by the lungs.
39
How do we prevent all of our blood from going to t he most easily perfused areas and how do we allow blood to flow to areas that are difficult to perfuse?
Resistance vessels restrict blood flow to drive supply to areas that are difficult to perfuse.
40
Explain how resistance and capacitance vessels work together to meet demand during exercise?
In exercise, more blood needs to flow to the heart muscle, skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle Resistance vessels restrict flow to other organs by constricting and dilate to allow blood to flow to these organs Cardiac output increases so there is less blood stored in capacitance vessels.
41
Is the output greater from the right or left hand side of the heart?
Neither- its the same. Any difference would cause oedema.
42
What is the typical pressure in the left an right ventricle?
Left ventricle 120 systole / 10 diastole Right ventricle 25 systole/ 4 diastole
43
What does systole mean?
Contraction and ejection of blood from ventricles
44
What does diastole mean?
Relaxation and filling of ventricles
45
At rest, what is the typical stroke volume?
70ml
46
At rest, what is typical heart rate?
70 beats per minute
47
What embryonic tissue gives rise to the CVS?
Splanchnic Mesoderm
48
How do we prevent all blood from going to the most easily perfused areas and how do we allow blood to reach the brain against gravity?
Resistance vessels restrict blood flow to drive supply to hard to perfuse areas
49
What is the purpose of capacitance vessels?
Enable CVS to vary amount of blood pumped around the body
50
Why are resistance and capacitance vessels important?
Blood supply must change to meet demand and this is achieved by a balance between blood in these vessels.
51
What is typical pressure in the left and right atrium?
Left atrium= 8-10 mm Hg | Right atrium = 0-4 mm Hg
52
What is typical pressure in the aorta and pulmonary artery?
Aorta- 120 systole/ 80 diastole mm Hg | Pulmonary artery- 25 systole/ 10 diastole mm Hg
53
How is a cardiac action potential different to other action potentials and why is it different?
It is relatively longer because it lasts for the duration of a single contraction (beat) of the heart. Duration of cardiac action potential = 280 ms Duration of skeletal muscle action potential = 2-5 ms
54
During which phase in the cardiac cycle are both the mitral and aortic valves open?
NEVER
55
When do the mitral and tricuspid valves open at the same time?
ALWAYS
56
What is the function of the papillary muscles and chordae tendinae?
They prevent inversion of the cusps of the mitral and tricuspid valves.
57
Which phases of the cardiac cycle occur during systole?
Phase 2: Isovolumetric contraction Phase 3: Rapid ejection Phase 4: Reduced ejection
58
Which phases of the cardiac cycle occur during diastole?
Phase 5: Isovolumetric relaxation Phase 6: Rapid filling Phase 7: Reduced filling Phase 1: Atrial contraction
59
What is the typical duration of systole at 67 beats per minute
0.35 seconds
60
What is the typical duration of diastole at 67 beats per minute?
0.55 seconds
61
As heart rate increases, how does the cardiac cycle change?
Each cardiac cycle is shorter. | Systole stays the same length but diastole shortens.
62
When does the length of systole change?
NEVER
63
The mitral/tricuspid valves are open. The aortic and pulmonary valves are closed. What stages of the cardiac cycle could the heart be in?
Diastole Phase 6: Rapid filling Phase 7: Reduced filling Phase 1: Atrial contraction
64
The mitral/tricuspid valves and aortic/pulmonary valves are all closed. Is the heart in systole or diastole?
Could be in systole. Phase 2: Isovolumetric contraction Could be in diastole. Phase 5: Isovolumetric relaxation
65
When do the mitral/tricuspid valves open? | At what point in the cardiac cycle does this occur?
When pressure in the atria exceeds pressure in the ventricles. Pressure in the atria gradually rises due to venous return until it exceeds pressure in the ventricles after phase 5-Isovolumetric relaxation. This marks the beginning of Phase 6: Rapid filling
66
What is the A wave?
Atrial pressure rises due to atrial systole during phase 1 (atrial contraction) of the cardiac cycle.
67
What is the C wave?
Atrial pressure increases slightly due to closing of the mitral valve during phase 2 (Isovolumetric contraction) of the cardiac cycle.
68
What is the X descent?
Atrial pressure initially decreases as the atrial base is pulled downward as the ventricle contracts during phase 3 (rapid ejection) of the cardiac cycle.
69
What is the V wave?
Atrial pressure gradually rises due to continued venous return from the lungs during phase 4 (reduced ejection) of the cardiac cycle.
70
What is the dicrotic notch?
There is a slight rise in aortic pressure as the aortic valve closes during phase 5 (isovolumetric relaxation) of the cardiac cycle.
71
What is the Y descent?
Atrial pressure decreases after opening of the mitral valve during phase 6 (rapid filling) of the cardiac cycle.
72
What is the P wave?
Signifies onset of atrial depolarisation on an electrocardiogram.
73
What is the QRS complex?
Signifies onset of ventricular depolarisation on an electrocardiogram.
74
What is the T wave?
Signifies ventricular repolarisation on an electrocardiogram.
75
Which phase in the cardiac cycle marks the end of systole?
Phase 4: Reduced ejection
76
Which phase in the cardiac cycle marks the end of diastole?
Phase 1: Atrial contraction
77
When in the cardiac cycle can S1 be heard?
Beginning of Phase 2- Isovolumetric contraction, as the mitral/tricuspid valves close.
78
When in the cardiac cycle can S2 be heard?
Beginning of phase 5- isovolumetric relaxation as the mitral/pulmonary valves close.
79
When in the cardiac cycle can s3 be heard?
During phase 6- rapid ventricular filling. This is usually silent but can sometimes be heard in children and is a sign of pathology in adults.
80
What proportion of ventricular filling does atrial contraction account for?
10% | Passive filling driven by venous pressure accounts for 90% of the filing of the ventricles.
81
What is typical end diastolic volume?
120ml
82
Atrial contraction usually accounts for the final 10% of ventricular filling. Does this value tend to increase or decrease with age?
It increases because venous pressure in the elderly decreases so there is less passive filling of the ventricles.
83
Which heart sound caused by the opening of valves?
NONE - they are caused by the closing of valves.
84
Where can S1 be heard at its loudest?
At the apex of the heart
85
Where can closing of the aortic valve and pulmonary valve be most clearly heard?
Aortic valve- 2nd intercostal space, right sternal edge Pulmonary valve- 2nd intercostal space, left sternal edge
86
Where can closing of the tricuspid and mitral valve be heard the clearest?
Tricuspid valve 4th intercostal space, left sternal edge Mitral valve 5th intercostal space, mid-clavicular line
87
What is stenosis?
Valve does not open enough. There is an obstruction to blood flow when the valve is usually open.
88
What is regurgitation?
Valve does not open fully. Back leakage when valve should be closed.
89
Is abnormal valve function more common in the left or right side of the heart?
Left
90
What are the common causes of aortic valve stenosis? (3)
Degenerative (senile calcification/fibrosis) Congenital (bicuspid form of valve) Chronic rheumatic fever- inflammation - commissural fusion
91
What are the effects of aortic valve stenosis?
Less blood can get can get through valve. > increased left ventricle pressure--> LV hypertrophy > left sided heart failure--> syncope, angina
92
What are the effects of aortic valve regurgitation?
Blood flows back into left ventricle during diastole Increases stroke volume Systolic pressure increases Diastolic pressure decreases Bounding pulse (head bobbing, Quinke's sign- beds of nails flush in colour with each heart beat) LV hypertrophy
93
What are the common causes of aortic valve regurgitation? (2)
Aortic root dilation- leaflets pulled apart | Vlavular damage- endocarditis rheumatic fever
94
What are the common causes of mitral valve stenosis?
99.9% cases caused by rheumatic fever (autoimmune) Commissural fusion of valve leaflets Harder for blood to flow from left atria to the left ventricle
95
What are the common causes of mitral valve regurgitation?
REMEMBER Chordae tendinae and papillary muscles normally prevent prolapse in systole -Myxomatous degeneration can weaken tissue leading to prolapse Other causes: -Damage to papillary muscle after heart attack -Left sided heart failure leads to LV dilation which can stretch valve -Rheumatic fever can lead to leaflet fibrosis which disrupts seal formation
96
How does aortic valve stenosis cause angina?
Less blood can get through the valve. This causes left sided heart failure leading to angina.
97
What is syncope?
Insufficient blood flow to the CNS
98
How does aortic valve stenosis cause microangiopathic haemolytic anemia?
Red blood cells are damaged as blood is transported under very high pressure through a very narrow gap.
99
What type of abnormal valve function results in increased systolic pressure and decreased diastolic pressure?
Aortic valve regurgitation
100
What sound is characteristic of aortic valve stenosis?
Crescendo-decrescendo murmur
101
What sound is characteristic of aortic valve regurgitation?
Early decrescendo diastolic murmur
102
What heart sound is characteristic of mitral valve stenosis?
Snap as valve opens | Diastolic rumble
103
What sound is characteristic of mitral valve regurgitation?
Holosystolic murmur
104
What does afterload mean?
The load the heart must eject blood against (roughly equivalent to aortic pressure).
105
What does preload mean?
Amount the ventricles are stretched (filled) in diastole- related to the end diastolic volume or central venous pressure.
106
What does total peripheral resistance mean?
Sometimes referred to as systemic vascular resistance- resistance to blood flow offered by all the systemic vasculature
107
What happens to pressure of blood in a vessel as it encounters resistance?
The pressure that the blood exerts drops as it flows through 'a resistance'.
108
Which blood vessels offer the greatest resistance and how can they increase resistance?
Arterioles. Constriction of the arterioles increases resistance.
109
How does constriction of the arterioles change arterial and venous pressure without a change in cardiac output?
Venous pressure decreases | Arterial pressure increases
110
What are the effects of dilation of arterioles/pre-capillary sphincters and not changing cardiac output on arterial and venous pressure?
Arterial pressure decreases | Venous pressure increases
111
What are the effects of increased total peripheral resistance and not changing cardiac output on venous and arterial pressure?
Arterial pressure increases | Venous pressure decreases
112
What are the effects of increasing cardiac output and having no change in total peripheral resistance on venous and arterial pressure?
Arterial pressure increases | Venous pressure decreases
113
In a clinical setting, does hypertension refer to arterial or venous pressure?
Arterial pressure
114
How do we facilitate changes in demand for blood without changing arterial or venous pressure?
Tissues require more blood. Arterioles and pre-capillary sphincters dilate. Peripheral resistance decreases so more blood flows to these tissues. To counteract arterial pressure decreasing and venous pressure increasing cardiac output increases as this increases arterial pressure and decreases venous pressure. Cardiac output increases by intrinsic and extrinsic mechanisms.
115
How can cardiac ouput be increased?
EXTRINSIC MECHANISMS Greater activity of sympathetic nervous system: Increase in heart rate Increase in stroke volume by increasing contractility (changing the slope of the frank starling curve) INTRINSIC MECHANISMS Increase in stroke volume by: Increased preload- increased end diastolic volume and increased venous pressure Decreased afterload (aortic impedance) - decreased end systolic volume
116
Stroke volume is about ____% of normal end diastolic volume.
67%
117
What is the relationship between venous pressure and filling of the heart?
The greater the venous pressure, the more the heart fills.
118
When does the ventricle stop filling in a healthy heart?
The ventricle fills until the walls stretch enough to produce an intraventricular pressure equal to venous pressure.
119
What kind of a curve can be plotted to show the relationship between venous pressure and ventricular pressure? State the labels of the axis.
Compliance curve X axis = LV volume (ml) Y axis = LV pressure (mmHg)
120
What does a significant increase in venous pressure cause?
In lungs - pulmonary oedema | In peripheries- peripheral oedema
121
What is typical end diastolic volume and the pressure in the left ventricle when it is this full?
``` EDV = 120ml Pressure = 10 mm Hg ```
122
How would left ventricular hypertrophy affect compliance?
More difficult to stretch Therefore, decreased compliance. Pressure increases to a higher value with the same value of end diastolic volume.
123
What is the difference between ventricular dilation and hypertrophy?
Simple dilatation- the walls do not materially decrease in thickness, but the cavities of the heart are enlarged Hypertrophic dilatation-the cavities enlarge and the walls increase in thickness. Atrophic dilatation-the cavities are enlarged and the walls of the heart become thin Hypertrophy-the walls increase in thickness
124
How does ventricular dilation affect compliance?
Dilated left ventricles causes increased compliance as the ventricle stretches more. The pressure in the ventricle is lower with the same value of end diastolic volume than in a healthy ventricle.
125
Is ventricular hypertrophy or dilation more likely to cause an increased end diastolic pressure? What are the implications of this?
Hypertrophy. Less room for blood. Decreased compliance. As venous pressure increases, LV end-diastolic pressure increases to a greater extent than usual. As LV end-diastolic pressure increases, stroke volume increases up to a certain point after which the actin and myosin filaments are too far apart from one another and stroke volume decreases (Frank-starling law).
126
Explain how decreased compliance can cause eventual decrease in stroke volume.
Decreased compliance. As venous pressure increases, LV end-diastolic pressure increases to a greater extent than usual. As LV end-diastolic pressure increases, stroke volume increases up to a certain point after which the actin and myosin filaments are too far apart from one another and stroke volume decreases (Frank-starling law).
127
Explain how increased compliance can result in decreased stroke volume.
Increased compliance. More room for blood. As venous pressure increases, LV end-diastolic pressure increases to a lesser extent than usual. Decreased end-diastolic pressure results in a lower stroke volume due to less stretching of the actin and myosin filaments. (Frank-starling law).
128
Explain the Frank-Starling law of the heart.
Increasing venous return in diastole, increases LV end diastolic pressure and causes an increase in stroke volume up to a certain point.
129
What are the axis on a starling curve.
X axis = left ventricular end diastolic pressure/ left ventricular volume/ venous pressure Y axis = stroke volume
130
Why is the Frank-starling curve steeper in cardiac muscle than skeletal muscle?
In both cardiac and skeletal muscle, an increased sarcomere length decreases overlap between the actin and myosin filaments and increased the force of contraction. In cardiac muscle, there is also an increase in calcium sensitivity as the muscle fibres are stretched.
131
How does Starling's law of the heart ensure that both sides of the heart pump maintain the same output?
As stroke volume on the right side of the heart increases, venous pressure to the left side of the heart increases so stroke volume on the left side of the heart increases...
132
Why is it important that cardiac output of both sides of the heart is the same?
More blood pumped to lungs than returns to the heart---> pulmonary oedema More blood pumped to the peripheries than returns to the heart---> peripheral oedema
133
What causes increased arterial pressure?
Increased peripheral resistance
134
What effect does hypertension have on stroke volume?
Increased afterload decreases stroke volume as the heart has to pump out against a higher pressure. Caused by increased peripheral resistance which decreases venous pressure causing a decrease in stroke volume. Cardiac output decreases. Eventually causes left ventricle hypertrophy as ventricle has to contract against a high pressure.
135
What factors determining cardiac ouput are controlled by the autonomic nervous system?
Contractility | Heart rate
136
Explain what happens to cardiac output after eating a meal.
``` Vasodilation in the gut Peripheral resistance decreases Arterial pressure decreases Venous pressure increases Stroke volume increases so cardiac output increases ``` The fall in arterial pressure suppresses the parasympathetic nervous system and stimulates the sympathetic nervous system. Heart rate increases Contractility increases Cardiac output increases Cardiac output increases Increases arterial pressure Decreases venous pressure Returns system back to normal
137
Explain what happens to cardiac output when you stand up.
Venous pooling Venous pressure decreases. Decreased stroke volume. Decreased cardiac output. Arterial pressure decreases
138
Why can't venous pooling be rectified by intrinsic mechanisms? What happens instead?
Both venous and arterial pressures are lowered Intrinsic mechanisms would normally increase peripheral resistance to increase arterial pressure and decrease venous pressure. This would further decrease venous pressure. Therefore, the autonomic nervous system is involved with the baroreceptor reflex. This increased heart rate and increases total peripheral resistance so that arterial pressure increases and venous pressure does not fall further.
139
What happens if the baroreceptor reflex and autonomic nervous system do not work during venous pooling?
Postural hypotension
140
What happens to cardiac output during exercise?
Initially muscle pumping and venoconstriction increases venous pressure and returns more blood to the heart, increasing stroke volume. Later, decreased total peripheral resistance increases venous pressure further. Very early response of increased heart rate via decreased parasympathetic drive and increased sympathetic drive. Increased contractility due to increased sympathetic drive - without this, increased venous pressure alone would move ventricular function to the top part of the Starling curve.
141
What would happen if only venous return increased during exercise? What is also increased during exercise to prevent this from occurring?
If only venous return increased, then ventricular function would be shifted to the flat part of the frank starling curve. Increasing contractility couples with increased venous return to cope to prevent this from occurring.
142
Why can murmurs be heard during exercise in normal individuals?
Turbulent flow
143
A murmur is heard in an individual who is at rest. What could this be caused by?
Disturbed flow through a valve due to stenosis | Back flow through an incompetent valve due to regurgitation
144
Describe the difference between centrifuging unclotted whole blood and clotted whole blood.
Unclotted whole blood Plasma Buffy coat Red blood cells Clotted whole blood Serum Clot
145
The fluid collected from clotted blood is...
Serum
146
The fluid collected from unclotted blood is...
Plasma
147
How can you prevent blood from clotting?
Add an anti-coagulant eg. Heparin
148
Finish the following equation Serum = plasma -
Clotting factors | Particularly fibrinogen
149
Increased total blood viscosity leads to...
Sludging of blood in peripheries. Peripheries feel colder.
150
What is the most common cause of increased blood viscosity?
Multiple myeloma Cancer of plasma cells- a malignant clone of plasma cells produces immunoglobulins in large quantities which increases the viscosity of the blood.
151
What causes increased blood viscosity? (4)
Multiple myeloma- increased plasma cells Polycythaemia- increased red blood cells Thrombocythaemia- increased thrombocytes Leukaemia- increased white blood cells
152
Why is it clinically useful to measure plasma viscosity?
Minor changes in plasma viscosity can result from raised levels of acute phase proteins (eg. Fibrinogen, complement factors and C-reactive protein). Acute phase proteins increase in response to inflammation. Therefore, minor changes in plasma viscosity can be used to measure the inflammatory response. In recent years, we have been able to measure C-reactive protein (CRP) and this is more commonly used to measure inflammation
153
What is the difference between turbulent and laminar blood flow?
Turbulent flow- blood flowing in all directions in the vessel and continually mixes within the vessel. Laminar flow- blood flows in streamlines with each layer of blood remaining the same distance from the wall.
154
Describe normal blood flow.
Laminar
155
When is blood flow turbulent?
``` Increased blood flow and the rate of blood flow becomes too great Blood passes an obstruction in a vessel Blood makes a sharp turn Blood passes over a rough surface Increased resistance to flow ```
156
Why might you hear a murmur in anaemic patients?
Limited number of red blood cells. Heart rate to increase cardiac output so oxygen can be transported around the body quick enough Results in turbulent flow which can be heard as a murmur
157
Why might you hear a murmur in a patient with thyrotoxicosis?
Increased T3 and T4 Causes increased sensitivity to catecholamines Increased chronotropy and inotropy Turbulent flow
158
What units is pressure measured in?
Psi (pounds per square inch)
159
What are the units for blood flow?
Volume per unit time ml/min or l/hour
160
Give an equation for calculating kinetic energy.
1/2 x m x v squared ``` M= mass V= velocity ```
161
There must be a difference in ____ to feel a pulse.
Pressure
162
Why can't a pulse be felt in blood vessels that are not compliant?
Volume does not change in response to pressure.
163
Describe how flow, pressure, velocity and kinetic energy changes distally and proximally to a stenosis in an artery.
Proximal to the stenosis, flow is less, pressure is greater, velocity is lower and kinetic energy is lower Distal to the stenosis, flow is less, pressure is less, velocity is higher and kinetic energy is higher
164
When palpated, what can be felt at a stenosis?
A thrill | Blood vessel vibrates due to the high velocity and kinetic energy.
165
On auscultation, what can be heard if there stenosis of a peripheral artery/heart valve?
Peripheral artery Bruit - sounds like a plane taking off Heart valve Murmur
166
What is a stenosis?
Narrowing of a blood vessel
167
Eventually, what might occur distally to a stenosis in an an artery?
Distal to the stenosis, blood hits the wall of the artery at high velocity and high kinetic energy. This causes a post stenotic dilatation of the blood vessel as the wall of the artery dilates. Bursting of this is an aneurysm.
168
What causes critical ischaemia?
One stenosis followed by another stenosis. | Distal to the second stenosis, flow is further decreased and may stop flowing completely.
169
Where is critical ischaemia common?
Legs
170
Why is it usually difficult to find an elderly persons pulse in the femoral artery?
As people age, arteries often calcify and become less compliant. Volume does not increase in response to an increase in pressure so a pulse cannot be felt.
171
What are the changes in flow, pressure and velocity when there is greater peripheral resistance?
Flow and pressure decreases | Velocity increases
172
What are the changes in flow, pressure and velocity when peripheral resistance is decreased?
Flow and pressure increases | Velocity decreases
173
In an descending aorta pressure tracing, what creates the anacrotic limb?
Systolic uptake Pressure in the descending aorta increases rapidly during systole as blood is ejected out of the ventricles as they contract and the elastic walls of the aorta stretches. Peak systolic pressure This is the highest pressure in the descending aorta.
174
In a descending aorta pressure tracing, what creates the dicrotic limb?
Systolic decline Pressure decreases as the ventricles relax and less blood is ejected from the ventricles Dicrotic notch The pressure in the aorta exceeds that in the left ventricle and the aortic valve closes. This is the end of systole. There is a slight increase in pressure as blood collects in the aorta. Diastolic run off Pressure decreases as blood flows down the aorta and the aortic wall recoils End diastolic pressure This is the lowest pressure in the aorta as there is no flow of blood from the ventricles
175
Give an equation for calculating pulse pressure.
Pulse pressure = peak systolic pressure - end diastolic pressure
176
In an average person, what is the value of pulse pressure?
120 - 80 = 40 mm Hg
177
How do we measure blood pressure?
Sphygomanometer
178
How can mean arterial pressure be estimated?
Diastolic pressure + 1/3 pulse pressure
179
In an average person, what is the value of mean arterial pressure?
80 + 13 = 93 mm Hg
180
What are the implications of mean arterial pressure being below 70 mm g?
Organ perfusion is impaired
181
When measuring blood pressure, how can you make the reading as accurate as possible?
Cuff must go around at least 80% of the arm. | An undersized cuff can give a false reading of blood pressure.
182
What can affect the accuracy of a blood pressure reading?
The height at which blood pressure is measured due to the effect of gravity. Venous and arterial pressure is greater at a lower height when standing up. The size of the cuff. An undersized cuff can give a false reading of blood pressure.
183
What is retrograde flow?
Retrograde flow is when the blood bounces back slightly. It can occur in the arterial system and is greatest when peripheral resistance is high.
184
What is the effect of peripheral resistance on retrograde flow?
Greater peripheral resistance---> greater retrograde flow
185
What determines the volume of a pulse?
1. The force with which the left ventricle is able to eject the blood into the arterial system to develop a normal shock wave. Weaker force ---> reduced pulse volume---> thready pulse 2. Pulse pressure. This is the major determinant of how strong the pulse is. Greater pulse pressure---> increased pulse volume---> bounding pulse Pulse pressure= peak systolic pressure - end diastolic pressure
186
What is a thready pulse?
Pulse volume is lower than usual
187
What are the causes of a thready pulse?
LV failure Aortic valve stenosis Hypovolaemia (severe dehydration/bleeding)
188
Why does bradycardia produce a bounding pulse?
Bradycardia- greater amount of time spent in diastole than usual. End diastolic pressure reaches a smaller value than normal. Pulse pressure increases and pulse volume increases
189
Why does low peripheral resistance cause a bounding pulse?
Low peripheral resistance caused by vasodilation- diastolic run off occurs more quickly as blood rushes out of the aorta to the peripheries. End diastolic pressure reaches a smaller value within the same period of time. Pulse pressure increases and pulse volume increases
190
What are the common causes of congenital heart defects? (3)
Genetic Downs, turner's syndrome, marfan's syndrome Environmental Teratogenicity from drugs, alcohol etc. Maternal infections Rubella, toxoplasmosis etc.
191
Give the approximate percentage saturation of haemoglobin in the different chambers of the heart.
``` Left atrium- 99% Left ventricle- 99% Aorta- 99% Right atrium- 67% Right ventricle- 67% Pulmonary arteries- 67% ```
192
Give the average pressures in the different chambers of the heart
``` Right atrium- 0-4mmHg Right ventricle- 25/3 mmHg Pulmonary arteries- 25/10mmHg Left atrium - 8-10 mmHg Left ventricle- 120/7mmHg Aorta-120/80mmHg ```
193
What is a shunt?
A communication between two sides of the circulation.
194
What is cyanosis?
Bluish discolouration skin, nail beds and mucous membranes due to unsaturated haemoglobin entering the systemic circulation
195
When does the cardiogenic field appear and why?
In the 3rd week of development because nutrient and gas exchange needs of the rapidly growing embryo can no longer be met by diffusion alone so the developing cardiovascular system is formed to deliver these substances over long distances.
196
How is the primitive heart tube formed?
The endocardial tubes are brought together during embryonic folding and fuse in the midline.
197
Describe the primitive heart tube.
Cranial end ``` Aortic roots (2 vessel outlet) Truncus arteriosus Bulbus cordis Ventricle Atrium Sinus venosus (4 vessel inlet) ``` Caudal end
198
What is the truncus arteriosus destined to be?
The roots and proximal portions of the pulmonary trunk and aorta
199
What is the bulbus cord is destined to be?
Part of the right ventricle
200
What is the primitive ventricle destined to be?
The left ventricle
201
What is the primitive atrium destined to be?
Most of the right atrium and some of the right ventricle
202
What is the cardiogenic field?
A zone within the mesoderm consisting of blood pools and tiny vessels. There is a space which will be the pericardial cavity.
203
What is the sinus venosus destined to be?
Right atrium
204
What happens during looping of the primitive heart tube?
The tube elongates. It runs out of room. Twists and folds up placing the inflow cranially and dorsally to the outflow.
205
From which structures in the primitive heart tube is the right atrium developed from?
Most of the primitive atrium Sinus venosus This recieves venous drainage from the body (venue cavae) and the heart (coronary sinus)
206
From which structures in the primitive heart tube does the left atrium develop from?
A small portion of the primitive atrium Absorbs proximal parts of pulmonary veins Receives oxygenated blood from the lungs
207
What explains why an adults left atrium has a smooth inner surface whereas their right atrium has a rough inner surface?
The left atrium mainly develops from proximal parts of the pulmonary veins which has a smooth inner surface whereas the right atrium mainly develops from the primitive atrium which has a rough inner surface.
208
What ensures the heart occupies fully the pericardial sac?
Looping in the fourth week of embryonic development
209
What is the difference between adult and foetal circulation?
There is a double circulation in series in an adult but in a foetus, the lungs do not work so there is no requirement for this double circulation. Oxygenation and removal of carbon dioxide occurs at the placenta for a foetus. Shunts are required to maintain foetal life but these must be reversible at birth
210
What shunts are present in a foetal circulation and what is the purpose of these?
Ductus venosus- between inferior vena cava and the liver to prevent all blood entering the liver Ductus arteriosus- between the aorta and pulmonary trunk which is right to left to ensure all highly oxygenated blood is pumped to the foetus Foramen ovale-between the atria which is right to left to ensure that blood enters the left atria and hence the left ventricle so that blood can enter the systemic circulation
211
In which vessel is the most oxygenated blood in a foetus?
The inferior vena cava which comes from the placenta
212
How do the shunts close when a baby is born?
Ductus venosus-physiological closure Placental support is removed Ductus arteriosus Ductus arteriosus undergoes a muscular spasm and closes Ductus venosus and ductus arteriosus become fibrotic and close. Foramen ovale-mechanical closure Left atrial pressure increases Septum primum closes firmly against septum secondum
213
Which aortic arches in the foetus form the arch of the aorta and the pulmonary artery?
Arch 4 LHS = arch of the aorta | Arch 6 RHS = pulmonary artery
214
How many aortic arches are there in a foetus?
6
215
Which nerve loops around the aortic arch?
Left recurrent laryngeal nerve
216
How does the atrial septal wall form?
Neural crest cells migrate into the developing heart making a shaft of tissue called endocardial cushions. Endocardial tissues create a crescent shaped wedge down the roof of the atria towards the atrioventricular canal called the septum primum. The hole is the Ostium primum which allows right to left shunt. Septum secundum forms and the foramen ovale forms. This forms a right to left shunt.
217
Why is atrial septal defect common?
There is a complex process in producing the atrial septum. Atrial septal defect can arise due to problems in forming either septum primum or septum secondum.
218
What are the two components of the ventricular septum?
Muscular | Membranous
219
Why does inadequate formation of endocardial cushions or endocardial cushions in the incorrect place cause ventricular septal defect?
The muscular portion of the septum which forms the majority of the septum grows upwards towards the fused endocardial cushions.
220
What is the interventricular foramen and how is it closed?
The interventricular foramen is the gap formed when the muscular portion of the septum grows upwards towards the endocardial cushions. This is closed by the membranous portion of the interventricular septum formed by connective tissue derived from endocardial cushions to fill the gap.
221
Describe septation of outflow tracts.
Endocardial cushions appear in the truncus arteriosus. As they grow towards each other, they twist around each other to form a spiral septum. This connects the left ventricle to the aorta and connects the right ventricle to the pulmonary trunk
222
What is transposition of the great arteries?
The aorta arises from the right ventricle. | The pulmonary trunk arises from the left ventricle.
223
What is tetralogy of fallot?
Large ventricular septal defect Overriding aorta Right ventricular outflow tract obstruction (pulmonary stenosis) Right ventricular hypertrophy
224
Why are neural crest cells important?
They migrate to from the endocardial cushions which are the foundation of atrial septation, ventricular septation and septation of the outflow tracts.
225
How can alcohol affect the development of a foetus?
Low concentrations of alcohol can kill or damage these cells
226
What type of shunting does tetralogy of fallot cause?
Right to left shunting
227
What causes coarctation of the aorta?
Narrowing of the aortic lumen in the region of the former ductus arteriosus.
228
What is eisenmenger syndrome?
The condition of severe pulmonary vascular obstruction that results from chronic left to right shunting through a congenital heart defect. The elevated pulmonary vascular resistance causes reversal of the original shunt and systemic cyanosis.
229
When can patent foramen ovale cause a problem?
Takes on significance if the right atrial pressure becomes elevated (due to pulmonary hypertension or right heart failure) leading to right to left shunting since the higher left atrial pressure causes functional closure of the flap valve.
230
Coarctation of the aorta affects blood flow to some regions of the body. Which regions of the body are and are not affected?
Because vessels to the head and upper limbs usually emerge proximal to the coarctation, the blood supply to these regions is not compromised. However, blood flow to the rest of the body is reduced.
231
If no shunt existence, would transposition of the great arteries be compatable with life?
Compatible with life in uterus because flow through ductus arteriosus and foramen ovale allows communication between the two circulations. After birth, without any intervention, TGA is not compatable with life because oxygenated blood does not reach systemic tissues.
232
On examination, what is noticeable about the femoral pulse of patients with coarctation of the aorta?
Femoral pulses are weak and delayed. | An elevated blood pressure in the upper body is common.
233
Give some examples of acyanotic congenital heart defects.
``` Left to right shunts: Atrial septal defect (ASD) Patent foramen ovale (PFO) Ventricular septal defect (VSD) Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) Obstructive lesions: Aortic stenosis (Hypoplasia) Pulmonary stenosis (Valve, outflow, branch) Coarctation of the aorta Mitral stenosis ```
234
Give some examples of cyanotic congenital heart defects.
``` Complex, right to left shunts Tetralogy of Fallot Tricuspid Atresia Transposition of the great arteries Hypoplastic left heart ```
235
What is hypoplastic left heart?
Left ventricle and ascending aorta fail to develop properly.
236
What influences the course of the recurrent laryngeal nerves?
Caudal shift of the development heart and expansion of the developing neck region The need for a foetal shunt between the pulmonary trunk and aorta
237
What is the difference between the upstroke in an action potential in cardiomyocytes and pacemaker cells?
Cardiomyocytes = Na+ influx via the opening of fast type Na+ channels due to depolarisation. Pacemaker cells = Ca2+ influx via the opening of L-type Ca2+ channels due to depolarisation.
238
What is the difference between the Na+ channels involved in an action potential in cardiomyocytes and pacemaker cells?
Cardiomyocytes Fast type Na+ channels-responsible for upstroke in AP Pacemaker cells Slow type Na+ channels- responsible for 'pacemaker potential'
239
What is pacemaker potential?
Slow Na+ channels slowly open and the resting membrane potential depolarises steadily from its most negative value of -60mV in pacemaker cells. They activate more with hyperpolarisation.
240
What is the main difference between the shape of an action potential in a pacemaker cell and in a cardiomyocyte?
Plateau phase in cardiomyocytes | Ca2+ influx and K+ outflux
241
Describe how movement of ions changes in a cardiac action potential in cardiomyocytes.
Phase 0 --> Na+ influx Phase 1 --> transient K+ efflux Phase 2 --> Ca2+ influx and K+ efflux Phase 3 --> K+ efflux
242
Describe how movement of ions changes in a cardiac action potential in pacemaker cells.
Slow Na+ influx Fast Ca2+ influx K+ outflux
243
Slow voltage gated Na+ channels are activated by depolarisation. True or false
False Activated by hyperpolarisation They are HCN channels Hyperpolarisation activated cyclic nucleotide gated channels
244
Which region of the heart depolarises fastest?
SA node- therefore, this sets the rhythm
245
Where are pacemaker cells found?
SA node and AV node
246
Do purkinje fibres have a stable resting potential?
No they have slow type Na+ channels that allows Na+ to continuously leak in. But does not depolarise as fast as SA node
247
Which regions of the heart have the capacity to set the rhythm of the heart?
Those which do not have a stable resting potential due to continuous influx of Na+ : SA node AV node Purkinje fibres
248
Describe the terms asystole and fibrillation in terms of electrical activity of the heart.
Asystole- action potentials fail | Fibrillation- electrical activity becomes random
249
What is normal plasma K+ concentration?
3.5-5.5 mmol/L
250
What is hyperkalaemia?
>5.5mmol/L of K+ in the blood
251
Why cardiac myocytes sensitive to changes in K+ concentration?
Their resting membrane potential is very close to Ek (-90mV) There are many different kinds of K+ channels
252
What is hypokalaemia?
<3.4mmol/L of K+ in the blood
253
Describe the effect of hyperkalaemia on an action potential cardiac myocytes.
EK is less negative Inactivates some of the voltage gated Na+ channels Slow upstroke Narrows action potential
254
What are the consequences of hyperkalaemia on the heart and what do the extent of the consequences depend upon?
Asystole- the heart can stop because of the slower upstroke of the action potential May initially get an increase in excitability Depends on extent of hyperkalaemia and how quickly hyperkalaemia develops
255
What are the treatments for hyperkalaemia and when should they be given?
Calcium gluconate Insulin + glucose These won't work if the heart has already stopped
256
Define mild, moderate and severe hyperkalaemia.
Mild hyperkalaemia = 5.5-5.9mmol/L Moderate hyperkalaemia = 6.0-6.3 mmol/L Severe hyperkalaemia> 6.5mmol/L
257
Why can calcium gluconate be given as a treatment for hyperkalaemia?
Calcium makes the heart less excitable because it is a bivalent cation.
258
Why is glucose given together with insulin in the treatment of hyperkalaemia?
To prevent hypoglycaemia If you gave insulin alone, this would increase uptake of glucose from the blood and would cause hypoglycaemia. Insulin increases uptake of K+ into cardiac myocytes
259
What is the effect of hypokalaemia on action potentials in cardiac myocytes?
Decreased plasma K+ concentration Allosteric effect reducing the conductance of voltage gated K+ channels so downstroke of AP is slower Leads to a longer action potential Early reactivation of some voltage gated Ca2+ channels as some of the membrane repolarises Leads to early after depolarisations (EADs) and hence oscillations in membrane potential Ventricular fibrillation
260
What are the effects of hypokalaemia on the heart?
Oscillations in membrane potential--->Ventricular fibrillation
261
When is hypokalaemia dangerous?
In patients - with existing heart problems - people on anti-arrhythmic drug
262
Describe excitation-contraction coupling in cardiac cells?
Depolarisation open L-type Ca2+ channels in the T-tubule system Localised Ca2+ entry opens CICR channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum Close link between L-type channels and Ca2+ release channels (but they're not directly connected) 25% enters across the sarcolemma, 75% released from SR
263
What happens at a cellular level with the relaxation of cardiac myocytes?
Ca2+ in the cardiac myocytes is returned to resting levels Most is pumped back into the SR as 75% of Ca2+ came from here, some exits across the membrane Ca2+ ATPase is activated (high affinity)
264
Where in the vascular wall are smooth muscle cells found?
Tunica media
265
Describe excitation contraction coupling in smooth muscle cells.
Opening of voltage gated Ca2+ channels due to depolarisation allows Ca2+ to enter A1 adrenoreceptors activate and Ca2+ is released from SR via activation of phospholipase C and creation of iP3 which binds to SR Ca2+ binds to calmodulin. Ca2+ activates myosin light chain kinase which phosphorylates the myosin light chain to permit activation with actin. DAG stimulates PKC which inhibits myosin light chain phosphatase. This allows sustained vasoconstriction.
266
Does troponin C have a role in contraction in smooth muscle cells?
No. Ca2+ binds to calmodulin. This activated myosin light chain kinase Myosin light chain kinase phosphorylates the myosin light chain to permit interaction with actin
267
Describe what happens in the cell during relaxation of smooth muscle cells.
Myosin light chain phosphatase dephosphorylates the myosin light chain
268
How is contraction in smooth muscle cells in arterioles different to contraction in cardiac myocytes?
Ca2+ binds to calmodulin which activates myosin light chain kinase in smooth muscle Ca2+ binds to troponin C in cardiac muscle
269
How does the body coordinate its response to exercise and stress?
Autonomic nervous system
269
How does the autonomic nervous system control the activity of the cardiovascular system?
Can change: Rate Force of contraction of heart Peripheral resistance of blood vessels (arteriolar/venous constriction)
269
We can divide the autonomic nervous system into sympathetic and parasympathetic branches. This division is based on....
Anatomical grounds
270
What is the origin of parasympathetic nerves?
Cranial and sacral origin
271
What is the origin of sympathetic nerves?
Thoracic and lumbar origin
272
What is the enteric nervous system?
Network of neurones surrounding GI tract | Normally controlled via sympathetic and parasympathetic fibres
273
What branch of the nervous system is dominant under basal conditions?
Parasympathetic nervous system
274
Where are alpha 1 adrenoreceptors found?
Smooth muscle of blood vessels- vasoconstriction Pupil of eye. Dilation Sweat glands - increased sweat release
275
If you activate the sympathetic nervous system, is sympathetic drive to all tissues regulated?
No, sympathetic drives to different tissues is independently regulately
276
What happens if you denervate a heart?
It beats at a faster rate to about 100 beats per minute because parasympathetic nervous system dominates at rest
277
At rest, which nerve innervates the heart?
Vagus nerve-10th cranial nerve
278
What muscarinic and adrenergic receptors are present on the heart?
M2 B1
279
What influence does the parasympathetic nervous system have on the heart?
Decreases heart rate (negative chronological effect) | Decreases AV node conduction velocity
280
What influence does the sympathetic nervous system have on the heart?
Increases heart rate (positive chronograph) | Increases force of contraction (positive inotropy)
281
What is the difference between what sympathetic and parasympathetic pre-ganglionic nerves innervate in the heart?
Sympathetic Innervates: SA node, AV node, myocardium Parasympathetic Innervates: SA node, AV node
282
Where are the sympathetic and parasympathetic postganglionic nerves that innervate the heart?
Sympathetic Post ganglionic nerves come from the paravertebral disc/sympathetic trunk Parasympathetic Post ganglionic nerves are within the epicardium or within walls of heart at SA node and AV node
283
Explain sensory input to the cardiovascular centre in the medulla oblongata.
Baroreceptors which are sensitive to stretch in: Carotid sinus of internal carotid artery - arterial pressure Aortic arch - arterial pressure Atrial receptors - venous pressure Sensory (afferent neurones) from the baroreceptors/atrial receptors go to the cardiovascular centre in the medulla oblongata The cardiovascular centre in the medulla oblong at a acts as a control centre and alters the activity of the efferent preganglionic nerves which go to the heart and vessels
284
What sets the rhythm of the heart?
Action potentials in the sa node | Slow depolarising pacemaker potential eventually causing the opening of Ca2+ channels responsible for upstroke
285
Describe the membrane potential changes in pacemaker cells associated with sympathetic input.
Sympathetic effect mediated by beta 1 adrenoreceptor GPCR Increase cAMP Speeds up pacemaker potential--->Increases slope
286
Describe the membrane potential changes in pacemaker cells associated with decreases in heart rate.
Parasympathetic effect mediated by M2 GPCR Increase K+ conductance and decrease cAMP Decreases slope of pacemaker potential
287
How does the sympathetic nervous system increase inotropy?
Noradrenaline B1 adrenoreceptors in myocardium cAMP ---> activates PKA -phosphorylation of Ca2+ channels increases Ca2+ entry during the plateau of the AP -increased uptake of Ca2+ in sarcoplasmic reticulum -increased sensitivity of contractile machinery to Ca2+ All lead to increased force of contraction
288
Does most vasculature get sympathetic or parasympathetic innervation?
Sympathetic innervation
289
How does the sympathetic nervous system cause vasodilatation?
Activating beta 2 adrenoreceptors causes vasodilation
290
Which receptors arteries and veins have to control vasodilation and vasoconstriction
a1 adrenoreceptors Coronary, skeletal and liver vasculature also have b2 adrenoreceptors
291
Increased sympathetic tone is...
Vasoconstriction
292
Decreased sympathetic tone is...
Vasodilation
293
What is the difference between adrenaline which activates alpha 1 adrenoreceptors and beta 2 adrenoreceptors in vasculature?
Alpha 1 - noradrenaline from sympathetic nervous system and circulating adrenaline at high plasma concentrations of adrenaline (higher affinity of a1) Beta 2 - circulating adrenaline at physiological concentration (higher affinity for b2)
294
Vasodilation in arteries is caused by activation of which receptors?
B2 - only some tissues eg. Skeletal muscle, myocardium and liver Usually vasodilation is just a lack of sympathetic tone
295
Vasoconstriction of arteries is caused by activation of which receptors?
Alpha 1
296
How does activation of beta 2 adrenoreceptors cause vasodilation?
Increases cAMP Activates PKA Opens K+ channels and inhibits myosin light chain kinase and phosphorylates myosin light chain kinase Relaxation of smooth muscle
297
How does activation of alpha 1 adrenoreceptors cause vasoconstriction?
Stimulates ip3 production Increase of intracellular calcium from stores and via influx of extracellular calcium Contraction of smooth muscle
298
What is the main method for ensuring adequate perfusion of skeletal and coronary muscle?
Active tissue produces more metabolites eg. Adenosine, K+, H+, increased co2 Local increases in metabolites has a strong vasodilator effect
299
The vagus nerve is just a motor neurone. | True or false.
False It is a sensory and motor neurone Sensory - from baroreceptors in aortic arch Motor - to AVN and SAN
300
When is the baroreceptor reflex important?
When maintaining blood pressure over short term | Compensates for moment to moment changes in arterial blood pressure
301
Why is the baroreceptor reflex not that useful in responding to long term increases in blood pressure?
Baroreceptors re-set to higher levels with persistent increases in blood pressure
302
Why would you not give propranolol as a drug to treat hypertension to an asthmatic?
It is a non-selective B1/B2 antagonist Slows heart rate and reduces force of contraction (b1) Acts on bronchial smooth muscle to cause bronchoconstriction (b2)
303
How can adrenoreceptors be used in the treatment of hypertension?
A1 antagonist B1-selective antagonist
304
What can muscarinic agonists be used in the treatment of?
Glaucoma | Activates constriction papillae muscle- agonises m3 receptor
305
What can Muscarinic antagonists be used in the treatment of?
Asthma, antagonises m3 receptors | Dilation of pupils for examination, antagonises m3 receptors
306
What properties of the CVS does the autonomic nervous system control?
Total peripheral resistance Distribution of flow Cardiac output - heart rate and force of contraction
307
What is the effect of venoconstriction?
Increases return of blood to the heart
308
Why can left ventricle failure cause mitral valve regurgitation?
``` LV dilation More room for blood Increased compliance Stretched mitral valve Mitral valve regurgitation ```
309
Why can mitral valve regurgitation cause left ventricle failure?
``` Blood leaks back into left atrium Increases preload More blood enters left ventricle in subsequent cycles Causes left ventricle hypertrophy Left ventricle failure ```
310
How can left atria dilation cause atrial fibrillation?
The walls of the atria stretch and there is more room for blood. Pacemaker cells become 'irritated'. Leads to atrial fibrillation
311
How can atrial fibrillation cause thrombus formation?
Individual fibrils contract not in synchrony with one another. Blood remains stagnant in the atria. Leads to thrombus formation
312
How can increased left atrial pressure lead to dysphagia?
Increase LA pressure LA dilation Oesophagus compression Dysphagia
313
How can mitral valve stenosis lead to right ventricle hypertrophy?
Increased left atrial pressure Pulmonary hypertension Right ventricle hypertrophy
314
Why are people who are born with a bicuspid form of an aortic valve more prone to aortic valve stenosis?
Mechanical stress which is usually distributed over three leaflets is now only distributed over two leaflets.
315
Why does chronic rheumatic fever cause valve stenosis?
Repeated inflammation and repair leads to fibrosis of valves and hence stenosis
316
How does aortic valve stenosis lead to syncope and angina?
``` Less blood can get through valve Increase left ventricle pressure Left ventricle hypertrophy Left sided heart failure Insufficient blood flow to CNS = syncope Insufficient blood flow to heart = heart ```
317
How can aortic valve stenosis cause microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia?
Damage to red blood cells as blood is being transported under a very high pressure through a very narrow gap
318
Which valvular disease increases pulse pressure?
Aortic valve regurgitation Blood flows back into LV during diastole Increases stroke volume Systolic pressure increases and diastolic pressure decreases
319
What are the signs of increased pulse pressure?
Bounding pulse - head bobbing and quinke's sign (nail beds change colour with pulse)
320
Which shunts allow the bypass of the pulmonary circulation?
Ductus arteriosus | Foramen ovale
321
Why is the baroreceptor reflex not sufficient for long term regulation?
Works well to control acute changes in blood pressure Does not control sustained increases because the threshold for baroreceptor firing resets after a short period- it responds to changes
322
Which of these are altered in the short term regulation OR long term regulation of blood pressure? Heart rate Total peripheral resistance Force of contraction Sodium concentration in extracellular fluid \ Give reasons why
Short term- heart rate, TPR, force of contraction To cause: vasoconstriction/dilation, changes in CO Long term-sodium concentration in extracellular fluid To cause: increase/decrease in blood volume
323
Where is renin released from?
Juxtaglomerular apparatus in kidney
324
What stimulates the release of renin?
- Reduced NaCl concentration in distal tubule - Reduced perfusion pressure in the kidney detected by baroreceptors in afferent arteriole (going into the kidney- reflects peripheral arteriole blood pressure) - Sympathetic stimulation to juxtaglomerular apparatus increases release of renin
325
State two equations that can be used to calculate mean arterial blood pressure.
Mean arterial BP = CO x TPR Mean arterial BP = diastolic pressure + 1/3 pulse pressure
326
What does the baroreceptor reflex do?
Controls and produces a rapid response to acute changes in blood pressure by: - adjusting sympathetic and parasympathetic inputs to the heart to alter CO - adjusting sympathetic input to peripheral resistance vessels to alter TPR
327
What are the four parallel neurohumoral pathways that control circulating volume and hence blood pressure?
Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system Sympathetic nervous system Antidiuretic hormone Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
328
What does angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) do? (2)
Stimulates the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II Kininase enzyme that breaks down the vasodilator bradykinin into peptide fragments so causes vasoconstriction
329
What is the main kind of receptor that angiotensin II binds to?
Angiotensin II receptor 1 (AT1) = | GPCR
330
What are the effects of angiotensin II on: 1. Arterioles 2. Kidneys 3. Adrenal cortex 4. Sympathetic nervous system 5. Hypothalamus
1. Vasoconstriction 2. Stimulates Na+ reabsorption 3. Stimulates release of aldosterone 4. Increases noradrenaline released 5. Stimulates ADH release, increasing thirst sensation
331
Where does aldosterone exert its effects?
Principal cells of collecting ducts
332
What does aldosterone do? (2)
- activates apical Na+ channel and apical K+ channel | - increases basolateral Na+ extrusion via Na+/K+ ATPase
333
What would you predict about the potassium levels in an individual who has high aldosterone levels?
Low potassium levels Aldosterone stimulates basolateral Na+/K+ ATPase to promote extrusion of Na+ into capillaries but in turn decreases K+ concentration in capillaries
334
Why can ACE inhibitors be used in the treatment of hypertension?
The inhibit ACE so - prevent the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II (so all the effects of this including release of aldosterone are inhibited) - prevent the conversion of bradykinin into peptide fragments by ACE.
335
How is the sympathetic nervous system involved in long term control of blood pressure?
High levels of sympathetic activation causes: -reduced renal blood flow: Vasoconstriction of arterioles to kidneys Decreased glomerular filtration rate-decreased Na+ excretion - activation of apical Na+/H+ exchanger and basolateral Na+/K+ ATPase in proximal convolutions tubule - stimulates renin released from juxtaglomerular renal cells
336
Where is ADH produced and released from?
Produced in hypothalamus but secreted by pituitary gland by neurocrine secretion
337
What are the effects of ADH?
- formation of concentrated urine by retaining water by leading to increased transcription of aquaporins - stimulates Na+ reabsorption by acting on the thick ascending limb and stimulating the Na+/K+/Cl- co-transporter - vasoconstriction
338
What stimulates the release of ADH?
Plasma osmolarity | Severe hypovolaemia
339
When are elevated levels of ANP found in the bloodstream?
Hypervolaemia
340
Where is ANP stored and released?
Atrial myocytes
341
What stimulates release of ANP?
High level of stretching by low pressure volume sensors in the atria
342
What are the effects of ANP?
Vasodilation of afferent arterioles Increased blood flow to kidneys to increase glomerular filtration rate Inhibits Na+ rebasorption along the nephron
343
Which long term mechanism of controlling blood pressure works in the opposite direction to other neurohumoral regulators?
Natriuretic peptides- ANP and BNP
344
Define the stages of hypertension.
Stage 1 hypertension = 140/90mmHg Stage 2 hypertension = 160/100 mmHg Severe hypertension > or equal to 180 systolic > or equal to 110 diastolic
345
What is accelerated hypertension?
A rapid increase in blood pressure which causes damage to blood vessels
346
What is the difference between primary and secondary hypertension?
Primary- cause cannot be defined | Secondary-cause can be defined
347
How can renal artery stenosis of one kidney result in hypertension?
Occlusion of the renal artery Fall of perfusion pressure in that kidney Increased renin production Activation of RAAS Vasoconstriction and Na+ retention at other kidney Hypervolaemia Hypertension
348
Give some adrenal causes of hypertension.
Cushing's syndrome- excess secretion of glucocorticoid cortisol from adrenal cortex Conn's syndrome- mineralocorticoid aldosterone secreting adenoma in adrenal cortex Tumour of the adrenal medulla-secretes catecholamines adrenaline and noradrenaline
349
Give some non-pharmacological approaches to treating hypertension.
Exercise Diet Reduced Na+ intake Reduced alcohol intake
350
Which organs are commonly affected by hypertension?
``` Brain Eyes Heart Kidneys Arteries ```
351
What effect can hypertension have on the eyes?
Hypertension causes arterial damage Leading to weakened vessels Leading to retinopathy
352
How can hypertension cause heart failure?
Increased afterload Left ventricular hypertrophy Heart failure
353
How can hypertension cause a myocardial infarction?
Increased afterload Increased myocardial oxygen demand Myocardial ischaemia Myocardial infarction
354
Describe what shock is.
Acute condition of general inadequate blood flow throughout the body
355
What is common in all types of shock?
A drop in arterial blood pressure
356
Which types of shock occur due to a fall in cardiac output?
Cardiogenic shock Mechanical shock Hypovolaemic shock
357
Which types of shock occur due to a drop in total peripheral resistance?
Anaphylactic shock | Septic shock
358
List some common causes of cardiogenic shock.
MI---> damage to left ventricle Serious arrhythmias---> profound bradycardia/tachycardia Acute worsening of heart failure---> at rest, BP cannot be maintained
359
What is cardiogenic shock?
Inadequate tissue perfusion, resulting in generalised lack of oxygen supply to cells because the ventricle cannot eject enough blood.
360
How is cardiogenic shock different to heart failure?
Heart failure is a chronic condition. With heart failure, patients have an adequate blood pressure which may change if they exert themselves but at rest, they are not in an acutely life threatening condition. Cardiogenic shock refers to acute failure of the heart to maintain cardiac output so blood pressure can no longer be maintained for vital organs to be adequately perfused, making it acutely life threatening.
361
What is cardiac arrest?
Unresponsiveness associated with lack of pulse | The heart has stopped or ceased to pump effectively
362
Can someone be in cardiac arrest if an ECG shows there is electrical activity present in their heart/
Yes- cardiac arrest can be due to a loss of electrical and/or mechanical activity Pulseless Electrical Activity= presence of electrical activity but loss of mechanical activity
363
What is asytole?
Loss of electrical and loss of mechanical activity of the heart
364
Describe how defibrillation works in the management of cardiac arrest.
Electrical current delivered to the heart Depolarises all of the cells Puts them into a refractory period Allows coordinated electrical activity to restart
365
Why is adrenaline given in the management of cardiac arrest?
Enhances myocardial function | Vasoconstriction--->increases peripheral resistance
366
What is mechanical shock?
Inadequate tissue perfusion, resulting in generalised lack of oxygen supply to cells because: - there is a restriction on filling of the heart - there is obstruction to blood flow through the lungs
367
Which type of shock can be caused by cardiac tamponade?
Mechanical shock
368
How can a pulmonary embolism lead to mechanical shock?
Embolus occludes a large pulmonary artery – Pulmonary artery pressure is high – Right ventricle cannot empty – Central venous pressure high – Reduced return of blood to left heart – Limits filling of left heart – Left atrial pressure is low – Arterial blood pressure low – Shock
369
How might an embolus reach the lungs?
• Typically due to deep vein thrombosis • Potion of thrombus breaks off • Travels in venous system to right side of the heart • Pumped out via pulmonary artery to lungs • The effect of this will depend on the size of the embolus
370
How much blood loss can the body usually tolerate without causing any signs of hypovolaemic shock?
20%
371
What does the severity of hypovolaemic shock depend upon?
Amount and speed of blood loss
372
List some common causes of hypovolaemic shock.
Haemorrhage Severe diarrhoea Vomiting Excessive loss of Na+
373
What is internal transfusion and when does it occur?
Vasoconstriction (increased TPR) reduces capillary hydrostatic pressure and there is a net movement of fluid into capillaries This occurs when there is peripheral vasoconstriction because low arterial pressure is detected by baroreceptors
374
What is the danger of the compensatory response that occurs in hypovolaemic shock?
– Peripheral vasoconstriction to increase blood pressure impairs tissue perfusion – Tissue damage due to hypoxia – Release of chemical mediators – vasodilators – TPR falls – Blood pressure falls dramatically – Vital organs can no longer be perfused – Multi system failure
375
In which type of shock would you see Warm, red extremities initially but Cold clammy extremities as it progresses
Septic shock
376
Describe the management of septic shock.
Fluid resuscitation to maintain BP | Vasosuppressants required due to peripheral vasoconstriction and leaky capillaries
377
How can septic shock cause a decrease in cardiac output in addition to a drop in total peripheral resistance?
TPR Vasodilation--->reduced arterial pressure SV Capillaries become leaky resulting in reduced blood volume
378
What is hypovolaemic shock?
Inadequate tissue perfusion, resulting in generalised lack of oxygen supply of cells due to loss of circulating fluid volume.
379
What is normovolaemic shock?
Inadequate tissue perfusion, resulting in generalised lack of oxygen supply to cells due to uncontrolled falls in peripheral resistance ie. sepsis or anaphylaxis
380
Give some features of the cells involved in the conducting system of the heart.
- consists of specialised cells (lost their contractile ability) - able to generate action potentials - conduct impulses very rapidly to all subendocardial regions of the ventricles - results in depolarisation of myocytes and coordinated contraction of atria and ventricles
381
In which direction do the ventricles depolarise?
From endocardium to epicardium (His-purkinje system is in the endocardium) Starts with the interventricular septum, following rapidly by the apex and free wall of the ventricles. Last part to be depolarised is the base of the ventricles.
382
Which group of cells in the heart have the fastest rate of depolarisation and what is the significant of this? Where is this found?
Sinoatrial node Fastest rate of depolarisation so sets sinus rhythm At junction between right atrium and superior vena cava
383
Where does electrical activity pause after coming from the sinoatrial node? Why?
Atrioventricular node At base of right atrium Slow rate of depolarisation so electrical activity is delayed here by about 120-200ms This allows time for atrial contraction
384
What is the only conducting path from the atria to the ventricles under normal conditions?
Bundle of His Continuous with AV node Atrial impulse cannot travel from atria to ventricles due to the fibrous non-conductive connective tissue separating them
385
Does the left or right bundle branch conduct slightly faster than the other? Why?
Left bundle branch because the left ventricular muscle wall is thicker.
386
What are purkinje fibres?
Fine branches of Bundle of His Rapid spread of depolarisation throughout ventricular myocardium to allow synchronised contraction (4 metres/sec)
387
Describe how excitation normally spreads through the heart.
1. The electrical events start with depolarisation of the sinoatrial node and is followed by depolarisation of the myocytes of the right and left atria. 2. The wave of depolarisation is delayed by about 100-200ms at the AV node, allowing time for atrial contraction. 3. Depolarisation can only spread from the atria to the ventricles via the Bundle of His. It is thereafter rapidly conducted to all parts of the ventricles by the His-Purkinje system.
388
What is the electrical axis of the heart?
The overall direction of the wave of depolarisation. This is directed towards the apex somewhat to the left of the inter-ventricular septum in the normal heart.
389
How does repolarisation of the heart occur?
All of the ventricular myocardial cells depolarise before any start to repolarise. Repolarisation does not follow the same sequence across the heart, as the cells at the outside of the ventricle (epicardium) repolarise first, so the direction of spread of repolarisation is opposite to that of depolarisation. (Therefore, the duration of the action potential of the cells in the epicardium is short)
390
What is an electrocardiogram?
An ECG records changes on the extracellular surface of cardiac myocytes during a wave of depolarisation and repolarisation From the surface of the body Using electrodes pasted on the skin
391
Depolarisation wave going towards the positive recording electrode. Upwards or downwards deflection on an ECG?
Upward
392
Repolarisation going away from positive recording electrode. Upward or downward deflection on an ECG?
Upward deflection
393
Depolarisation going away from the positive recording electrode. Upwards or downwards deflection on an ECG?
Downwards deflection
394
Repolarisation going towards the positive recording electrode. Upward or downward deflection on an ECG?
Downward deflection
395
What determines the amplitude of a deflection on an ECG?
The amplitude (height) of the deflection depends on • the size of muscle changing potential • how fast depolarisation occurs • how directly the wave of activity is travelling towards the electrode ◦ directly towards /away yields a large signal ◦ obliquely towards/away yields a smaller signal ◦ spread at right angles yields no signal
396
Where is the R-R interval measured and what does this indicate?
Peak to peak of R-waves Shorter interval - faster heart rate
397
Where is the QRS complex measured and what does this indicate?
Start of Q wave to end of S wave Wider QRS complexes are associated with ventricular depolarisations that are not initiated by the normal conductance mechanism. Normal QRS is less than or equal to 3 small boxes
398
Where is the P-R interval measured and what does this indicate?
Start of P-wave to start of Q wave Longer P-R intervals indicate slow conduction from the atria to the ventricle (first degree heart block) Normal PR interval = 3-5 small boxes
399
Where is the ST segment measured and what does this indicate?
End of S wave to start of T wave The ST segment should be isoelectric. If it is raised or depressed, this indicates myocardial infarction or ischaemia.
400
Where is the Q-T interval measured and what does this indicate?
Start of Q-wave to end of T-wave A prolonged Q-T interval suggests prolonged repolarisation of the ventricles. This can lead to arrhythmias as occur in long QT syndrome. Varies with heart rate. Upper limit of corrected QT interval: 11-12 small boxes
401
What does the p wave on an ECG represent?
Start of the P wave is SA node depolarisation Majority of it is atrial depolarisation
402
What is atrial depolarisation represented as on an ECG?
P wave
403
What does the Q wave on an ECG represent?
Depolarisation of the myocardium in intraventricular septum Septum depolarises from left to right Produces a small downward deflection because it is moving obliquely away.
404
What does the R wave on an ECG represent?
Depolarisation of apex and free ventricular wall upward because depolarisation moving directly towards electrode Large because large muscle mass – more electrical activity If left ventricle was hypertrophies – Then R wave will be correspondingly taller
405
What does the S wave represent?
End of depolarisation as depolarisation has spread to the base of the ventricles. Downwards because moving away Small because not moving directly away
406
What does the T wave represent?
Ventricular repolarisation Upward because it is repolarisation moving away from the electrode
407
Which waves of an ECG would you use to infer about what is occurring in ventricular muscle?
QRS complex
408
Which region on an ECG represents the pause of electrical activity at the AV node and conduction via Bundle of His?
Flat line segment
409
How many electrodes are placed on the body for an ECG and where are they placed? How many views/leads of the heart does this generate?
10 electrodes 4 on the limbs 6 on the chest 12 views of the heart
410
Which ECG leads are looking at the inferior surface of the heart?
Lead II, III, aVF
411
Which leads look at the left side (lateral) of the heart?
Lead I and aVL | V5 and V6
412
Which lead is a mirror image of lead II?
aVR
413
What are the limb leads in an ECG? | In what plane do they view the heart?
Leads II, III, aVF - inferior view Leads I, aVL - LHS view Lead aVR - mirror image of lead II Vertical plane
414
What are the chest leads in an ECG?
V1 and V2 - septal leads face the right ventricle and septum V3 and V4 - anterior leads face the apex and anterior wall of ventricles V5 and V6 - lateral leads face the left ventricle
415
Which leads look at the right ventricle and septum of the heart?
V1 and V2
416
Which leads look at the apex and anterior wall of ventricles?
V3 and V4
417
How can you tell if an ECG is in sinus rhythm?
Sinus rhythm = depolarisation initiated by sinus node - is the rhythm regular? - heart rate? (60-100bpm) - are there p waves? - are p waves upright in leads I, II? -Is PR interval is normal (3-5 small boxes)? - is every p wave followed by QRS? - every QRS preceded by a p wave? - normal QRS width (≤3 small boxes)
418
Is sinus arrhythmia pathological?
No. Sinus rhythm changes with respiration so small irregularity is not seen as pathological, it is good because it shows the sympathetic nervous system is working.
419
How is heart rate calculated from a rhythm strip for a regular heart rhythm?
Heart rate = 300/how many large squares there are between each R wave
420
How is heart rate calculated from a rhythm strip for an irregular heart rhythm?
Find number of QRS complex in 6 seconds (30 large squares) | Then x 10
421
Why may there be an abnormal heart rhythm?
- abnormal impulse formation | - abnormal conduction
422
Where in the heart may rhythms arise from?
Supraventricular rhythms - sinoatrial node - ectopic atrial foci - atrioventricular node Ventricular rhythms -ventricle
423
How are supraventricular rhythms conducted and how do they present on an ECG?
Conducted into and within ventricles by His-Purkinje system Normal ventricular depolarisation Normal (narrow) QRS complex Depending on origin of impulse, P wave will vary
424
How are ventricular rhythms conducted and how do they present on an ECG?
- from a focus/foci in ventricle - conduction not via normal His-purkinje system - depolarisation takes longer - wide (> 3 small boxes) QRS complex - rhythms from different foci will have different shapes - depending on the origin of the impulse, the P wave and QRS complex will vary allowing us to diagnose the arrhythmia
425
What is an ectopic impulse?
Ectopic impulses from subsidiary pacemakers are normally suppressed by more rapid impulses from above. However, if an ectopic focus depolarises early enough, prior to the arrival of the next sinus impulse, it may “capture” the ventricles, producing a premature contraction. Premature contractions (“ectopics”) are classified by their origin — atrial (PACs), junctional (PJCs) or ventricular (PVCs).
426
What is the rate of a normal sinus rhythm?
60-100 beats per minute
427
What is the rate of sinus bradycardia?
< 60 beats per minute
428
What is the rate of sinus tachycardia?
>100 beats per minute
429
What happens to electrical conduction in atrial fibrillation?
* Multiple atrial foci (supraventricular escape rhythm) * Impulses are random and chaotic * Atria quiver rather than contract * Impulses arrive at AV node at rapid irregular rate * Only some conducted to ventricles at irregular intervals when the AV node is not refractory * Ventricles depolarise and contract normally
430
How does atrial fibrillation present on an ECG?
* Absence of isolectric baseline (Wavy baseline) * No p waves * Irregular R-R intervals * QRS complex normal (narrow) * Irregularly irregular rhythm
431
What are the physiological consequences of atrial fibrillation?
• CO maintained in most cases as atrial contraction only accounts for 10% of filling in diastole • Blood remains stagnant in the appendage of the atria • Clots form in the atria ◦ Left atria- embolism in peripheral arteries eg. cerebral arteries ---> stroke ◦ Right atria- embolism in the pulmonary artery
432
What is heart block?
Heart block = AV conduction block | Delay or failure of conduction of impulses from the atria to the ventricles via the AV node and Bundle of His
433
What is an escape rhythm?
When an alternative pacemaker takes over the role of the SAN in initiating the heart beat.
434
What can cause heart block?
- most commonly, acute MI | - degenerative changes
435
In which type of heart block are ventricular escape rhythms involved?
Complete heart block/third degree heart block
436
What happens in first degree heart block and how is it presented on an ECG?
What happens? • Delay at AV node and Bundle of His Presentation on ECG? • P wave normal • PR interval prolonged > 5 small squares (0.2 seconds) • QRS normal
437
What is Mobitz type 1/Wenkebach phenomenon second degree heart block and how does it present on an ECG?
What happens? -Delay at AV node and one beat is not transmitted to allow the AVN to repolarise Presentation on ECG? - progressive lengthening of PR interval > 5 small squares - until one P is not conduced - cycle begins again
438
What causes mobitz type 1/wenkebach phenomenon second degree heart block?
Ischaemic damage
439
What happens in mobitz type 2 second degree heart block and how does it present on an ECG?
What happens? -AV node fails to conduct heart beat with no warning Presentation on ECG? - PR interval normal (3-5 small squares) - sudden absent QRS complex
440
Does mobitz type 1 or mobitz type 2 second degree heart block have a high risk of progression to complete heart block?
Mobitz type 2
441
What happens in third degree heart block/complete heart block and how is this presented on an ECG?
What happens? • Atrial depolarisation is normal • Impulses are not conducted to ventricles at all • Ventricular pacemaker (slower to depolarise) takes over (ventricular escape rhythm) • Heart rate is often too slow to maintain blood pressure and perfusion Presentation on ECG? • P waves present • P-P intervals constant (about 93 bpm) • R-R intervals constant and much slower (about 37 bpm) • P-R intervals variable from beat to beat- P waves have no relationship with QRS complex • Wide QRS complexes • Very slow rate (30-40 beats per minute)
442
Both atrial fibrillation and ventricular fibrillation result in a significant loss of cardiac output. True or false.
False Atrial fibrillation doesn't usually result in a significant loss of cardiac output as atrial contraction only accounts for the final 10% of filling of the ventricles.
443
What happens to form a ventricular ectopic beat and what are the consequences of this on depolarisation of the ventricles?
* Ectopic focus in ventricle muscle which randomly produces a beat (this is not a ventricular escape rhythm which would occur after a pause and is regular- it is ONE random beat initiated in the ventricles in between normal beats which are conducted by the SAN which occurs as cells in the ventricle have been able to depolarise before conduction of depolarisation from the SAN- usually due to ischaemia) * Impulse not spread via fast His-purkinje system * Slower depolarisation of ventricle
444
How does a ventricular ectopic beat present on an ECG?
Wide QRS complex (> 3 small boxes) in the middle of sinus rhythm QRS complex different in shape to usual QRS
445
What is the difference between an ectopic beat and an escape rhythm?
An ectopic beat is one random beat initiated somewhere other than the SAN in between normal beats conducted by the SAN An escape rhythm occurs after a pause and is regular
446
What are the consequences of ventricular ectopic beats?
Usually asymptomatic and normal
447
What happens in ventricular tachycardia and how does it present on an ECG?
What happens? • Run of 3 or more ventricular ectopics • It is a broad complex tachycardia Presentation on ECG? • Run of 3 or more abnormally shaped, wide QRS complexes
448
What are the consequences of ventricular tachycardia?
* Persistent ventricular tachycardia is a dangerous rhythm that requires urgent treatment * High risk of ventricular fibrillation
449
How is ventricular tachycardia treated?
Use defibrillator to depolarise all of the heart muscle cells and put them into a refractory period so that the SAN depolarises first and a sinus rhythm is established
450
What is ventricular fibrillation and how does it present on an ECG?
What happens? • Abnormal, chaotic, fast ventricular depolarisation • Impulses from numerous ectopic sites in ventricular muscle • No co-ordinated contraction • Ventricles quiver • No cardiac output Presentation on ECG? - no recognisable QRS complexes - no heart beat/pulse
451
What are the consequences of ventricular fibrillation?
Cardiac arrest
452
How is ventricular fibrillation treated?
Use defibrillator to depolarise all of the heart muscle cells and put them into a refractory period so that the SAN depolarises first and a sinus rhythm is established CPR
453
Why can people live a normal life with atrial fibrillation but ventricular fibrillation causes cardiac arrest?
Atrial depolarisation is where impulses are conducted irregularly to ventricles. - ventricular depolarisation occurs - coordinated ventricular contraction occurs - cardiac output is present - pulse and heart rate is irregularly irregular Ventricular fibrillation is where ventricular depolarisation is chaotic - no coordinated ventricular contraction - no cardiac output - no pulse or heart beat - require CPR and immediate defibrillation to restore rhythm
454
In what condition is the pulse and heart rate irregularly irregular?
Atrial fibrillation
455
What causes myocardial ischaemia and which part of the muscle is most vulnerable to ischaemia?
-reduced perfusion of myocardium due to coronary atherosclerosis -major coronary arteries lie on epicardial surface so subendocardial muscle is furthest away and most vulnerable to ischaemia • Flow is during diastole- if diastole is short (rapid heart rate), there is less time for flow when arteries are narrowed (atherosclerosis) • Does not affect all parts of the heart • Changes may only be seen during exercise (STABLE ANGINA) . If severe reduction of lumen size, there are ischaemic changes at rest (UNSTABLE ANGINA)
456
How does myocardial ischaemia (NSTEMI) present on an ECG?
• Changes seen in leads facing affected area • Need to look at P-QRST in all 12 leads • Ischaemia of subendocardial region---> ◦ leads facing affected area show ST segment depression ◦ T wave inversion - due to abnormal current during depolarisation
457
What causes a myocardial infarction?
* Complete occlusion of lumen by thrombus * Muscle injury extends full thickness from endocardium to epicardium * If perfusion is not re-established, muscle necrosis will follow which can be detected using blood tests
458
How does a myocardial infarction (STEMI) present on an ECG?
• Changes shown on leads facing affected area • Need to look at P-QRST for all 12 leads • Ischameia of full thickness from endocardium to epicardium---> ◦ Leads in affected area show ST segment elevation - abnormal repolarisation
459
How does a previous myocardial infarction present on an ECG?
Pathological large Q wave > 1 small square wide > 2 small squares deep Depth more than a quarter of the height of the subsequent R wave
460
Pathological Q waves on an ECG (>1 small square wide) (>2 small squares deep) Indicate...
A previous myocardial infarction
461
ST depression and T wave inversion on an ECG indicate...
Ischaemia of subendocardial region | NSTEMI
462
ST elevation indicates...
Ischaemia of full thickness from endocardium to epicardium | STEMI
463
What is hyperkalaemia?
plasma potassium >5.5mmol/L
464
What are the effects of hyperkalaemia on action potentials in cardiomyocytes?
>5.5 mmol/L plasma potassium More K+ in extracellular environment than usual Ek is less negative Resting membrane potential is less negative Cardiomyocyte action potential: -is narrower -slower upstroke - Na+ channels are inactivated Heart is less excitable as hyperkalaemia worsens Conduction problems
465
How does hyperkalaemia present on an ECG?
7mmol/L - high T wave 8 mmol/L - prolonged PR interval, depressed ST segment, high T wave 9mmol/L - P wave absent, AV block 10mmol/L - ventricular fibrillation
466
What is hypokalaemia?
< 3.5 mmol/L
467
What is the effect of hypokalaemia on action potentials in cardiomyocytes?
Less K+ in extracellular environment than usual Ek is more negative than usual Resting membrane potential is more negative Effect on action potentials in cardiomyocytes: -downstroke slower - allosteric effect of K+ channels so K+ enters more slowly -wider action potential -early after depolarisations - some cells repolarise more quickly than others Early after depolarisations can lead to ventricular fibrillation
468
How does hypokalaemia present on an ECG?
``` 3.5mmol/L = low T wave 3mmol/L = low T wave, high U wave 2.5mmol/L = low T wave, high U wave, low ST segment ```
469
What is the difference between the P-R interval and the P-R segment?
P-R interval Start of P wave to beginning of Q wave P-R segment End of P wave to beginning of Q wave
470
What is a left cardiac axis deviation?
The overall direction of ventricular depolarisation is upward and to the left.(
471
When do you get left cardiac axis deviation? (3)
1. Conduction block of the anterior branch of the left bundle 2. Inferior MI (left anterior descending artery affected) 3. Left ventricular hypertrophy
472
What is a right axis cardiac axis deviation?
When the overall direction of ventricular depolarisation is downwards and to the right (>+90degrees)
473
When do you get right cardiac acids deviation?
1. Right ventricular hypertrophy | 2. RHS MI (right anterior descending artery affected)
474
How does left axis deviation present on an ECG?
Look at leads I, III, aVF If QRS is positive in lead I and negative in aVF, it is left axis deviation Lead I and Lead aVF are leaving each other (start with lead I)
475
How does right axis deviation present on an ECG?
Look at QRS in leads I, III, aVF QRS in lead I is negative and positive in lead III or aVF Lead I and aVF are reaching for each other (start with lead I)
476
If someone has a normal cardiac axis (-30 degrees to +90 degrees), how would leads I and and aVF appear?
QRS complexes positive in both
477
Lead I is positive. Lead aVF is negative. | What does this show?
Left cardiac axis deviation
478
Lead I is negative. Lead aVF is positive. | What does this show?
Right cardiac axis deviation
479
Patient is experiencing pain slightly to the left hand side of their chest which is worse when coughing and breathing Other symptoms: - cough with mucus - breathlessness - feeling generally unwell - high temperature Diagnosis?
Respiratory problem. Probably... Pneumonia (Inflammation of the tissue in one or both of the lungs usually caused by bacterial infection)
480
Patient has sudden well localised sharp pain in their chest which is worse when breathing or coughing. Other symptoms: - sudden shortness of breath - feeling light headed - pain, redness and swelling in right calf - coughing Diagnosis?
Pulmonary embolism (DVT has broken off, entered the right atrium and lodged in the pulmonary artery causing a blockage in the pulmonary circulation)
481
Patient has poorly localised, retrosternal, central chest pain which radiates to the jaw, neck and shoulders. The quality of the pain is dull, feels like a 'heaviness' in the chest. This pain is aggravated by exertion. Diagnosis?
Ischaemic damage to the heart | Lack of blood supply to the heart secondary to ischaemic heart disease
482
Patient has retrosternal, central chest pain localised to the front of the chest. The quality of the pain is sharp. The pain is worse when lying flat, when breathing and coughing. It is relieved when sitting up and leaning forward. Diagnosis?
Pericarditis Inflammation of pericardial sac often secondary to a viral illness Pericardial rub may be heard on auscultation
483
What does saddle-shaped ST elevation on an ECG indicate?
Pericarditis
484
Patient has a sharp pain their chest which radiates to their back. What condition is this a typical presentation of?
Aortic dissection Tear in the wall of the aorta so blood flows in between the layers of the blood vessel leading to aortic rupture and decreased blood flow to organs
485
Patient has a burning, central chest pain which feels as though it is running up the chest. It is worse when lying flat and after eating certain foods. Which condition is this a typical presentation of?
Acid reflux from stomach into oesophagus
486
Patient has sharp, well localised chest pain on one side of their chest. This area is tender to palpate. It is worse during inspiration and when coughing. What condition is this a typical presentation of?
Rib fracture or costochondritis
487
What is the difference between pleural/pericardial pain and ischaemic chest pain?
Pleural/pericardial pain is somatic. -there are sensory impulses through somatic spinal nerves Pleura - intercostal and phrenic nerves Pericardial - phrenic nerves -It is well localised and sharp -it is aggravated by movement of the chest wall (inspiration and coughing) Ischaemic chest pain is visceral. - there are sensory impulses through autonomic nerves with pain in organs - it is poorly localised and dull - it is aggravated by exertion
488
Describe the pathophysiology of ischaemic heart disease.
- Begins with atherosclerosis - Build up of fat in the walls of the arteries over time. - Coronary arteries are small so does not take long for this fatty deposit to narrow the lumen. - Fibrous cap forms on top of this fatty deposit - This fibrous cap can rupture
489
What are the risk factors for ischaemic heart disease?
``` Modifiable risk factors: • Smoking • Hypertension • Hypercholesterolaemia • Diabetes • Obesity • Sedentary lifestyle ``` Non-modifiable risk factors: • Advanced age • Family history • Male
490
What is stable angina?
Pathophysiology? Fixed narrowing of coronary artery due to atherosclerosis. What? Heart tissue ischaemia only when metabolic demands of cardiac muscle are greater than what can be delivered via coronary arteries.
491
Patient has retrosternal, central chest pain. Quality is dull. Worse with exertion. Relieved by rest. Patient does not look particularly unwell and clinical examination is normal. What is this a typical presentation of?
Stable angina Fixed narrowing of coronary artery due to atherosclerosis. Heart tissue ischaemia only when metabolic demands of cardiac muscle are greater than what can be delivered by coronary arteries.
492
How is stable angina treated?
GTN spray - relieves pain
493
What is unstable angina?
Pathophysiology Narrowing of coronary artery due to atherosclerosis. What? Heart tissue ischaemia at rest as usual metabolic demands cannot be delivered by coronary arteries.
494
Patient has retrosternal, central chest pain. Quality is dull Pain occurs at rest It is worse with exertion. Patient has noticed an acute deterioration in what causes it to come on, previously mild exercise did not cause chest pain but now it does. On clinical examination, patient appears sweaty, anxious and pale. What is this a typical presentation of and what are the implications of this?
Unstable angina Risk of deteriorating further ---> NSTEMI/STEMI Heart may fail and CO may be compromised
495
How is unstable angina managed?
GTN spray does not relieve pain | Patient admitted to hospital for surgical intervention
496
Patient has dull, severe retrosternal central chest pain. Pain occurs at rest and persists for longer than 15 mins. It is worse with exertion. Patient has noticed acute deterioration in what causes it to come on. Previously, mild exercise did not cause chest pain but now it does. Nothing makes it better. Patient appears generally unwell and there is noticeable increased sympathetic output - sweaty, pallor, nauseous. What is this a typical presentation of?
Myocardial infarction
497
What are acute coronary syndromes?
Acute myocardial ischaemia caused by atherosclerotic coronary artery disease. Atheromatous plaques rupture with thrombus formation causing an acute increased occlusion in an already partially occluded lumen leading to ischaemia. It is a spectrum of increasing occlusion from a common pathophysiological mechanism.
498
Which of these does an acute coronary syndrome include? - stable angina - unstable angina - NSTEMI - STEMI
All except stable angina
499
Describe the investigations for MI.
ECG -look at ST segments, T waves, pathological Q waves Blood tests -troponin - indicates cardiac myocyte death (NSTEMI/STEMI)
500
An ECG shows ST segment elevation and hyperacute T waves. What does this indicate?
STEMI has occurred minutes-hours ago
501
An ECG shows ST elevation and T wave inversion. What does this indicate?
STEMI has occurred hours-1 day ago
502
How would unstable angina and a NSTEMI present on an ECG. | How would you determine whether the diagnosis is unstable angina or NSTEMI?
Presentation on ECG? • ST segment depression • T wave flattening or inversion Check troponin • NSTEMI = positive because there is cardiomyocyte death • STEMI = negative because there is no cardiomyocyte death
503
What is heart failure?
Heart failure is a state ‘in which the heart fails to maintain an adequate circulation for the needs of the body despite an adequate filling pressure’. In heart failure the heart can no longer produce the same amount of force (or cardiac output) for a given level of filling
504
What are the causes of heart failure?
It is often the final and most severe manifestation of nearly every form of cardiac disease • Ischaemic heart disease (coronary artery disease) is the primary cause • Hypertension • Non-ischaemic dilated cardiomyopathy ◦ Infectious- viral, bacterial, myobacterium ◦ Alcohol/drugs/poisoning ◦ Pregnancy ◦ Idiopathic • Valvular heart disease/congenital • Restrictive cardiomyopathy eg. Amyloidosis • Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy • Pericardial disease • High-output heart failure - heart cannot keep up with CO required • Arrhythmia
505
What is arrhythmia?
Heart beat is irregular, too fast or too slow.
506
How can we increase cardiac output?
1. Increase preload (venous capacity). Increase end diastolic volume to increase stroke volume. 2. Decrease afterload (aortic and peripheral impedance. Decrease end stroke volume to increase stroke volume. 3. Increase contractility. Decrease end stroke volume to increase stroke volume. 4. Increase heart rate
507
How can preload be changed to increase cardiac output?
``` Increase preload (venous capacity). Increase EDV. Increase stroke volume. The force developed in the myocardium depends on the degree to which the fibres are stretched (or the heart is filled). Within a physiological range, the greater the venous pressure, the larger the ventricular volume during diastole, the more the fibres are stretched before stimulation and the greater the force of the next contraction. (Frank-Starling Law) ``` PROOF Muscle is passively stretched and then stimulated to contract while its ends are held at fixed positions (isometric contraction). The total tension, generated by the fibres is proportional to the length of the muscle at the time of stimulation as stretching causes there to be greater overlap between actin and myosin.
508
How can afterload be changed to increase cardiac output?
``` Decrease afterload (aortic and peripheral impedance) . Decrease ESV. Increase stroke volume. The pressure generated by the ventricle and the size of the chamber at the end of each contraction depends on the load against which the ventricle contracts but is independent to the stretch on the myocardial fibres before contraction. ``` PROOF Fibres are allowed to shorten during stimulation against a fixed load (isotonic contraction). The final length of the muscle at the end of contraction is determined by the magnitude of the load and is independent of the length of the muscle before stimulation.
509
How can contractility be changed to increase stroke volume?
Increase contractility. Decrease ESV. Increase stroke volume. Contractility reflects chemical and hormonal influences on cardiac contraction. The sympathetic nervous system affects contractility by the release of adrenaline/noradrenaline Increased contractility increases the cycling rate of actin-myosin cross bridge formation. PROOF When contractility is enhanced, the relationship between initial fibre length and force is shifted upwards so that a greater total tension develops with isometric contraction at any given preload. When contractility is enhanced, the fibre contracts to a greater extent and achieves a shorter final fibre length with isotonic contraction at any given afterload.
510
What is normal CO, SV, ESV, EDV and hence ejection fraction?
``` CO = 5 litres/min SV = 75ml LV end systolic volume = 75ml LV end diastolic volume = 150ml Ejection fraction = 50% + ```
511
What is the difference between systolic dysfunction and diastolic dysfunction?
``` Diastolic dysfunction (decreased EDV)- preserved ejection fraction 1. Impaired ventricular relaxation and filling ``` Systolic dysfunction (increased ESV)- reduced ejection fraction 2. Increased afterload 3. Impaired ventricular contractility Many patients demonstrate both systolic and diastolic abnormalities.
512
What are the causes of systolic dysfunction due to increased afterload?
1. Advanced aortic stenosis 2. Uncontrolled severe hypertension This chronic pressure overload causes an increased resistance to flow.
513
What are the causes of systolic dysfunction due to impaired contractility?
1. Coronary artery disease (MI, transient myocardial ischaemia) 2. Chronic volume overload (mitral regurgitation, aortic regurgitation) 3. Dilated cardiomyopathies These cause destruction of myocytes, abnormal myocyte function or even fibrosis resulting in reduced ability of the myocytes to contract.
514
What are the common causes of diastolic dysfunction?
Impaired diastolic filling: 1. Left ventricular hypertrophy 2. Restrictive cardiomyopathy 3. Myocardial fibrosis 4. Transient myocardial ischaemia 5. Cardiac tamponade These either impair early diastolic relaxation which is energy dependent or increase the stiffness of the ventricular wall.
515
How is a change in contractility change the Starling curve?
A decrease in contractility is seen as a shallower slope on the frank starling curve.
516
What happens in systolic heart failure?
End diastolic volume increases. Stroke volume decreases. Normal venous return is added to the increased end systolic volume that has remained in the ventricle due to incomplete emptying. End diastolic volume increases above normal End systolic volume remains elevated. Reduced ejection fraction There is a compensatory rise in stroke volume to remain cardiac output End diastolic volume increases further and there is a high end diastolic pressure. During diastole, pressure is transmitted to the atrium through the open mitral valve/tricuspid valve to Pulmonary veins and capillaries from the left ventricle ---> pulmonary oedema Systemic veins and capillaries from right ventricle ---> systemic oedema To cope with the increased volume, hypertrophy of the ventricle occurs. Eccentric hypertrophy - synthesis of new sarcomeres in series with the old causing the myocytes to elongate. The radius of the ventricular wall enlarges proportional to the increase in wall thickness.
517
What happens as a consequence of left ventricular systolic function?
* High end diastolic volume ---> increased LV capacity (capacity>150ml) * Reduced end systolic volume and reduced ejection fraction---> Reduced cardiac output (compensatory mechanism to increase CO by increasing end diastolic volume is not sufficient)
518
How is the capacity of the left ventricle increased as in left ventricular systolic dysfunction?
Dilation of the left ventricle via thinning of the myocardial wall ◦ Fibrosis and necrosis of myocardium ◦ Activity of matrix proteinases
519
What is the significance of thinning of the myocardial wall and dilation of the left ventricle in left ventricular systolic dysfunction?
* Further loss of muscle---> loss of contractility * Conductive tissue may affected ---> uncoordinated or abnormal myocardial contraction ---> cardiac arrhythmias • Changes to the extracellular matrix Increase in collagen (I, III) from 5% to 25% Slippage of myocardial fibre orientation • Changes of cellular structure and function ◦ Myocytolysis and vacuolation of cells ◦ Myocyte hypertrophy ◦ Sarcoplasmic reticulum dysfunction ◦ Changes to calcium availability and receptor regulation * Mitral valve incompetence * Greater exposure to neuro-hormonal activation
520
What happens in diastolic heart failure?
In diastole, filling of the ventricle is dependent on higher than normal pressures. Pressure transmitted to the atrium through open mitral/tricuspid valves to Pulmonary veins and capillaries capillaries from left ventricle ---> pulmonary oedema Systemic veins and capillaries from right ventricle ---> systemic oedema To cope with the increased pressure, the myocardium hypertrophies. Concentric hypertrophy - synthesis of new sarcomeres in parallel with the old so the wall thickness increases without proportional chamber dilatation.
521
Who tends to get diastolic heart failure?
Elderly and female | Often history of hypertension/diabetes/obesity
522
Which side of the heart does diastolic heart failure tend to affect?
Left ventricle as it is this ventricle that is under higher pressure so more likely to be less compliant due to left ventricle hypertrophy, myocardial fibrosis, transient myocardial ischaemia etc. Left ventricle filling becomes dependent on high left atrial pressure. Right ventricle systolic dysfunction can result from high left atrial and pulmonary artery pressure
523
Right sided heart failure rarely occurs on its own.
True
524
What are the symptoms of left sided heart failure?
• Dyspnea = breathlessness on exertion due to pulmonary venous congestion and decreased cardiac output • Dulled mental status reduced cerebral perfusion • Impaired urine output decreased renal perfusion • Orthopnea = laboured breathing while lying flat relieved by sitting upright (how many pillows do you use when you sleep?) redistribution of intramuscular blood from lower portions of the body to the lungs after lying down • Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea = severe breathlessness that awakens the patient from sleep gradual resorption into the circulation of lower extremity interstitial oedema after lying down with expansion of intravascular volume and increased venous return to heart and lungs • Lethargy decreased cardiac output
525
What would a typical clinical examination of a patient with left sided heart failure show?
• Tachycardia increased sympathetic nervous system activity • Basal pulmonary crackles popping open of small airways during inspiration that had been closed off by oedema fluid • S3 or S4 S3= in adults with systolic heart failure caused by abnormal filling of the dilated chamber S4= late diastolic sound from forceful atrial contraction into a stiffened ventricle common where there is increased LV compliance in diastolic dysfunction
526
In what kind of heart failure is S3 and S4 heard? Why?
``` S3= in adults with systolic heart failure caused by abnormal filling of the dilated chamber S4= late diastolic sound from forceful atrial contraction into a stiffened ventricle common where there is increased LV compliance in diastolic dysfunction ```
527
Why is the right ventricle able to accept a wider range of filling volumes without marked changes in its filling pressure than the left ventricle?
It is a thin-walled highly compliant chamber that accepts blood at low pressures and ejects against a low pulmonary vascular resistance.
528
Why is the right ventricle more susceptible to failure when there is a sudden increase in afterload compared to the left ventricle? Give an example of when this happens.
Acute pulmonary embolism | It has a thin wall that's relatively less muscular.
529
The most common cause of right-sided heart failure is the present of left-sided heart failure. Why?
Left sided heart failure increases pulmonary vascular pressure. This increases afterload for the right ventricle. Leads to right sided systolic heart failure.
530
Isolated right heart failure is less common. When might this occur?
Diseases of the lung parenchyma or pulmonary vasculature.
531
What are the symptoms and signs of right sided heart failure?
Relate to distension and fluid accumulation in areas drained by the systemic veins: - fatigue, dyspnoea, anorexia, nausea - increased jugular vein pressure - tender, smooth hepatic enlargement - dependent pitting oedema - ascites - pleural effusion
532
What compensatory mechanisms are present in patients with hear failure to buffer the fall in cardiac output and help preserve blood pressure to perfuse vital organs?
Long term control of blood pressure is via neurohormonal alterations: 1. Sympathetic nervous system 2. Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system 3. Increased production of ADH 4. ANP However, these have the effect of making an already struggling heart work harder.
533
What are the effects of arteriolarconstriction on TPR and CO?
Increases TPR but decreases CO BP = TPR x CO
534
What are the long-term deleterious effects of the sympathetic nervous system in a patient with heart failure?
Chronic sympathetic release of noradrenaline causes: • down-regulation of cardiac β-adrenergic receptors and up-regulation of inhibitory G proteins, contributing to a decrease in the myocardium's sensitivity to circulating catecholamines and a reduced inotropic response • Induces cardiac hypertrophy myocyte apoptosis and necrosis • Stimulates RAAS • Reduction in heart rate variability---> increased risk of cardiac arrhythmias
535
What are the long-term deleterious effects of angiotensin II and aldosterone?
Chronically elevated levels of AII and aldosterone have additional detrimental effects. They provoke the production of cytokines (small proteins that mediate cell–cell communication and immune responses), activate macrophages, and stimulate fibroblasts, resulting in fibrosis and adverse remodeling of the failing heart.
536
Describe what endothelin is and how it changes in heart failure.
Secreted by vascular endothelial cells. Causes local vasoconstriction There are increased levels in patients with heart failure so is used as a prognostic sign as it correlates with indices of severity.
537
Describe how natriuretic peptide release is affected in heart failure. Why is it beneficial?
Elevated ANP/BNP demonstrates there is a high level of stretching of the heart. This is caused by increased stroke volume which occurs in systolic heart failure. Therefore, ANP/BNP can be used to diagnose heart failure along with other factors.
538
How do prostaglandins E2 and I1 change in patients with heart failure?
They increase in concentration as their production is stimulated by noradrenaline and RAAS They act as vasodilator on the afferent renal arterioles to attenuate effects of noradrenaline and RAAS Taking NSAIDS blocks synthesis of these and reduces vasodilation.
539
How does nitric oxide change in heart failure?
It is a potent vasodilator produced by endothelial cells via NO synthase. In heart failure, NO synthase may be blunted There is a loss of vasodilation balance
540
What does bradykinin do to decrease blood pressure?
Promotes natriuresis Vasodilation Stimulates production of prostaglandins
541
How does tumour necrosis factor (alpha-TNF) change in heart failure?
Increased in heart failure | It depresses myocardial function and has a role in cachexia
542
How is there increased vasoconstriction in patients with heart failure?
* Increased sympathetic output * RAAS * Reduced NO * Increased endothelin
543
What does increased vasoconstriction lead to in patients with heart failure?
- reduction of skeletal muscle mass - renal failure - anaemia
544
What is the consequence of increasing arteriolar blood pressure in patients with heart failure?
Afterload increases and this decreases stroke volume decreasing cardiac output further.
545
How can increasing heart rate further reduce the performance of the failing heart?
It increases the metabolic demand of the heart
546
Give an equation that links Osmotic pressure Hydrostatic pressure Net filtration pressure
Net filtration pressure = hydrostatic pressure - osmotic pressure
547
Is peripheral oedema a sign of right or left sided heart failure?
Peripheral oedema occurs due to right-sided heart failure. Failure of the right side of the heart to pump effectively raises venous pressure and therefore capillary pressure. An increased capillary hydrostatic pressure favours the movement of water out of the capillaries.
548
Is pulmonary oedema a sign of right or left sided heart failure?
Pulmonary oedema occurs due to left sided heart failure Failure of the left side of the heart to pump effectively raises left atrial pressure and thus the pressure of vessels in the pulmonary system. Since these vessels have a low resistance this also causes an increase in pulmonary artery pressure. Presentation: -breathless
549
Why would diuretics be used to treat left sided heart failure?
Diuretics • Promote elimination of Na+ and water through the kidney • Reduce intravascular volume • Reduce venous return to heart • Reduced end-diastolic volume without a significant decrease in SV. Preload is decreased • Diastolic pressure of left ventricle falls out of the range that causes pulmonary congestion Limitations Only used where there is peripheral oedema or pulmonary congestion due to the risk of decreasing stroke volume too much that cardiac output will be compromised (especially in a patient operating on the steep portion of the frank-starling curve- best used when on flat portion where it is moved towards the steep portion)
550
Why are venous vasodilators used to treat right sided heart failure?
--->Venous vasodilators - nitrates • Increase venous capacitance • Decrease venous return to the heart • Decrease end-diastolic volume and decrease preload • Diastolic pressure of left ventricle falls out of the range that causes pulmonary congestion Limitations Only used where there is peripheral oedema or pulmonary congestion due to the risk of decreasing stroke volume too much that cardiac output will be compromised (especially in a patient operating on the steep portion of the frank-starling curve- best used when on flat portion where it is moved towards the steep portion)
551
What are the main categories of drugs used in the treatment and management of heart failure?
Diuretics Vasodilators Inotropic drugs Beta blockers Aldosterone antagonist therapy
552
What are the types of tachycardic arrhythmia?
- ectopic pacemaker activity - afterdepolarisations - atrial flutter/atrial fibrillation - re-entry loop
553
What are the types of bradycardic arrhythmia?
- sinus bradycardia (sick sinus syndrome, extrinsic factors such as drugs) - conduction block (problems at AV node or bundle of His, extrinsic factors such as drugs)
554
What is sick sinus syndrome?
Malfunction of the sinus node Normally, the sinus node produces a regular, steady pattern of signals. With sick sinus syndrome, the pattern is irregular - they may have a heart rhythm that is too low or too fast Typically occurs in elderly people
555
What is ventricular tachycardia?
Tachycardia which originates from the Bundle of His, purkinje fibres or ventricular myocytes (ectopic pacemaker activity, afterdepolarisations)
556
What is supraventricular tachycardia?
Tachycardia which arises from the atria or AV node (atrial fibrillation/atrial flutter, re-entry loop)
557
Why is ventricular tachycardia dangerous?
Can lead to ventricular fibrillation Cardiac output cannot be maintained in ventricular fibrillation and this is a life-threatening situation which must be reversed.
558
What arrhythmia can arise due to a damaged ischaemic area of myocardium?
Ectopic pacemaker activity is activated in damaged area of ischaemic myocardium as it becomes constantly depolarised and spontaneously active. This dominates over the SA node.
559
How can arrhythmias be caused by premature firing of action potentials?
After depolarisations (triggered activity) following an action potential
560
What are delayed after-depolarisations and when do they occur?
There should be approximately a 700ms pause between one action potential and another in a cardiomyocyte. In delayed, after-depolarisations there are delayed after-depolarisations before this 700ms pause. This is likely to happen when intracellular Ca2+ is high. Eg. Drugs such as cardiac glycosides
561
The duration of an action potential is measured by what interval on an ECG?
Q-T
562
What are early after-depolarisations and when are they likely to occur?
Early after-depolarisations occur during the plateau phase of the ventricular action potential They are more likely to happen if the action potential is prolonged (longer QT interval) eg. Hypokalaemia, certain drugs
563
What causes a re-entry loop?
Incomplete conduction damage (unidirectional block) Excitation can take a long route to spread the wrong way through the damaged area setting up a circus of excitation
564
What causes atrial flutter or atrial fibrillation?
Conditions which put extra stretch or pressure on the atria eg. Mitral stenosis
565
What is the difference between atrial flutter and atrial fibrillation?
Atrial flutter - regularly irregular rhythm (sawtooth pattern) Atrial fibrillation - irregularly irregular rhythm (wavy baseline)
566
Several small re-entry loops in the atria leads to...
Atrial fibrillation
567
What is AV nodal re-entry?
Fast and slow pathways in the AV node create a re-entry loop.
568
What is Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome?
An accessory pathway between the atria and ventricles creates a fixed re-entry loop
569
What are the four classes of anti-arrhythmic drugs?
1. Na+ channel blockers 2. Beta-adrenoreceptor antagonists 3. K+ channel blockers 4. Ca2+ channel blockers
570
Describe how lidocaine works?
Class 1 - blocks voltage gated Na+ channels Damaged area of myocardium has sustained depolarisation and more Na+ channels open. Lidocaine binds to Na+ channels in open or inactive state during the phases of the refractory period of the action potential when Na+ channels should be inactive or closed. It is use-dependent (the degree of block is proportional to the rate of nerve stimulation) so preferentially blocks damaged depolarised tissue It dissociates rapidly so has little effect in normal cardiac tissue. It blocks depolarisation but dissociates in time for the next action potential.
571
When is lidocaine used?
Sometimes used following MI because damaged areas of myocardium may be depolarised and fire automatically (risk of ectopics leading to VF) Because... More Na+ channels are open in depolarised damaged tissue. Lidocaine blocks these Na+ channels that are in open or inactive form and is use-dependent. BUT not used prophylactically following MI, people showing ventricular tachycardia generally use other drugs.
572
Local anaesthetics are use-dependent. What does this mean?
The degree of block is proportional to the rate of nerve stimulation.
573
Propranolol and atenolol are examples of...
Beta adrenoreceptor antagonists
574
How do beta-adrenoreceptor antagonists work and how do they affect the heart?
Block sympathetic action by acting on beta adrenoreceptors on the heart - decrease slope of pacemaker potential in SA node - decreases heart rate - slow conduction in AV node - prevents supraventricular tachycardias and slows ventricular rate in patients with atrial fibrillation - reduces inotropy - reduces oxygen demand and hence reduces myocardial ischaemia which is beneficial for patients following an MI
575
Why are beta blockers used following a myocardial infarction?
A myocardial infarction can cause increased sympathetic input to the heart to maintain cardiac output Beta blockers decrease this sympathetic input to the heart, reducing heart rate to prevent ventricular arrhythmias from arising due to this increased sympathetic activity. Beta blockers reduce heart rate and the force of contraction which reduces the workload and hence the oxygen demand of the heart. This reduces the chance of further myocardial ischaemia.
576
How do drugs that block K+ channels work and why can they be pro-arrhythmic?
Prolongs action potential by blocking K+ channels so prevents repolarisation. This lengthens the absolute refractory period (time during which Na+ channels are in inactive state) In theory, it was thought this should prevent another action potential from occurring too soon. However, it causes early after depolarisations which can lead to arrthymias.
577
K+ channel blockers are not generally used because they can be pro-arrhythmic. Amiodarone is an exception. Why?
K+ channel blockers are not usually used because they prolong the action potential and increase the risk of early after depolarisations leading to arrhythmia. Although amiodarone is a type III anti-arrhythmic, it has other actions in addition to blocking K+ channels. Therefore, it is effective in treating supraventricular tachycardia associated with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome It is also effective at suppressing arrhythmias post-MI.
578
The upstroke of the action potential in SA node pacemaker cells is due to...
Opening of voltage gated Ca2+ channels Ca2+ influx
579
How does verapamil work?
Class IV - blocks L-type Ca2+ channels Decreases slope of action potential at SA node Decreases AV nodal conduction Decreases force of contraction (negative inotropy) (Blocks L-type Ca2+ channels in plateau phase in ventricular myocytes and this prevents high intracellular Ca2+ triggering further Ca2+ release from SR) Some coronary and peripheral vasodilation
580
How does dihydropyridine work?
L-type Ca2+ channel blocker Acts on vascular smooth muscle so causes vasodilation (Does not act on L-type Ca2+ channels in the heart because these are a different sub-type)
581
What is adenosine used to treat and how is it administered?
Doesn't fit into any of the classes Administered intravenously Useful for terminating supraventricular tachycardia
582
How does adenosine act to terminate supraventricular tachycardia?
Acts on A1 receptors (purinergic receptors) at AV node (GPCR) Has a very short half-life (10 seconds) Beta-gamma subunit binds to potassium channels and increases K+ conductance This hyperpolarises cells of the conducting tissue to prevent re-entry loops and hence atrial fibrillation/flutter.
583
What is the aim of therapeutic intervention for heart failure?
-positive inotropes to increase cardiac output (not routinely used) Cardiac glycosides - improves symptoms but not long-term outcome B-adrenergic agonists -drugs which reduce workload of the heart Reduce afterload and preload
584
Digoxin is an example of a...
Cardiac glycoside
585
How do cardiac glycosides work?
Na+/K+ exchanger blocked Intracellular Na+ concentration increases Rise in extracellular Na+ leads to decrease in activity of NCX Intracellular Ca2+ concentration increases More Ca2+ stored in SR This results in an increased force of contraction Increased vagal activity which: - slows heart rate initiated at SA node - slows AV conduction
586
When are cardiac glycosides used?
Heart failure when there is an arrhythmia such as atrial fibrillation
587
Which drug is used in cardiogenic shock?
Beta adrenoreceptor agonists eg. Dobutamine Increases myocardial contractility
588
Which drug would be used in acute but reversible heart failure eg. Following cardiac surgery?
Beta 1 adrenoreceptor agonists eg. Dobutamine Increase myocardial contractility
589
Which types of drugs reduce the workload of the heart?
Diuretics eg. ACE inhibitors (reduces preload and afterload) Beta adrenoreceptor antagonists (reduce heart rate and contractility)
590
Angiotensin II antagonists are sometimes used instead of ACE inhibitors because they do not have the side effect of a dry cough. Why?
ACE inhibitor inhibits ACE. Functions of ACE: • Breaks down bradykinin which has vasodilatory effects (causes dry cough) • Converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II so blocks the effects of angiotensin II Angiotensin II antagonist only blocks the effects of angiotensin II which includes: • Vasoconstriction • Aldosterone release
591
Why are ACE inhibitors used in the treatment of chronic heart failure?
-reduce afterload Decrease vasomotor tone --> decrease blood pressure -reduce preload Reduce fluid retention ---> reduce blood volume Reduces workload of the heart
592
What is the aim of therapeutic intervention to treat angina?
-reduce workload of the heart Beta adrenoreceptor blocker Ca2+ antagonists Organic nitrates -Improve blood supply to the heart Organic nitrates Ca2+ channel antagonists
593
The left coronary artery fills with blood during which stage of the cardiac cycle?
Diastole - backflow of blood as aortic valve closes | During systole there is pressure of the left myocardium that prevents filling
594
Give some examples of organic nitrates.
Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) Isoorbide dinitrate
595
How do organic nitrates work?
Reaction of organic nitrates with thiols in vascular smooth muscle causes NO2- to be released NO2- is reduced to NO NO a powerful vasodilator: NO activates guanylate cyclase. This increases cGMP which lowers intracellular Ca2+ causing relaxation of vascular smooth muscle MAINLY Venodilation - primarily works by dilating the veins decreasing preload Dilation of collateral coronary arteries - improving blood supply to the heart
596
Organic nitrates dilate arterioles in the treatment of angina. True or false?
False (arterioles are fully dilated in the ischaemic region)
597
Name some cardiovascular conditions which have an increased risk of thrombus formation.
Atrial fibrillation Acute myocardial infarction Mechanical prosthetic valves
598
Which drugs are used to minimise the risk of thrombus formation?
Anticoagulants: Heparin - activates antithrombin III which inhibits thrombin. Used acutely for short term action) Warfarin - antagonises action of vitamin K which is a co-factor for many clotting factors (2, 7 9 10) Anti-platelet drugs: Aspirin - inhibits cyclo-oxygenase from forming prostaglandins and thromboxane. Thromboxane causes platelet aggregation.
599
Which anti-thrombotic drug is used acutely for short term acton?
``` Heparin (IV) Fractionated heparin (subcutaneous injection) ```
600
Which anti-thrombotic drug is used following an acute MI or to patients at high risk of MI?
Aspirin - clots that form in the arterial system tend to be platelet rich
601
Which anti-thrombin drug is used in the long term prevention of thrombosis
Warfarin
602
Which drug is used in the treatment of hypertension and heart failure?
ACE inhibitors | Reduce afterload and preload
603
What are the therapeutic targets in the treatment of hypertension?
Lower blood volume Lower cardiac output Lower peripheral resistance
604
What drugs are used to treat hypertension?
``` ACE inhibitors Ca2+ channel blockers selective for vascular smooth muscle Diuretics Beta blockers Alpha 1 adrenoreceptor antagonist ```
605
What aspects of the arterial and venous system can be measured using a Doppler?
Velocity and direction of flow
606
Can a Doppler be used to measure flow?
No, flow is volume per unit time Doppler can be used to measure velocity. This can be used to infer flow.
607
Where are deep veins found?
In muscles
608
Where are superficial veins found?
Within subcutaneous fat
609
Where are perforating veins found?
Connect superficial veins to deep muscles
610
Is the direction of flow in veins from superficial to deep OR from deep to superficial?
Superficial to deep
611
What is the significance of deep fascia in the lower limb?
Deep fascia is tightly attached to muscles in one compartment. When the muscles contract, pressure increases in a compartment so blood is forced to flow in through the veins. (Calf pump)
612
What are the deep veins of the lower limb?
External iliac vein Femoral vein Popliteal vein
613
What are the superficial veins of the lower limb?
Long saphenous vein | Short saphenous vein
614
How can you find the long saphenous vein?
Anterior to the medial malleolus
615
What are varicose veins?
Varicose veins are tortuous, twisted or lengthened veins
616
Explain the pathophysiology of varicose veins.
The vein wall is inherently weak in varicose veins, which leads to dilatation and separation of valve cusps so that they become incompetent.
617
What symptoms are felt along varicose veins?
Heaviness Tension Aching Itching
618
What are the common complications of varicose veins?
Result from vein itself: - haemorrhage - thrombophlebitis Result from venous hypertension: - oedema - skin pigmentation - varicose eczema - lipodermatosclerosis - venous ulceration
619
What is thrombophlebitis?
Venous thrombosis - produces inflammatory response including pain
620
What is venous ulceration a result of?
Venous hypertension
621
What causes venous hypertension?
Calf muscle pump failure
622
What causes calf muscle pump failure?
‘Failure’ of calf muscle contraction - immobility, obesity, reduced hip, knee and/or ankle movement Deep vein incompetence Volume overload - superficial vein incompetence
623
What is the main predisposing factor for arterial thrombosis?
Abnormality of the lining of vessel wall (eg. Atherosclerosis)
624
What is the main predisposing factor for venous thrombosis?
Abnormality of flow - stasis
625
Does stasis in veins always cause venous thrombosis?
In reality, it is usually stasis plus another factor eg. Surgery Oral contraceptive pill Dehydration Cancer
626
Platelets are a major component of both arterial and venous thrombi. True or false?
FALSE Arterial thrombosis in response to bleeding involves platelets, extrinsic and then intrinsic pathways. Arterial thrombi are platelet rich Venous thrombosis does not involve platelets in a major way, initially the intrinsic pathway is involved and then the extrinsic. Venous thrombi are fibrin rich
627
What are venous thrombi rich in?
Fibrin
628
How does the body stop bleeding from high pressure arteries?
Initially vasoconstriction Platelets Extrinsic and then intrinsic pathways (Arterial thrombi are platelet rich)
629
How does the body stop bleeding in low pressure veins?
Venoconstriction Particular the intrinsic pathway and then both pathways (Venous thrombi are fibrin rich)
630
Why is cardiac pain brought on by exercise and stress in angina?
Sympathetic drive increases Heart rate increases Diastole decreases Filling of coronary arteries is during diastole, so filling of coronary arteries decreases.
631
What are the causes of calf muscle pump failure?
- failure of calf muscle contraction - immobility, obesity, reduced hip, knee and/or ankle movement - deep vein incompetence - volume overload - superficial vein incompetence
632
How can a retrograde circuit result in calf muscle failure?
Incompetence of valve in saphenous vein resulting in backflow in the saphenous vein. Blood flows through perforating veins from this superficial vein into deep veins every time blood is ejected by the calf pump. This results in calf pump failure due to volume overload.
633
Is a bounding pulse usually caused by a change is end systolic pressure or end diastolic pressure?
Usually caused by decreased end diastolic pressure Eg. Bradycardia
634
Which palpable pulse is a good representation of aortic pulse?
Carotid pulse
635
What are the signs of DVT?
Produces inflammatory response: - calor - skin warmth, pyrexia - dolor - pain, calf tenderness - functio laesa - cannot walk - rubor - blue-red discolouration - tumor - oedema Others: - muscle induration - increase in the fibrous elements in muscle resulting in reduced elasticity - distended, warm superficial veins
636
What happens to capillary hydrostatic pressure if arterioles are constricted?
Capillary hydrostatic pressure falls Pressure drop across the system is greater as you increase the resistance.
637
What happens to arterial pressure and venous pressure if arterioles are constricted?
Arterial pressure increases Venous pressure decreases
638
Why does heart failure cause oedema but hypertension generally does not?
In hypertension, arterioles are constricted. This increases arterial pressure but decreases capillary hydrostatic pressure and decreases venous pressure, if pumping remains the same. In heart failure, there is decreased venous return to the heart. This increases venous pressure and increases hydrostatic pressure in the capillaries. Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure results in more fluid leaving the capillaries than returns. This results in oedema due to a build up of tissue fluid.
639
How does left sided heart failure cause oedema?
- left ventricle cannot empty so well - left atrial pressure is higher - higher pressure in pulmonary veins and pulmonary capillaries - higher pulmonary capillary pressure causes pulmonary oedema
640
What can cause pulmonary oedema?
- increased pressure in pulmonary veins (left sided heart failure) - pulmonary hypertension
641
Systolic pressure in the arteries equates to the systolic pressure in the corresponding ventricles. Why is diastolic pressure in arteries greater than that of its corresponding ventricle?
Elastic recoil
642
How can chronic lung disease lead to right ventricular failure?
Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction ensures optimal ventilation/perfusion ratio. (Alveolar hypoxia results in vasoconstriction of pulmonary vessels - opposite to what normally happens in systemic circulation) - in chronic lung disease, there are poorly ventilated alveoli. These are less perfused by vascular resistance to optimise gas exchange. - this increases pressure in the pulmonary artery. Increases afterload - harder for right ventricle to pump ---> right sided heart failure
643
How does the pulmonary circulation respond to hypoxia differently to the systemic circulation?
Chronic hypoxia in the lungs causes smooth muscle cells in arterioles to contract. This results in vasoconstriction. (Hypoxia pulmonary vasoconstriction ensures optimal ventilation/perfusion ratio) In the systemic circulation, hypoxia triggers vasodilation to increase blood flow and hence oxygen delivery to the hypoxic region.
644
How does systolic right sided heart failure cause peripheral oedema?
- poor pumping of right ventricle - right ventricular end systolic volume is increased (systolic dysfunction) - more difficult to fill right ventricle - increased right atrial and systemic venous pressure - increased capillary hydrostatic pressure in systemic circulation ---> systemic oedema
645
Why can ACE inhibitors be used for both heart failure and hypertension?
-reduce peripheral resistance by preventing production of Ang II HF - reduced preload BP - reduced blood pressure - reduce blood volume through preventing production of AngII - HF - heart has to work less hard
646
How does stimulation of beta 2 adrenoreceptors cause vasodilation?
Adrenaline/noradrenaline binds to beta 2 adrenoreceptors and changes its conformation. The change in conformation on the activated adrenoreceptor increases its affinity for the G-alpha q protein. The GPCR-G protein interaction causes the GDP on the alpha sub-unit of the G protein to change to GTP. Once GTP binds to the alpha sub-unit, the alpha sub-unit loses affinity for the beta-gamma sub-unit so they seperate The alpha-subunit binds to phospholipase C and stimulates it. Phospholipase C converts PiP2 to IP3 and DAG. IP3 binds to IP3 receptors on the SER/SR inducing the release of Ca2+ in the cytosol from the SER/SR. Ca2+ binds to calmodulin. The Ca2+-calmodulin complex stimulates myosin light chain kinase. Myosin light chain kinase phosphorylates myosin light chain so that actin binding sites are exposed. DAG stimulates protein kinase C. Protein kinase C inhibits myosin light chain phosphatase, preventing the phosphate from being removed from myosin light chain, maintaining contraction and hence vasoconstriction.
647
Why is surgery associated with DVT?
- immobility prior to surgery - no calf muscle pump during surgery - immobility after surgery - surgery is trauma, the body's response to trauma includes a pro-thrombotic state
648
What is peripheral artery disease?
Peripheral artery disease is a disease which results in stenosed peripheral arteries. It can be acute or chronic.
649
Why might someone with chronic peripheral artery disease be asymptomatic?
Collateral circulation develops in response to a stenosis.
650
Where is natural collateral circulation particularly common?
Across joints such as elbow and knee.
651
What are the consequences of acute peripheral artery disease?
Acute limb ischaemia Fixed mottling Gangrene
652
What is the difference between acute and chronic peripheral artery disease?
Acute peripheral artery disease - the limb goes from a normal blood supply to a greatly impaired blood supply over a period of minutes. There is no chance for collateral vessel development (which takes weeks/months). Chronic peripheral artery disease - the limb goes from a normally blood supply to an impaired blood supply over months. There is a chance for collateral vessel development.
653
What is the most common cause of acute limb ischaemia?
Embolism (from heart or abdominal aortic aneurysm)
654
The limb has gone from a normal blood supply to a greatly impaired blood supply over a period of minutes. How long does the patient have for this to be reversed for the limb to be recovered?
6 hours
655
After 6 hours of greatly impaired blood supply to a limb, why does the limb have to be amputated for the patient to survive?
Dead tissue releases intracellular potassium Hyperkalaemia - makes Ek less negative, inactivates Na+ channels, slower upstroke, narrower action potential Leads to asystole
656
What are the signs and symptoms of acute limb ischaemia?
6 P's ``` Pain Paralysis Paraesthesia Pallor Perishing cold Pulseless ``` (These are the 6 P's of compartment syndrome)
657
What is fixed mottling?
Spotting with patches of colour that won't blanch It is a sign of irreversible ischaemia (dry gangrene is a late sign of irreversible ischaemia >2 weeks)
658
How does chronic peripheral arterial disease present?
-intermittent claudication (equivalent to stable angina) - critical ischaemia - --> rest pain (equivalent to unstable angina) - --> ulceration/gangrene (equivalent to myocardial infarction)
659
What does intermittent claudication mean?
Pain in the muscles of the lower limb elicited by walking and exercise Pain relieved rapidly by stopping exercise for a few minutes even whilst standing up
660
Which muscles are affected by claudication?
Calf muscles - gastrocnemius - soleus - plantaris
661
Where can you find the femoral pulse?
Mid-inguinal point Mid-way between the pubis symphysis and ASIS (REMEMBER THIS IS DIFFERENT TO THE MIDPOINT OF THE INGUINAL LIGAMENT WHERE THE FEMORAL NERVE IS)
662
Where can the popliteal pulse be found?
Deep in the popliteal fossa and is difficult to feel.
663
Where can the pedal pulses be found?
Dorsal pedis artery - lateral to the tendon of extensor hallucis longus Posterior tibial artery - just behind the medial malleolus
664
The dorsal pedis artery is a continuation of...
Anterior tibial artery
665
In a normal person with no peripheral vascular disease, which pulses should you be able to feel and where?
Femoral pulse - mid-inguinal point Popliteal pulse - popliteal fossa Dorsalis pedis pulse - lateral to tendon of EHL Posterior tibial pulse - behind medial malleolus
666
``` Patient has the following pulses absent: Femoral pulse Popliteal pulse Dorsalis pedis pulse Posterior tibial pulse ``` They are also experiencing bilateral buttock, thigh and calf claudication. Diagnosis?
Aortoilliac occlusion
667
Patient has absent right lower limb pulses They are experiencing right buttock, thigh and calf claudication Diagnosis?
Common iliac occlusion
668
What would be the signs and symptoms of a left external iliac occlusion?
Right thigh and calf claudication Absent right femoral pulse, popliteal pulse, dorsalis pedis pulse, posterior tibial pulse
669
The following pulses are absent in a patient: - popliteal pulse - dorsalis pedis pulse - posterior tibial pulse The femoral pulse is present The patient is experiencing right calf claudication. Diagnosis?
Superficial femoral artery occlusion
670
What occlusion is the commonest finding in patients with claudication?
Superficial femoral artery occlusion
671
Why do patients with rest pain due to critical ischaemia complain that it is worse at night?
- gravity is not forcing blood to feet as it would if patient was standing - metabolic activity of feet is high to keep feet warm - cardiac output is reduced when sleeping
672
Describe what is happening in rest pain caused by critical ischaemia.
Ischaemia = hypoxia due to reduced blood supply The ischaemia is so severe that at rest the foot, skin, muscles, bones are ischaemic at rest. This means that there is not enough oxygen to provide for the cells basic metabolic requirements.
673
If rest pain caused by critical ischaemia is left untreated, it will progress to...
Ulceration/gangrene
674
Why is a classic place for gangrene/ulceration on the anterior shin?
Blood supply to the anterior shin is poor
675
Do you get fixed mottling in acute or chronic ischaemia?
Acute ischaemia
676
What is substance P?
Substance P is a neuropeptide that is released locally when there is ischaemia. It increases the sensitivity of pain afferents in muscle.
677
Presenting complaint: Pain in the foot that comes on when the patient goes to bed and is relieved by hanging the foot out of the bed. Diagnosis?
Critical ischaemia - rest pain
678
In ischaemic tissue, what is thought to be a key factor in stimulating pain afferents?
Low pH Substance P (neuropeptide)
679
Ischaemia is a relative phenomenon. Explain what this means.
Degree of ischaemia depends on whether you have enough blood supply to meet metabolic demands.
680
What is the difference between ischaemia and infarction?
Ischaemia - reversible damage due to lack of oxygen Infarction - irreversible damage due to lack of oxygen with cell death (necrosis)
681
What are the different types of ischaemic damage to the heart?
Stable angina Unstable angina Myocardial infarction
682
Why might a young person with normal coronary vessels with thyrotoxicosis get angina/have an MI?
-increased heart rate Decreasing time for diastole Reduced filling of coronary arteries -increases metabolic rate Increased metabolic demand Blood supply may not be sufficient to meet this metabolic demand
683
What is the difference between ischaemia and infarction?
Ischaemia - reversible damage due to lack of oxygen Infarction - irreversible damage due to lack of oxygen with cell death (necrosis)
684
What is referred pain?
Visceral and somatic afferents synapse in similar place in spinal cord. The brain cannot tell if the pain is coming from the skin or heart.
685
The sympathetic nervous system is activated in patients with an MI. What are the signs and symptoms of this?
- diaphoresis (sweating) - nausea - systemic vasoconstriction (Pallor) - tachypnoea
686
Why is the sympathetic nervous system activated in a patient with MI?
- reduced cardiac output due to MI. Decreased arterial pressure - pain and anxiety from MI
687
What can cause palpitations?
- sinus tachycardia - increased awareness of normal heartbeat - arrhythmias
688
What is the difference between dyspnoea, orthopnoea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea?
Dyspnoea - difficulty breathing Orthopnoea - shortness of breath when lying flat Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea - shortness of breath that wakes the patient up at night
689
Why does dyspnoea occur at night and why is it relieved by sitting up?
When lying flat, increased venous return to right side of the heart. More blood is in the lungs so there is increased hydrostatic pressure and more oedema is formed.
690
What diseases apart from pulmonary oedema causes dyspnoea that is worse at night?
Asthma
691
What is a postural hypotension?
Drop in systolic pressure over 20mmHg when standing
692
What can cause postural hypotension?
``` Venous pooling Impaired vasomotor tone eg. Diabetic autonomic neuropathy Reduced muscle tone Hypovolaemia Drugs antihypertensives Addison's disease ```
693
Why might Addison's disease result in postural hypotension?
Decreased aldosterone ---> aldosterone increases transcription and activity of Na+/K+ ATPase. This increases Na+ retention and hence water retention Decreased cortisol ---> increases blood pressure
694
What is Buerger's test?
-elevation pallor In an ischaemic leg, elevation to less than 20 degrees may cause pallor -rubor of dependency Hang leg off edge of bed Leg reverts to pink colour more slowly than normal Goes through normal pinkness to reddish colour Dilation of arterioles in an attempt to get rid of metabolic waste 'reactive hyperaemia'
695
What is 'sunset foot'
Foot becomes parodoxically pink - becomes hyperaemic due to lactate causing vasodilation Can take six weeks of ischaemia to develop
696
What is the difference between moveable mottling?
Moveable mottling Press and the spots blanch because there is still some blood supply Fixed mottling Press and spots will not blanch because there is nowhere for the blood to move - capillaries are thrombosed - no blood supply
697
When would you get a regularly irregular rhythm?
2nd degree heart block - intermittent failure of conduction between atria and ventricles
698
In atrial fibrillation the strength of the pulse varies. Why?
Variable filling time of the ventricles
699
In the case of a ventricular ectopic, there is a compensatory pause. It is in fact, the next 'normal beat' that is strong and felt by the patient. Why?
There is a longer time in diastole. Ventricles are able to fill to a larger volume in diastole and pump a larger volume of blood than usual in systole End systolic pressure has increased because the ventricles are pumping a larger volume.
700
What are the causes of a thready pulse?
Poor cardiac output eg. Hypovolaemia
701
What causes a bounding pulse?
Low peripheral resistance - causes lower diastolic blood pressure Bradycardia
702
Why does raising the arm exaggerate a bounding pulse?
Increased pulse pressure as blood falls away more profoundly.
703
Why is S2 split on inspiration?
In inspiration: Chest wall moves out Diaphragm flattened Decreased (negative) pressure so air rushes into lungs and more blood drawn into right side of heart Pulmonary valve closes after aortic valve – giving a split second heart sound
704
Why can you hear right sided murmurs better on inspiration?
Chest wall moves out Diaphragm flattened Decreased pressure so air rushes into lungs and more blood drawn into right side of heart Blood flowing through tricuspid and pulmonary valves increases, therefore can hear right sided murmurs better
705
Why can you hear left sided murmurs better on expiration?
Chest wall moves in Diaphragm moves up Increases pressure so air rushes out of lungs and more blood pushed out of heart Blood flowing through mitral and aortic valves increases, therefore can hear left sided murmurs better