CBSE

Question 1

ADH binds to receptors in what part of the kidney?

Answer 1

Collecting tubule . It results in the insertion of aquaporin channels which promote the uptate of water OUT OF THE URINE

Question 2

In renal papillary necrosis is ADH able to act on the collecting ducts?

Answer 2

No. There will be no change in the urine osmolality or volume.

Question 3

Muscle disorder where weakness begins in the pelvis and works its way up. Associated with fibrofatty replacement of muscles in the legs and dilated cardiomyopathy

Answer 3

Duchenne muscular dystrophy (X-linked recessive)

Question 4

Function of the dystrophic protein

Answer 4

Cytoplasmic protein that helps to anchor muscle fibers to the ECM

Question 5

Obstructive uropathy will result in what kind of metabolic imbalance?

Answer 5

Metabolic acidosis with compensatory repiratory alkalosis –> near normal pH

Question 6

Normal PCO2 level

Answer 6

44 mmHg

Question 7

Respiratory alkalosis results in slower breathing or faster breathing

Answer 7

Tachypnea. To combat acidosis, the body breaths out more CO2 –> serum levels being around 30 mmHg

Question 8

Methylmalonic acidemia can be caused by what 2 dysfunctions?

Answer 8

Defect in methylmalonyl CoA mutase or vitamin B12 deficiency. This will lead to a build up in methylmalonic acid and homocysteine

Question 9

B6 deficiency causes what kind of anemia?

Answer 9

Sideroblastic due to impaired hemoglobin synthesis

Question 10

Folic acid deficiency causes what kind of anemia?

Answer 10

Macrocytosis with hypersegmented neutrophils

Question 11

Hookworm infection is caused by which parasitic roundworms?

Answer 11

Ancylostoma duodenale
Necator americanus

Question 12

Hookworm infection exposure is usually due to what

Answer 12

Walking barefoot on contaminated soil

Question 13

Common disease state of hookworms

Answer 13

Microcytic anemia, eggs or adult worms in stool

Question 14

Treatment for hookworms

Answer 14

Albendazole. Binds beta-tubulin and inhibit microtubule polymerization

Question 15

Pinworms are caused by what intestinal worm

Answer 15

Enterobius vermicularis

Question 16

Taenia solium (intestinal tapeworm) causes what symptoms

Answer 16

Cystic CNS lesions, seizures,

Question 17

Method of action of methadone

Answer 17

It is a longer-acting agonist

Question 18

Method of action of buprenophine-naloxone

Answer 18

Mised agonist/antagonist
Buprenophine - agonist of opioid receptor
Naloxone - short acting opioid antagonist

Question 19

Cross sectional studies have what disadvantage of establishing causality?

Answer 19

Temporal sequence of events. Because cross sectional studies don’t follow patients, you arent able to examine temporal sequence of events

Question 20

Gastrointestinal tumors typically arise from activation of what kind of receptor?

Answer 20

KIT receptor tyrosine kinase

Question 21

KIT is a protooncogene or tumor suppressor

Answer 21

protooncogene

Question 22

KIT activation leads to activation of what intracellular signaling pathways

Answer 22

MAP kinase and RAS

Question 23

Metastasis of gastric cancer sommon sites

Answer 23

Virchow node - left supraclavicular node
Krukenburg - metastasis to bilateral ovaries

Question 24

Translocation of chromosomes 9 and 22 (BCR/ABL) results in what kind of cancer

Answer 24

Chronic myelogenous leukemia

Question 25

Focal seizures of the left side is due to a brain leison on the ipsilateral or contralateral side of the brain

Answer 25

Contralateral

Question 26

The primary motor cortex is located in what part of the brain?

Answer 26

Frontal cortex

Question 27

Locations of these cortex Primary motor Somatosensory Visual Auditor

Answer 27

Primary motor - frontal Somatosensory - parietal Visual - Occipital Auditory - temporal

Question 28

The anterior cerebral artery supplies which parts of the body

Answer 28

Lower extremity

Question 29

The ACA supplies which parts of the brain

Answer 29

Frontal and parietal lobes (motor and sensory)

Question 30

Homonymous hemianopia is due to occlusion of what artery?

Answer 30

Posterior cerebral artery

Question 31

Graves disease causes hyper or hypothyroidism

Answer 31

Hyperthyroidism. There is an autoantibody that stimulates the TSH receptor leads to increased T3 and T4

Question 32

The putamen of the basal ganglia contains inhibitory or excitatory neurons

Answer 32

Inhibitory. In parkisonian tremors, these neurons are damaged leading to loss of control of movements

Question 33

Vernicke-Korsakoff syndrome and B1 deficiency leads to atrophy of what part of the brain?

Answer 33

Mammilary bodies

Question 34

Pathophysiology of Myasthenic syndrome (Lambert Eaton)

Answer 34

Autoantibodies directed against voltage gated calcium channels in the presynaptic neuron which leads to decreased release of ACh

Question 35

Myasthenia gravis pathophysiology

Answer 35

Autoantibodies to postsynaptic Ach receptors

Question 36

Muscle weakness in myasthenia gravis is increased or decreased with muscle use

Answer 36

Increased (worsened)

Question 37

Hemolytic uremic syndrome is associated with what infection

Answer 37

Shiga toxin E. coli which leads to bloody diarrhea

Question 38

HUS results in what lab results

Answer 38

Due to widespread microvascular thrombosis, there is low platelets, increased creatinine, increased indirect bilirubin, anemia, increased LDH.

Question 39

Pituitary gland tumors (hypophysis) is located in the sella turcica. It can cause compression of which nerve?

Answer 39

Optic nerve (CN2)

Question 40

The trochlear nerve (CN4) innervates which muscle?

Answer 40

Superior oblique of the eye

Question 41

The brachial artery and median nerve travel anterior or posterior to the elbow

Answer 41

Anterior. Fracture of the supracondylar region of the humerus could cause damage to the brachial artery

Question 42

Fungal cell walls are composed of what?

Answer 42

Glucans, chitin, and glycoproteins

Question 43

HYperactue rejection of a transplant is due to what?

Answer 43

Preformed antibodies against donor antigens. It results in fibrin thrombi in the capillaries

Question 44

Method of action of Paclitaxel

Answer 44

Microtubule inhibitor. It stabilizes microtubules leading to the prevention of spindle formation

Question 45

Continuous GnRH release results in what effects on FSH and LH release

Answer 45

Following GnRH release, FSH and LH are released in a pulsatile fashion. Continuous GnRH release leads to a decrease in FSH and LH secretion

Question 46

Leuprolide is what type of medication

Answer 46

Gonadotropin release hormone agonist. It is used in the treatment of prostate cancer because it decreases LH and FSH

Question 47

Tamoxifen method of action

Answer 47

Used in the treatment of estrogen receptor positive breast cancer. It is a estrogen receptor agonist-antagonist

Question 48

Describe community intervention

Answer 48

Intervention on community vs individual. Example being puting a tax on sodas

Question 49

Describe secondary interventions

Answer 49

Screening at risk individuals; catching disease early

Question 50

Describe tertiary interventions

Answer 50

Therapeutic interventions; aimed to slow the disease

Question 51

Achilles tendon hyporeflexia is associated with radiculopathy at which level?

Answer 51

S1-S2

Question 52

Anticholinesterase poisonining leads to Ach stimulating nicotinic or muscarinic receptors?

Answer 52

Both Nicotinic - skeletal muscle, adrenal medulla, autonomic ganglia Muscarinic - heart, brain, smooth muscle, sweat glands

Question 53

Which medication is used for anticholinesterase poisoning (which means AchE is irreversibly blocked from breaking down Ach) on muscarinic receptors?

Answer 53

Atropine which is a competitive inhibitor

Question 54

WHat medication is used for anticholinesterase poisoning on nicotinic receptors?

Answer 54

Pralidoxime. It regenerates Ach esterase. Must be given with atropine.

Question 55

Organophosphates found in insecticides include which medications

Answer 55

Fenthion, parathion, malathion

Question 56

Pathophysiology of rheumatoid arthritis

Answer 56

Autoimmune inflammation of the synovial tissues. It results in proliferative granulation tissue which erodes articular carilage and bone

Question 57

Polymyalgia rheumatica symptoms

Answer 57

Pain and stiffness of the proximal muscles with weight loss. No muscle weakness

Question 58

In gallbladder diseases, patients are at risk for developing deficinecy to what vitamins?

Answer 58

Fat soluble vitamins (A,E,D,K)

Question 59

Ethanol metabolism requires which cofactor?

Answer 59

NAD+ which then generates NADH. The increase in NADH leads to hypoglycemia dn lactic acidosis

Question 60

Alcohol dehydrogenase converts ethanol to what?

Answer 60

Acetaldehyde. This is what causes alcohol intoxication

Question 61

Asian flushing is due to a polymorphism of what enzyme?

Answer 61

Aldehyde dehydrogenase

Question 62

The dorsal column and spinothalamic tract are ascending or descending tracts?

Answer 62

Ascending

Question 63

The dorsal column has what sensory functions?

Answer 63

Pressure, vibration, fine touch, proprioception

Question 64

The spinothalamic tract has what sensory functions?

Answer 64

Pain and temperature

Question 65

Sensation of proprioception and fine touch travel in the dorsal column ipsilaterally or contrallaterally?

Answer 65

Ipsilaterally. It switches sides in the medulla

Question 66

The anterolateral funiculus carries which neurons?

Answer 66

Voluntary motor signals from the corticospinal tract. (decreased deep tendon reflexes, ipsilateral weakness)

Question 67

HIstology of preecelampsia

Answer 67

Atherosis of decidual vessels (fibrinoid necrosis)

Question 68

Autsomal dominant polycystic kidney disease is associated with what other diseases

Answer 68

Berry aneurysms, MVP, and hepatic cysts

Question 69

Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease is associated which which genetic mechanism?

Answer 69

Variable expressitivity. Example) Father has different symptoms than son

Question 70

Typical Crohn Disease monocloal antibodies are directed against what?

Answer 70

TNF-a. This decreases the formation of granuloma formation and maintenance leading to increased risk of TB infeciton

Question 71

Does nephritic or nephrotic syndrome result in high proteinuria

Answer 71

Nephrotic syndrome

Question 72

Nephrotic syndrome leads to a loss of which antibody in urine?

Answer 72

IgG. This increases risk for infection