Case 2 Flashcards

1
Q

which parts of the spine are convex anterior?

A

cervical and lumbar

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2
Q

which parts of the spine are concave anterior

A

thoracic and sacral

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3
Q

What is kyphosis?

A

A spine that is curving drastically outwards in the thoracic region

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4
Q

What can cause kyphosis?

A

Erosion of the anterior part of 1 or more vertebrae

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5
Q

What is lordosis?

A

A spine that is curving drastically inwards at the lumbar region

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6
Q

what can cause lordosis?

A
  • Weakened trunk muscles
  • Obesity
  • Pregnancy
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7
Q

What is the spinous process of the vertebrae?

A

Bony projection that is directed backward and downward from the junction of the lamina

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8
Q

What are articular processes of the vertebrae?

A

Projections of the vertebrae that serve the purpose of fitting with adjacent vertebrae

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9
Q

What are transverse processes of the vertebrae? what attaches to them?

A

Lateral bony projections.

The ribs attach to them, as well as muscles and ligaments

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10
Q

What is the shape of the body of a cervical vertebra?

A

rectangular body

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11
Q

Is the superior aspect of a cervical vertebra concave or convex?

A

concave

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12
Q

Is the inferior surface of a cervical vertebra concave or convex?

A

convex

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13
Q

what is the shape of the vertebral foramen of cervical vertebrae?

A

triangular

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14
Q

Describe the spinous process of cervical vertebrae?

A

Short and usually bifid

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15
Q

What is the shape of the body of a thoracic vertebra?

A

columnar

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16
Q

What shape is the body of a thoracic vertebra in superior view?

A

heart-shaped

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17
Q

what is the shape of the vertebral foramen of thoracic vertebrae?

A

circular and small

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18
Q

What is the shape of the body of a lumbar vertebra?

A

massive columnar

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19
Q

What shape is the body of a lumbar vertebra in superior view?

A

Kidney shaped

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20
Q

what is the shape of the vertebral foramen of lumbar vertebrae?

A

triangular and intermediate in size

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21
Q

What are the three solid rods formed by the mesoderm after the notocord has developed?

A

paraxial mesoderm
intermediate mesoderm
lateral plate mesoderm

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22
Q

what does the lateral plate mesoderm segregate into?

A

somatic mesoderm and splanchnic mesoderm

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23
Q

What are the blocks of tissue formed by paraxial mesoderm and how many are there?

A

Somites, 44

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24
Q

What are the three regions that a somite develops into?

A
  • sclerotome
  • dermatome
  • myotome
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25
Q

what does sclerotome develop into? (sclerotomal somitic mesoderm)

A

vertebral bone, cartilage, annulus fibrosis of the intervertebral disc

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26
Q

What does the dermatomal somitic mesoderm develop into?

A

dermis portion of the skin overlying the vertebral column

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27
Q

What does the myotomal somitic mesoderm develop into?

A

deep back and neck muscles associated with vertebral column

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28
Q

what does the notocord form in the intevertebral disc?

A

Nucleus pulposus

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29
Q

What is the nucleus pulposus?

A

the expansion of the notocord within the IV disk

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30
Q

What does the nucleus pulpuosis become surrounded by?

A

circularly arranged fibres constituting the annulus fibrosus

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31
Q

when do condrification centres appear in each vertebra?

A

6th week

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32
Q

what is the shape of the vertebral foramen of thoracic vertebrae?

A

afferent sensory neurons.

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33
Q

What type of nerve does the ventral root contain?

A

efferent motor neurons

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34
Q

Where do spinal nerves leave the vertebrae?

A

Through the intervertebral foramen.

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35
Q

What is a white ramus communicante?

A

Sympathetic fibres that carry information out of the spinal cord, to the sympathetic ganglion

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36
Q

What does a white ramus communicans connect

A

A sympathetic ganglion and its corresponding spinal nerve. When it enters the sympathetic ganglion it can travel up or down.

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37
Q

what type of nerve fibres do white ramus communicans contain?

A

myelinated pre-ganglionic sympathetic fibres.

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38
Q

What is a grey ramus communicante?

A

Sympathetic fibres that carry information from the sympathetic ganglion to the effector organ

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39
Q

What type of nerve fibre do grey ramus communicans contain?

A

unmylinated post-ganglionic sympathetic fibres.

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40
Q

What do grey ramus communicans originate from?

A

a sympathetic ganglion

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41
Q

What level does the spinal cord finish?

A

L2

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42
Q

what is the name given to the end of the spinal cord

A

Conus medullaris

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43
Q

what is the continuation of bundle of nerve fibres below the conus medullaris?

A

Cauda equina

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44
Q

What does a spinal nerve split into once it has passed through the intervertebral foramina what areas do the resultant structures innervate?

A

It splits into a dorsal and vetral ramus these innervate structures in front of and behind the vertebral column respectively.

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45
Q

what does the dorsal ramus of the spinal cord innervate?

A

structures posterior to the vertebral column

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46
Q

what does the ventral ramus of the spinal cord innervate?

A

structures anterior to the vertebral column

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47
Q

what is a dermatome?

A

an area of skin that is mainly supplied by a single spinal nerve

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48
Q

what are most abundant, unencapsulated nerve endings or encapsulated?

A

Unencapsulated

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49
Q

what is the combination of a nerve and its encapsulation often referred to as?

A

corpuscle

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50
Q

What information do ascending white matter tracts convey?

A

Sensory information to the brain.

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51
Q

What information do descending white matter tracts convey?

A

Voluntary motor control

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52
Q

How many laminae can the grey matter of the spinal cord be divided into.

A

10

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53
Q

How many lamina can the dorsal horn of the spinal cord be divided into?

A

6

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54
Q

What laminae constitute the superficial dorsal horn?

A

I & II.

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55
Q

What is the alternate name for lamina II of the grey matter?

A

The substansia gelatinosa

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56
Q

What is used to define the different laminae of the grey matter of the spinal cord?

A

Cell size.

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57
Q

What do laminae VII through IX of the grey matter contain?

A

The cell bodies of motor neurons, interneurones and the primary afferents from muscles and joints (proprioceptive afferents)

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58
Q

What are the three ascending systems in the spinal cord?

A
  • anterolateral system
  • dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathway
  • tracts to cerebellum
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59
Q

What are the three main ascending tracts of the somatosensory system?

A

The dorsal column, the spinothalamic tract and the spinocerebellar tract.

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60
Q

What system does the spinothalamic tract come under?

A

-Anterolateral ascending system

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61
Q

what information does the spinothalamic tract convey?

A

pain temperature, non-disciminitive touch, temperature, pressure

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62
Q

What are the two tracts of the spinothalamic tract?

A

Ventral and lateral

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63
Q

what does the lateral spinothalamic tract convey?

A

pain and temperature

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64
Q

What does the ventral spoinothalamic tract convey?

A

non-discriminitve touch and pressure

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65
Q

Where do the 1st order neurones carrying pain temperature, non-disciminitive touch, temperature, pressure synapse?

A

Sunstantia gelatinosa of the dorsal horn of the spinal cord

66
Q

What tract may fibres ascend of descend in when they first enter the spinal cord?

A

Lissauer’s tract

67
Q

Where does the second order neurone decussate? (carrying information about pain temperature, non-disciminitive touch, temperature, pressure )

A

anterior white commissure

68
Q

Where do the lateral and ventral spinothalamic tracts ascend to?

A

ventral posterior nucleus of the thalamus

69
Q

What is the role of the dorsal column?

A

To convey information about discriminative touch, vibration and propriception

70
Q

What is the role of the spinocerebellar tract?

A

to convey information regarding proprioception.

71
Q

What type if nerve fibre is the spinocerebellar tract mediated by?

A

A-alpha fibres.

72
Q

What do the three main ascending pathways all have in common?

A

They all have four neurons and they all decussate (cross over to the contralateral side). In each of the three pathways it is the second order neuron that decussates.

73
Q

Where does the 1st order neurone carrying disciminitve touch and vibration synapse?

A

nucleus gracilis or cuteatus in the medulla

74
Q

what are the two divisions of the dorsal column?

A

fasiculus gracilis and fasiculus cuneatus.

75
Q

What is more medial, fasiculus gracilis or fasiculus cuneatus

A

fasiculus gracilis

76
Q

Where do the second order neurons of the dorsal column pathway decussate?

A

medulla

77
Q

Where do the second order neurons of the dorsal column pathway ascend to?

A

ventral posterior nucleus of the thalamus

78
Q

What does the second order neuron of the dorsal column travel via?

A

The medial lemniscus pathway

79
Q

What are the four brodmann’s areas of the somatosenrsory cortex?

A

1, 2, 3a and 3b

80
Q

How much of the input from ventroposterior thalmus do brodmann’s areas 1&2 and 3a&3b receive respectively?

A

30% and 70%

81
Q

What type of input does area 3b of the somatosensory cortex receive?

A

Cutaneous input.

82
Q

What type of information does area 3a of the somatosensory cortex receive?

A

Proprioceptors in muscles.

83
Q

What type of input does area 2 of the somatosensory cortex receive? what is it though to be important for?

A

Proprioceptors in joints. It is thought to be important for stereogenesis.

84
Q

What type of input does area 1 of the somatosensory cortex receive? What is it thought to be important for?

A

input from rapidly adapting cutaneous mechanoreceptors. It is thought to be important for texture discrimination.

85
Q

What are the four types of nerve endings that are though to be important for fine touch and proprioception?

A

Meiseners corpusles, Pacinian corpusles, Ruffini endings and Merkel endings.

86
Q

What is the specialty of the meisener corpuscle?

A

Detection of vibrations between 10 and 50Hz

87
Q

What is the specialty of the pacinian corpuscle?

A

Detection of vibrations around 250 Hz. They are far more sensitive to changes in pressure rather than consistent force. They are thought to be very important in the detection of pressure.

88
Q

What is the specialty of a ruffini ending?

A

Stretch reception, it responds better to sustained pressure.

89
Q

What is the specialty of a merkel ending

A

Detection of low frequency vibration 5-15 Hz

90
Q

Where do the first order neurons of the spinocerebellar tract synapse?

A

Clarks nucleus.

91
Q

What is the course of the second order neuron of the spinocerebellar tract?

A

It ascends the spinal cord to the cerebellum without decussating it then enters the cerebellum via the inferior cerebellar peduncle and terminates on purkinje cells.

92
Q

What are the three components of the nociceptive system?

A
  • peripheral nociceptive system
  • central nociceptive system
  • corticothalamic networks
93
Q

What are the main functions of the nociceptive system?

A

protect the body from damage

inform the body when activity is putting excessive strain on the body

94
Q

what are the three distinct types of pain?

A

Nociceptive/acute pain
Prolongued pain
Chronic pain

95
Q

What is another name for chronic pain?

A

Neuropathic

96
Q

what is another name for prolongued pain?

A

Inflammatory

97
Q

What is the function of prolonged/inflammatory pain?

A

To prevent further damage

98
Q

What is an example for prolonged/inflammatory pain?

A

sunburn

99
Q

How does chronic pain differ from other types of pain?

A

It is different as it results from dysfunction or damage to the nervous system itself it is notably more difficult to treat, it also does not have a protective function

100
Q

What is epicratic pain?

A

Fast, sharp pain

101
Q

what is protopathic pain?

A

Long-lasting second pain

102
Q

What type of fibre typically transmits fast pain?

A

A-delta.

103
Q

What type of fibre typically transmits slow pain

A

C fbers

104
Q

What is a polymodal receptor?

A

A receptor sensitive to more than one kind of stimulus.

105
Q

Which type of fibres are polymodal?

A

C fibres

106
Q

Which fibre has the biggest diameter? A-delta or C

A

A-Delta

107
Q

Are A-delta fibre myelinated?

A

Thinly myelinated

108
Q

Are C fibres myelinated

A

no

109
Q

What are the different types of A-delta fibres?

A

mechanical and thermal

110
Q

what do C fibres respond to?

A

chemical, mechanical and thermal stimuli

111
Q

What does cell damage cause?

A

release of chemical mediators that can cause pain

112
Q

What is the most powerful chemical mediator in causing pain?

A

Bradykinin

113
Q

What substance made in anaerobic respiration can stimulate nociceptors?

A

lactic acid

114
Q

what do prostaglandins do to pain receptors?

A

Increase the sensitivty of them

115
Q

What is the axon reflex?

A

C-fibres transmit action potentials down their own branches back to the skin, leading to the release of chemical mediators

116
Q

What is the result of chemical mediators released in the axon reflex?

A

Induce protein extravasation and vasodilation

117
Q

where is nociceptive information transmitted to in the dorsal grey horn?

A

Nociceptive-specific neurones in rexed lamina 1 and 2

118
Q

Other than Nociceptive-specific neurones, where as can pain be transmitted to?

A

Wide dynamic range neurones

119
Q

What neurotranmitter do type A fibres use?

A

glutamate

120
Q

What neurotransmitter do type C fibres use?

A

glutamate and substance P

121
Q

what is peripheral sensitization?

A

reduction in the threshold for nociceptor activation

122
Q

what is central sensitization?

A

activity-dependent increase in the excitability of the CNS

123
Q

What causes peripheral sensitization?

A

An inflammatory ‘soup’ that activates receptors on nociceptos and makes them more sensitive to stimuli

124
Q

What is hyperalgesia?

A

A stimulus is perceived as more painful than is should be

125
Q

What is primary hyperalgesia?

A

decreased pain threshold at the core site of injury

126
Q

what is secondary hyperalgesia?

A

Decreased pain threshold surrounding the core site of injury

127
Q

what type of fibre is primary peripheral sensitisation mediated by?

A

C fibres

128
Q

What type of stimuli is primary hyperalgesia responsive to?

A

thermal and chemical stimuli

129
Q

what type of fibre is secondary peripheral sensitisation mediated by?

A

A-beta

130
Q

What type of stimuli is secondary hyperalgesia responsive to?

A

mechanical

131
Q

what is the process of central sensitization?

A

A-beta fibres now produce pain due to changes in sensory processing (i.e after a stimulus is picked up by A-beta fibres, it is changes to a pain signal at the level of the spinal cord)

132
Q

What is modulation of pain?

A

Where ascending painful information is supressed

133
Q

Wha are the two types of modulation of pain?

A
  • segmental (local) antinociception

- Supraspinal (widespread) antinociception

134
Q

How does TENS work?

A

delivers stimuli to stimulat alpha-beta fibres in hope that they will activate inhibitory neurones of lamina II (gate control theory)

135
Q

What are the areas of the brainstem involved in supraspinal antinociception?

A
  • periaqueductal gray (PAG)
  • nucleus raphe magnus (NRM)
  • locus coeruleus
136
Q

Where is the PAG located?

A

Midbrain and upper pons, surrounds the cerebral aqueduct

137
Q

Where is the nucleus raphe magnus located?

A

Lower pons and upper medulla

138
Q

where is the locus coerulus located?

A

Posterior area of rostral pons

139
Q

What initiates supraspinal antinociception?

A

Spinoreticular tract signals to the NRPG

140
Q

What kind of neurones does the PAG contain?

A

enkephalinergic neurones

141
Q

what is enkephalin?

A

Pentapeptide

142
Q

what are the two types of enkephalin?

A
  • one contains leucine

- one contains methionine

143
Q

In supraspinal antinociception, what nuclei descend to the spoinal cord?

A
  • NRM / nucleus raphe magnus

- LC / locus coeruleus

144
Q

In supraspinal antinociception, what neurotransmitter does LC and NRM release in the spinal cord?

A

Serotonin

145
Q

What is neuralgia?

A

Neuropathic pain

146
Q

What is lacking in neuropathic pain?

A

A pianful stimulus/transduction

147
Q

What is allodynia?

A

Pain arises from a touch that should not cause pain

148
Q

What is hyperalgesia?

A

A painful stimulus is felt more painfully than is should be

149
Q

what is paraesthesia?

A

unpleasant or painful feelings even when nothing is touching you

150
Q

What is a prolapsed disk?

A

nucleus pulposus bulges out

151
Q

what direction does the nucleus puplosus usually bulge in a prolapsed disc?

A

posterolaterally

152
Q

why does nucleus puplosus usually bulge out posterolaterally in a prolapsed disc?

A

annulus fibrosis is relatively thin

153
Q

where do most prolapsed discs occur?

A

L4-5 or L5-S1

154
Q

What percentage of prolapsed discs occur at L4-5 or L5-S1

A

95%

155
Q

What factor contributes to L4-5 or L5-S1 being the most common area for a prolapsed disc?

A

-movements are greater in this region

156
Q

What is the most common nerve affected in a prolapsed disk?

A

Sciatic nerve

157
Q

What two mechanisms cause sciatica?

A
  • direct pressure

- chemicals which incite inflammation

158
Q

what are osteophytes?

A

Bone spurs

159
Q

What is the pharmological treatment for sciatica?

A

NDAIDs and painkillers

160
Q

What is a discectomy?

A

Removal of the herniated nucleus pulposus

161
Q

Why might you still feel back pain after a discectomy?

A

Formation of scar tissue near the nerve root