Catch All Flashcards
(292 cards)
1
Q
Anatomical and functional unit of the nervous system
Consists of a nerve cell body, dendrites, and an axon
A
Neuron
2
Q
Groups of neurons located in a specific region of the brain or spinal cord that have a similar appearance, receive information from similar sources, project their axons to similar targets, and share similar functions
A
Nucleus
3
Q
Many axons grouped together, which typically pass from a given nucleus to a common target region or to several regions
A
Tract
4
Q
White matter consists of _____
Gray matter consists of ______
A
Myelinated axons / neuronal cell bodies
5
Q
Nonneural cells forming the interstitial tissue of the nervous system
A
Glial cells
6
Q
Three connective tissue coverings surrounding the CNS
A
Meninges
7
Q
Fluid-filled spaces within the CNS
A
Ventricles
8
Q
Where does the corticospinal tract cross?
A
Lateral: pyramidal decussation (caudal medulla)
Anterior: at the level of the spinal segment
9
Q
Corticospinal tract function
A
Voluntary movement of upper and lower limbs
10
Q
Where are the medullary pyramids located?
A
On either side of the continuation of the anterior median fissure in the caudal medulla
11
Q
Positive Babinski indicates a lesion in which tract?
A
Corticospinal
12
Q
Main excitatory neurotransmitter
A
Glutamate
13
Q
Main inhibitory neurotransmitter
A
GABA
14
Q
Steps of glutamate-mediated synaptic transmission
A
- Glutamine–>Glutamate via glutaminase in mitochondria
- Released via vesicles into synaptic cleft
- Effects
- Glutamate is taken up by glial cells and converted to glutamine
- Glutamine transported to presynaptic terminal and the cycle starts over
15
Q
Why is glutamate converted to glutamine in the postsynaptic terminal?
A
To keep glutamate levels low in synaptic cleft
16
Q
Which ion channels does glutamate bind to?
A
NMDA
Kainate
AMPA
17
Q
Steps of GABA-mediated synaptic transmission
A
- Glutamate converted to GABA by glutamic acid decarboxylase
- Stored and released via vesicles from presynaptic cell
- Effects
- Taken up by postsynaptic and glial cells
- Glial mitochondria convert GABA to glutamine
- Repeat cycle
18
Q
What ion channel does glycine affect?
A
Cl-
19
Q
How is glycine formed?
A
Glucose forms serine, which forms glycine via serine trans hdroxymethylase
20
Q
Fast synaptic transmission
A
Ionotropic
21
Q
Slow synaptic transmission
A
Metabotropic
22
Q
Which ion channels are ionotropic?
A
NMDA
AMPA
Kainate
23
Q
NMDA co-agonists
A
D-serine
Glycine
24
Q
GABA stimulates _____ channels. What are the effects?
A
Cl-
Hyperpolarizing and inhibitory
25
GABA-A
```
POSTsynaptic specific recognition sites
Linked to Cl- channel
Mediate FAST inhibitory transmission
Responsible for RAPID MOOD CHANGES
Regulate neuronal excitability
```
26
GABA-B
PREsynaptic autoreceptors
Mediated by K+ currents
Mediate SLOW inhibitory transmission
Effects on MEMORY AND MOOD (depression) and PAIN RESPONSE
27
Excessive glutamate effects
Damage to postsynaptic cells due to increased influx of Ca2+ via NMDA-R
28
How can neurotransmitter levels induce seizures?
Excitation --> Glutamate, Aspartate --> inward Na+, Ca2+ currents
Inhibition --> GABA --> inward Cl-, outward K+
29
Sedative-hypnotics exert effects on which neurotransmitter?
GABA-A
30
Anterolateral second order neuron
Nucleus proprius in Laminae III and IV
31
Where does the anterolateral tract cross?
Anterior white commissure of spinal level
32
Where do fasciculus gracilis and cuneatus cross?
Medial lemniscus of caudal medulla
33
Where does the dorsal spinocerebellar tract cross?
It doesn't
34
Where does the ventral spinocerebellar tract cross?
Crosses TWICE
1. In the spinal cord
2. In the pons (after joining superior cerebellar peduncle)
35
Dorsal spinocerebellar tract function
Provide cerebellum with info about status of individual muscles and muscle groups
36
Ventral spinocerebellar tract function
Provide cerebellum with info about whole limb movements and postural adjustments
37
Bilateral segmental loss of pain is the result of damage to....
The region surrounding the central canal. This is due to damage to the crossing fibers of the lateral spinothalamic tracts (on each side).
38
Occlusion of opthalmic artery results in .....
Vision loss in ipsilateral eye
39
Which arterial branch is associated with depression?
Frontopolar branch of anterior cerebral artery
40
Blood supply for...
Medial aspect of brain
Sensory/motor for lower limbs
Corpus callosum
Olfactory bulb/tract
Anterior cerebral artery
41
Blood supply for...
Lateral aspect of brain
Sensory/motor for trunk, face, upper limbs
Broca's and Wernicke's areas
Middle cerebral artery
42
Blood supply for...
Visual cortex
Midbrain
Thalamus
Posterior cerebral artery
43
AICA occlusion leads to...
Ipsilateral hearing loss/tinnitus
Vertigo, nystagmus
Ipsilateral loss of sensation to face
Ipsilateral facial paralysis
44
Which nerve is very close to AICA and superior cerebellar artery?
CN VI
45
PICA occlusion leads to...
Dysphonia, dysarthria, dysphasia
Wallenberg syndrome
Damage to nucleus ambiguus
46
Destruction of anterior white commissure leads to...
Bilateral loss of pain/temp in upper extremities
47
Destruction of the lateral corticospinal tracts leads to...
Spastic paralysis
Hyperreflexia
Hypertonia
This is a UMN LESION
48
Destruction of the anterior horns leads to....
LMN LESION
Flaccid paralysis
Areflexia
Hypotonia
Atrophy
49
Destruction of the posterior columns leads to...
Ipsilateral loss of proprioception and 2-point tactile sensations (affects the cuneatus/gracilis tracts)
50
What is the major neurotransmitter of the PNS, neuromuscular junction, parasympathetic nervous system, and preganglionic sympathetic fibers?
Acetylcholine
51
Where is the largest concentration of acetylcholine in the CNS?
Basal nucleus of Meynert in the forebrain
52
How is acetylcholine related to Alzheimer's?
The basal nucleus of Meynert degenerates in Alzheimer's
53
Which neurotransmitter is depleted in Parkinsons patients?
Dopamine
54
Which neurotransmitter is increased in patients with schizophrenia?
Dopamine
55
Where is dopamine found in the CNS?
Arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus
56
What are the two major dopamine receptors?
D1: postsynaptic, excitatory, activate adenylate cyclase
D2: pre and postsynaptic, inhibitory, inhibit adenylate cyclase
57
Antipsychotic drugs block which receptors?
D2 dopamine receptors
58
What is the major neurotransmitter of postganglionic sympathetic neurons?
Norepinephrine
59
Which drugs enhance norepinephrine transmission?
Antidepressants
60
Where are serotonin-containing neurons found in the brain?
Raphe nuclei
61
What is the major endorphin in the brain and what is its function?
Beta-endorphin inhibits pain transmission and produces feelings of euphoria
62
What are the most widely distributed and abundant opiate peptides?
Enkephalins
63
What is the function of enkephalins?
Pain suppression
64
What is the major function of opiate peptides?
Moderate pain
65
What are the opiate peptides?
Endorphins, enkephalins, dynorphins
66
What is the major inhibitory neurotransmitter of the brain?
GABA
67
What is the major inhibitory neurotransmitter of the spinal cord, brainstem, and retina?
Glycine
68
Which receptors does acetylcholine act on?
Nicotinic
69
Where is dopamine formed?
Brainstem (reticular formation)
70
How is norepinephrine formed?
Formed from dopamine by dopamine beta-hydroxylase
71
What regulates the amount of NT released from the axon terminal?
Presynaptic autoreceptors
72
Activation of presynaptic autoreceptors ______ the amount of NT released.
Inhibits/reduces
73
Inactivation of presynaptic autoreceptors ______ the amount of NT released.
Increases
74
Cocaine and amphetamine block the reuptake of which NTs?
Dopamine and norepinephrine
75
Which enzyme converts glutamate to GABA?
Glutamic acid decarboxylase
76
Which enzyme converts glycine to serine?
Serine trans hydroxymethylase
77
GABA stimulates _____ channels
Cl-
78
Which GABA is responsible for rapid mood changes?
GABA-A
79
Which GABA has effects on memory, mood, and pain response?
GABA-B
80
What is glutamate excitotoxicity?
Excess glutamate causes damage to the postsynaptic cells due to increased influx of Ca2+ via NMDA-R. This is what happens in Huntington's disease.
81
Most likely location of lesion in isolated hand weakness
Precentral gyrus/motor cortex, contralateral of weakness
82
The spinal tract involved with the control of trunk muscles
Ventral corticospinal
83
The sensation produced by a wisp of cotton on one's fingertip is mediated by the....
Ventral spinothalamic tract
84
First-order neurons of the ventral spinocerebellar tract....
Provide the afferent limb for muscle stretch reflexes
85
Acute-stage UMN lesions result in.....
Flaccid paralysis
86
Which tract contains axons from the giant cells of Deiters
Vestibulospinal tract
87
Which tract is the upper extremity equivalent of a tract that arises from the cells of Clarke column?
Cuneocerebellar
88
Which tract conveys nociceptive input from the contralateral side of the body?
Lateral spinothalamic
89
Which tract contains axons from the giant cells of Betz?
Lateral corticospinal
90
Which tract contains ipsilateral pain fibers that have their second-order neurons in the dorsal horn?
Lissauer tract
91
Which tract projects nonconscious proprioception to the cerebellum via the inferior cerebellar peduncle?
Dorsal spinocerebellar
92
Which tract plays a role in regulating extensor tone?
Vestibulospinal
93
Lesions of which tracts produce lesions on the contralateral side?
Spinothalamic
Corticospinal (above level of decussation)
Rubrospinal
94
Which tracts are only located at the cervical level?
Medial vestibulospinal
Tectospinal
Cuneocerebellar
95
Occlusion of which artery would cause urinary incontinence?
ACA
96
What controls gut motility?
Myenteric (Auerbach) plexus
97
Where is Onuf's nucleus located?
S2-S4 ventral horn
98
Cavernous sinus occlusion would affect which CN?
CN VI. Lateral gaze issue.
99
Nucleus ambiguus is pre/postganglionic para/sympathetic?
Preganglionic parasympathetic
100
Lesion of which tract would cause ipsilateral nystagmus and paralysis of the contralateral eye?
MLF
101
Gag reflex is afferent or efferent?
Afferent
102
Occlusion of which artery would cause the ipsilateral eye to move down and out?
Medial branch of PCA
103
Which nerve does Hoffman's test?
Median nerve
104
Positive Babinski sign is caused by which muscle?
Contraction of extensor hallucis
105
Which tract is sensory for pharynx and larynx?
Spinal trigeminal
106
Inverse myotatic action
Inhibition of homonymous
107
Whats the difference between myotactic vs. withdrawal reflex?
Nociception
108
Which nerve roots control the quadriceps?
L2-L4
109
Which reflex has no interneurons?
Myotatic reflex
110
1--cerebral cortex
| 2--dorsal/ventral horns (Laminae VII, VIII, IX --> X)
Lateral corticospinal tract
111
1--cerebral cortex
| 2--ventral horn
Anterior corticospinal tract
112
1--red nucleus
| 2--interneurons --> ventral horn (VI, VII, VIII)
Rubrospinal tract
113
1--lateral vestibular nucleus (border of pons and medulla)
| 2--interneurons --> gamma motor neurons
Lateral vestibulospinal tract
114
1--medial vestibular nuclei (pons-medulla junction)
| 2--ipsilateral ventral horn
Medial vestibulospinal tract
115
What is the third order neuron in the dorsal column tract?
`VPL thalamic nucleus
116
Which tract enters the zone of Lissauer?
Spinothalamic
117
1--DRG
2--Nucleus proprius (III, IV)
3--VPL
Anterolateral (spinothalamic)
118
1--DRG
2-Dorsal nucleus of Clarke
3--cerebellar vermis of anterior lobe
Dorsal spinocerebellar
119
Which tract crosses at the pyramidal decussation?
Lateral corticospinal
120
Which tract crosses at the ventral tegmental decussation in the midbrain?
Rubrospinal
121
The fibers of which tract terminate in the inferior olive?
Rubrospinal
122
Which tract descends in the ventral funiculus?
Medial vestibulospinal
123
Where do second order neurons of the spinothalamic tract synapse?
Substantia gelatinosa
124
Which artery supplies most f the central gray matter and the anteromedial portion of white matter?
Anterior spinal artery
125
Occlusion of which artery leads to central cord syndrome?
Anterior spinal artery
126
Stimulus for myotatic reflex
Rapid stretching of muscle
127
Myotatic reflex: efferent and effector
Alpha motor neuron / extrafusal muscle
128
Myotatic reflex resonse
Contraction of muscle
129
Stimulus for autogenic inhibition
Excessive tension on tendon
130
Patient comes to the clinic complaining of weakness throughout their entire left body. On neurologic exam, tongue shows deviation and patient cannot tell the position of their points. What do you check for on an angiogram?
Occlusion of right anterior spinal artery
131
Patient comes to the office complaining of numbness in their right arm. Neurologic exam shows loss of touch sensation, but preservation of pain sensation. What could be occluded?
Posterior spinal artery
132
Patient is found to have an occlusion of the PCA that has lead to ischemic damage to the left crus cerebri. What will the patient exhibit?
Will have contralateral motor loss (corticospinal tract), corticobulbar damage, contralateral decerebrate (rubrospinal tract damage)
133
What do astrocytes produce to cause vasodilation?
Prostaglandins
134
Which neurotransmitter would you expect to find in glial cells?
Glycine
135
Patient presents with lockjaw. What is affected?
SNARE proteins (tetanus)
136
If a patient has occlusion of right ophthalmic artery, how would they present?
Blindness in right eye
137
During a physical exam you find that a patient has lost their peripheral vision on the right side. Which of the following would you suspect?
```
A. AICA occlusion on the left side
B. AICA occlusion on the right side
C. PCA occlusion on the right side
D. PCA occlusion on the left side
E. MCA occlusion on the right side
```
D. Calcarine artery from P4 segment of PCA
138
What vascular issue would cause the patient's eyes to move up and out?
Aneurysm of the P1 segment of the PCA
139
What cell type is affected in Guillain-Barre syndrome?
Schwann cells
140
Pain and tingling in anterolateral thigh
Decreased sensation
Reflexes and muscle strength normal
Motor function normal
Meralgia parethetica
141
What causes meralgia parethetica?
Compression of lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
142
Meralgia parethetic is most commonly associated with...
```
Tight jeans aka Calvin Klein syndrome
Seatbelts
Obesity
Pregnancy
Recent surgery
Diabetes
```
143
Weakness and intact DTRs indicates...
Problem with pure sensory nerve (no motor fibers)
144
Meralgia parethetic is most commonly misdiagnosed as....
Herniated disc
145
Decreased DTRs
Decreased muscle strength for corresponding myotome
Decreased sensation or tingling and numbness in the corresponding dermatome
Straight leg raise test positive
Back pain
Herniated disc
146
What forms the BBB?
Tight junctions between endothelial cells
147
Biceps brachii myotome
C5
148
Extensor carpi radialis myotome
C6
149
Triceps myotome
C7
150
Flexor digi. prof. myotome
C8
151
Abductor digiti minimi myotome
T1
152
Iliopsoas myotome
L2
153
Quadriceps myotome
L3
154
Tibialis anterior myotome
L4
155
Extensor hallucis myotome
L5
156
Gastrocnemius myotome
S1
157
Pyramidal, Betz
Upper motor neurons
158
Alpha, beta, gamma
Lower motor neurons
159
What type of muscle do LMNs innervate?
Skeletal
160
What is a soma?
Cell body that contains the nucleus
161
Does a soma contain a nucleolus?
Yes. Contains a large, distinct nucleolus with a massive amount of RNA.
162
What is the origin of the axon called?
Axon hillock
163
What type of channels does an axon hillock contain?
Voltage gated sodium channels
164
What is anterograde axonal transport?
The signal is transmitted out and away from the neuron
165
What is another name for neuronal anterograde degeneration?
Wallerian
166
No action potentials
Function is to aid neurons
2-50x more than neurons
Glial cells
167
Which cell aids in the movement of CSF through ventricles?
Ependymal glial cells
168
Which glial cell brings in nutrients (glucose)?
Astrocytes
169
Which glial cells produce neutrophic substances and growth factors?
Astrocytes
170
What are the main roles of astrocytes?
1. Structural support
2. Form BBB
3. Regulate bloodflow in response to neuronal activity
4. Regulate local environment/neuron activity
5. Scar formation
171
What is the main function of oligodendrocytes?
Myelination
172
Which cell regenerates faster: Schwann cells or oligodendrocytes?
Schwann cells
173
How do astrocytes communicate?
Via intercellular calcium waves
174
Which neurotransmitter increases calcium concentration within astrocytes?
Glutamate
175
T/F: astrocytes release ATP
True
176
What triggers the release of glial ATP?
Norepinephrine
177
In a human cell, resistors are in parallel or series?
Parallel
178
When will a capacitor have the highest current?
At time=0
179
What is the relationship between conductance and resistance?
Inversely proportional
180
Lipid bilayer is considered a capacitor or resistor?
Capacitors in parallel
181
Ion channels are considered capacitors or resistors?
VARIABLE resistors
182
What is tau?
Time it takes for V to reach 63.2% of its steady state
183
T/F: Gated channels are active.
False. Only pumps are active.
184
What are the five properties of ion channels?
1. Flow is passive
2. Electrochemical driving force determines the direction and equilibrium
3. Ionic charge determines selective permeability
4. Most cation-selective channels allow only one ion species to flow
5. Most anion-selective channels only allow Cl-
185
What is pumped out in Na/K pump?
Sodium out, potassium in.
186
What type of neuronal communication is most common in humans?
Chemical
187
Charcot-Marie Tooth pathophysiology
Demyelination caused by mutation in one of the connexin genes expressed in Schwann cells. The connexin fails to form functional gap junctions.
188
Charcot-Marie Tooth presentation
Motor and sensory neuropathy
Loss of muscle tissue and touch sensation
High arches
Hammertoes
Legs appear as inverted champagne bottles
189
Symmetric chemical transmission is ______. Asymmetric is ________.
Inhibitory / excitatory
190
What are active zones?
Proteins on intracellular side of the presynaptic terminal membrane and projecting into the cytoplasm of the presynaptic terminal
191
Where do vesicles aggregate in the presynaptic cleft?
In the active zones
192
What is the base membrane potential?
-65
193
Binding of what protein facilitates calcium storage after muscle contraction?
Calsequestrin
194
Which drug blocks the degradation of Ach and what is it used to treat?
Anti-acetylcholinesterase (nerve gas). Myasthenia gravis.
195
Tetanus abolishes which inhibitory neurotransmitters?
Glycine, GABA
196
Where is CSF produced?
Choroid plexuses (70%) and brain parenchyma (30%)
197
What are the functions of CSF?
1. Buoys brain and SC
2. Cushions CNS
3. Removes metabolites from CNS
4. Provides CNS with stable ionic environment
198
What are the contents of CSF compared to blood serum?
Greatly reduced protein
> Na, Cl, Mg
< Glucose, Ca, K
199
Blockage of internal carotid artery would lead to what symptoms?
Weakness and loss of sensation CONTRAlaterally
200
Blockage of vertebral artery would lead to what symptoms?
Visual loss, dizziness, etc
201
Sympathetic control of bladder
Lumbar splanchnic nerves synapse in inferior mesenteric ganglia
Postganglionic pass through hypogastric plexus
Contracts internal sphinchter
Relaxes detrusor
202
Parasympathetic control of bladder
Pelvic nerves synapse on postganglions in bladder wall
Contracts detrusor
Relaxes internal sphinchter
203
Which four regions do not receive parasympathetic innervation?
Sweat glands
Suprarenal glands
Piloerector muscles of the skin
Most arterial blood vessels
204
Lesion involving sympathetic innervation of the bladder would lead to what symptoms?
Hyperreflexia
205
Lesion involving parasympathetic innervation of the bladder would lead to what symptoms?
Areflexia
206
Somatic innervation of the bladder
External urethral sphinchter innervated by pudendal nerve from Onuf's nucleus
207
Occlusion of the jugular foramen would lead to what symptom?
Inability to turn head to opposite side
208
Ipsilateral loss of tactile discrimination, form perception, and position and vibration sensation below the lesion
Dorsal column transection
209
Contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation, starting one segment below the lesion
Lateral spinothalamic transection
210
Contralateral loss of crude touch sensation starting 3-4 segments below the lesion
Ventral spinothalamic transection
211
Ipsilateral leg dystaxia
Dorsal spinocerebellar transection
212
Contralateral leg dystaxia
Ventral spinocerebellar transection
213
Ipsilateral spastic paresis
| Positive Babinski
Lateral corticospinal transection
214
Minor contralateral muscle weakness below the lesion
Ventral corticospinal transection
215
Ipsilateral flaccid paralysis of somatic muscles
Ventral horn destruction (LMN lesion)
216
Ipsilateral dermatomic anesthesia and areflexia
Dorsal horn destruction
217
A lesion in what location would cause ipsilateral Horner syndrome, ipsilateral spastic paresis, and contralateral loss of pain and temperature?
Cervical spinal cord
218
ALS involves what type of neuronal degeneration?
Loss of neurons from the paracentral lobule and from the anterior horns of the spinal cord
219
A patient who is able to stand straight with eyes open, but falls with eyes closed most likely has what kind of lesion?
Dorsal column syndrome.
220
In what conditions is dorsal column syndrome seen?
Tabes dorsalis, vitamin B12 neuropathy
221
Romberg sign indicates what syndrome?
Dorsal column syndrome
222
Name an example of a mechanism present in neurons to provide necessary items to the ends of neuronal processes and to bring items to the cell body.
Axonal transport requires ATP
223
What type of ion channels are present in the axon hillock?
High density of voltage sensitive ion channels
224
Neuropil
Synapses predominantly occur here
225
What forms a gap junction?
Two hemi-channels connecting pre- and postsynaptic neurons
226
Reduced Ach results in muscle weakness. Additionally, at the preganglionic terminals of the ANS, loss of voltage gated Ca2+ channels results in symptoms characteristic of autonomic dysfunction, and impotence. Which disorder is this?
Lambert-Eaton
227
Which neurotransmitter can be metabolized by both monoamine oxidase and catechol-O-methyltransferase?
Dopamine
228
Which cofactor modulates the NMDA receptor?
Zinc
229
Synaptic glutamate can increase the formation of what within postsynaptic neurons and surrounding astrocytes?
Nitric oxide
230
Activation of this receptor causes a G-protein to stimulate phospholipase C
M3
231
What is a selective agonist of TrkB receptors?
Brain derived neurotrophic factor
232
What is the relationship between EEG and epilepsy?
The EEG reflects primary synaptic potentials in the cortical pyramid cells
233
Guillain-Barre mechanism
Segmental demyelination and Wallerian degeneration progressing in a proximal direction in the PNS
234
What would you use to classify a neuron as inhibitory?
Neurotransmitter
235
Muscle weakness characterized by paresis in median and fibular nerve distributions
Demyelinating disorder which typically compromises muscle strength
Charcot-Marie Tooth
236
Which cell can metabolize glucose to lactate to generate ATP?
Astrocytes
237
How are new neurons produced in adult humans?
Stem cells in the brain
238
Which neurotransmitter can astrocytes take up from a neuronal synapse?
Glutamate
239
Which drug has a long half-life, selectively inhibits AchE, and is used to treat Alzheimers?
Donepezil
240
Which neurotransmitter is mainly terminated by the enzymatic degradation following release from presynaptic nerve endings?
Acetylcholine
241
Where does the major norepinephrine nerve tract originate in the brain?
Locus coeruleus
242
Where does the major histamine nerve tract originate in the brain?
Tuberomamillary nucleus of the hypothalamus
243
Endorphin is a preferred endogenous ligand of which receptor?
Mu
244
Direction of flow of ions in voltage gated ion channels is dependent on what factor?
Electrochemical driving force
245
What would be present in CSF in viral meningitis compared to bacterial meningitis?
Viral: increased protein, normal glucose, excessive lymphocytes
Bacterial: decreased glucose; excessive leukocytes, not lymphocytes
246
What is curare?
A nicotinic Ach receptor antagonist
247
What do you not expect to see in a cholinergic neuron?
Acetic acid
248
To find CSF that is in contact with both the tectum and tegmentum, you would have to go to the....
Cerebral aqueduct
249
What ensures that action potentials only travel down the axon in one direction?
Absolute refractory period
250
How do GABA-A and glycine receptor inhibit cells?
By opening a Cl- channel
251
If you were an excitatory axon who really wanted to cause some action potentials in a cute neuron next to you, where is the best place to put your bouton?
Near the axon hillock
252
Which cells are mainly responsible for axonal regeneration in the CNS?
Schwann cells
253
A patient has a tumor near the lateral wall of the anterior horn of the lateral ventricle. This would most likely impinge what structure?
Caudate nucleus
254
Calcium enters/exits the presynaptic terminal bouton during neurotransmitter release
Enters
255
What is the largest component of the diencephalon?
Thalamus
256
Where is norepinephrine synthesized?
The cytoplasm of the neuronal terminal
257
How do NMDA receptors differ from AMPA receptors?
NMDA receptors are permeable to Ca2+ and AMPA receptors aren't
Inward ionic current through AMPA receptors is voltage-dependent
258
What receptor do barbiturates act on?
Exclusively on GABA-A
259
If you got rid of kinesin, what would happen to the neuron?
The axon terminals would begin to degenerate
260
Which structure is important in the regulation and coordination of fine motor movement; has bilateral symmetrical hemispheres with a midline called the vermis?
Cerebellum
261
Debilitating injury to nerve
Axon swollen and irregular with fragmented terminal
Schwann cells filled with lipid
Wallerian degeneration
262
Which glial cell is particularly involved in the spatial buffering of extracellular potassium?
Astrocyte
263
What body of CSF contains the inferior colliculus?
Cerebral aqueduct
264
Prosencephalon gives rise to...
Diencephalon
| Telencephalon
265
Neural system development progresses in what order?
Neural plate --> neural groove --> neural tube
266
Results in the nucleus changing position
Is associated with fragmentation of Nissl bodies
Can occur following axonal injury
Shows swelling of the soma
Chromatolysis
267
The hypoglossal nucleus is derived from which embryonic structure?
Basal plate
268
The alar plate will produce...
Sensory neurons of the dorsal horn
269
What single artery supplies both motor cortex and the axons of the motor pathway?
Anterior cerebral artery
270
Mechanism of MS
Oligodendrocytes providing myelin sheaths on the axons in the CNS are degenerated
271
Too little inhibition in the nervous system leads to...
Seizures
272
During the course of development, all of the ectoderm in a particular embryo stays associated with the neural tube. The developed organism will not have...
A peripheral nervous system
273
Which problem is most closely associated with damage to the frontal lobes?
Loss of voluntary movement
274
The part of the brain that surrounds the third ventricle is the...
Diencephalon
275
The basal ganglia are part of which brain structure?
Telencephalon
276
If you were part of a lemniscus, what would you most likely be?
An axon
277
Blood leaking between the dura and the arachnoid layer would lead to...
Subdural hematoma
278
What is the flow of CSF?
```
Lateral ventricles
Interventricular foramen
3rd ventricle
Cerebral aqueduct
4th ventricle
```
279
Which vessel supplies the cingulated gyrus?
Anterior cerebral artery
280
Which space has the most CSF?
Subarachnoid space
281
Which lobe is the angular gyrus located in?
Parietal
282
Which vessel supplies the Heschl gyrus?
Middle cerebral artery
283
Why is a spinal tap performed in the lumbar region?
There are no neuronal cell bodies here, only axons, so the probability of damage is lessened
284
Which artery is most likely to be occluded in Wallenberg syndrome?
Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
285
T/F: anterior white commissure contains BBB
True
286
T/F: there is Nissl substance in the axon hillock
FALSE MFers
287
Blood CSF barrier is comprised of which structures?
Tight junctions of epithelial cells
288
How is compound muscle action potential evoked?
By stimulating a nerve while recording from a muscle.
289
After the 4th ventricle, most CSF flows into....
Cisterna magna
290
What are the 3 conventional cervical spine films?
Lateral
AP
Open mouth odontoid
291
Erb-Duchenne spinal levels
C5-C6
292
Klumpke paralysis
C8-T1
