Cassidy's patient care review

Question 1

what is informed consent? when is it required?
what is the rule? what must be explained?

Answer 1

patients have the right to make informed decisions regarding their care
required for interventional procedure
information must be in that patients primary language (for understanding)
risks & alternatives procedures

Question 2

what is implied consent? how do we obtain this?

Answer 2

consent generally used for simple procedures
patient shows up for exam, agrees to details, confirms identity & follows the requests

Question 3

what are the patient’s rights?

Answer 3

high quality hospital care
clean & safe environment
involvement in your care
protection of privacy

Question 4

what is a living will? DNR? Healthcare proxy?

Answer 4

spells out medical treatments you would/don’t want, preference in medical decisions, & pain management/ organ donation
do not resuscitate
person designated to make medical decisions for the patient

Question 5

what is torts?
what are the different types?

Answer 5

patient claims they have been wronged or sustained injury (other than breach of contract)
assault; patient believes they have been threatened in a way that causes fear or bodily harm
battery; any unlawful touching (can occur even without injury)
false imprisonment; restrained against their will
defamation; protected health information is released (scorn, ridicule, or contempt)

Question 6

what is slander? libel?

Answer 6

spoken (SS)
written

Question 7

what is fraud? breach of privacy? negligence? standard of care?

Answer 7

willful/intentional misrepresentation of facts that could cause harm/ loss in rights & property
sharing of protected health information without patients consent
failure to use care as a reasonably prudent person would use in same situation
radiology tech put themselves at risk performing a task outside there scope of practice (defined by ASRT practice standards for medical imaging/radiation therapy)

Question 8

what are the interpersonal communication?

Answer 8

paralanguage, body language, professional appearance, visual contact, & age groups

Question 9

what are these sayings?
Res ipsa loquitor:
Respondeat superior:

Answer 9

“the thing speaks for itself”; only explanation for the injury is the medical procedure/staff
“master speaks for the servant”; physician/ institute is responsible

Question 10

how should we approach pediatrics?

Answer 10

come down to their level
speak softly
set up equipment before child enters the room

Question 11

how should we approach adolescents?

Answer 11

modesty is important
get them involved
speak to them as an adult (8+)

Question 12

how do we approach geriatrics?

Answer 12

assume that all body functions are decreased
speak clearly & slowly
keep them comfortable

Question 13

what is the rule regarding base support? where is the center of gravity located?
what is the general principles of lifting?

Answer 13

wider is better
level of second sacral segment (safest place to hold an object while moving)
communication is key & patient should do as much of the work as possible

Question 14

what is work-related musculoskeletal disorders?

Answer 14

work disorders caused by repetition (most commonly sonography) or single event (patient falling)

Question 15

what are the vital signs for these?
Oral:
Axillary:
Tympanic:
temporal:
rectal:
hypothermia:
hyperthermia:

Answer 15

98.6
97.6
97.6
100
99.6
oral temp below 97.7
oral temp higher than 99.5

Question 16

what is the respiratory rate of a child? adult? tachypnea? bradypnea?

Answer 16

20-30 breaths per min
12-20 breaths per min
fast breathing
slow breathing

Question 17

what is the pulse rate of adult? child? what is tachycardia? bradycardia?
what is the oxygen saturation range?

Answer 17

60-100 BPM
70-120 BPM
fast pulse rate
slow pulse rate
95-100%

Question 18

what is the normal blood pressure? what is diastolic? systolic? what is hypotension? hypertension?

Answer 18

120/80
heart at rest (in-between pumps)
heart pumping
below normal blood pressure
above normal blood pressure

Question 19

what should we be alert for changes in a patients:
what are the different types of shock?

Answer 19

level of conciseness, demeanor, pain level, respiration, & speech patterns
cardiogenic; cardiac disorders (MI)
hypovolemic; loss of blood/fluids
vasogenic; anaphylaxis (most common is radiology)
neurogenic; spinal cord damage

Question 20

what are the types of pathogens?

Answer 20

bacteria; microscopic single celled organisms that reside in a host as a group/cluster called a colony; strep throat/food poisoning
viruses; microscopic organisms that infect hosts (humans/plants/animals); flu colds, covid
fungi; single celled (very complex) multicellular organisms; athletes foot or thrush
parasitic protozoa; neither plant nor animal but larger than a bacteria; malaria (number one source of death globally)

Question 21

what is the chain of infection order?

Answer 21

pathogen; bacteria, viruses, fungi, or parasitic protozoa
reservoir; a place for a pathogen to thrive (people, plants, animals, soil, food or water)
portal of exit; any route a pathogen can leave the reservoir (coughing/sneezing, bodily secretions, or feces)
modes of transmission; direct contact (person to person), droplet (pathogen to be transferred through air from its reservoir in droplet of body secretions (relatively large & will fall with suspension after 3-6 feet of travel), bloodborne (transmitted through blood), airborne (occurs from pathogens smaller than five microns that remain suspended in air long after infected person has left), vector (insects), fomites (inanimate objects)
portal of entry; any route a pathogen uses to enter host (mouth, nose, eyes, cuts in skin)
susceptible host; depends on many factors such as age & health status (elderly, infants, immunocompromised, anyone)

Question 22

what is the standard precautions for nosocomial prevention with hand washing? hand rubbing?

Answer 22

40-60 seconds
20-30 seconds

Question 23

what is the donning of PPE? removal?

Answer 23

gown, mask, goggles, gloves (GMGG)
gloves, goggles, gown, & mask (GGGM)

Question 24

what is MSDS? what is internal & external contamination?

Answer 24

material safety data sheets
internal; ingested
external; spilled on

Question 25

what is the chemical name? generic name? trade name? what are the routes of drug administration?

Answer 25

identifies chemical structure of drug name given to drug when commercially available name given based on specific company topical; drug directly on skin enteral; drug through digestive system (oral, sublingual, buccal, or rectal) parenteral; drug administration through anything but digestive system, usually a needle or syringe (intradermal; skin, intramuscular; muscle, subcutaneous; fat, intravenous; veins)

Question 26

what are the needle diameters? what are the lengths? how should you insert a needle? what is infiltration? extravasation?

Answer 26

gauges from 14-28 (smaller number= bigger diameter) length varies from 0.25-5 inches; 1-1.5 in most common next to the vein at 15–30-degree angle medicine leaking in soft tissue without irritation medicine leaking in soft tissue with irritation

Question 27

what are the different contrast agents? what are the contraindications?

Answer 27

negative; air (radiolucent) positive; barium & iodine (radiopaque) bowel perforation (barium) & allergy (ionic contrast)

Question 28

what are anaphylactoid reactions?

Answer 28

side affects; warm feeling/metallic taste mild; nausea, vomiting, mild urticaria (hives) moderate; severe vomiting, extensive urticaria, dyspnea (SOB), laryngeal edema (swelling) severe; pulmonary edema (fluid build up in lungs), cardiac arrhythmias/arrest (abnormal heart beats)

Question 29

what are these lab values? BUN: creatinine: GFR:

Answer 29

7-20 (or 8-25) mg/dL (2.5-7.1 mmol/L is considered normal) 88-128 mL/min for women, 97-137 mL/min for men 75-116 (decreases with age)