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CBT Flashcards

1
Q

Minimum pavement width for 180 turn (A320)?

A

22,90 m

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2
Q

Which part of the aircraft requires the greatest clearance during a turn?

A

The wingtip

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3
Q

Altitude limit for Flaps operation?

A

FL200

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4
Q

Flight envelope protection (bank and pitch)

A

Bank: 67 degrees
Pitch: +30 degrees, -15 degrees

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5
Q

Mach number displayed if >___

A

0.5

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6
Q

DMC

A

Display management computer

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7
Q

SDAC

A

System data acquisition concentrator

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8
Q

From what reference is the digital wind direction?

A

True north

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9
Q

From what reference is the analog wind direction?

A

Magnetic north

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10
Q

When does the takeoff memo appear?

A

Two minutes after the second engine start

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11
Q

When does the landing memo appear and disappear?

A

Appears < 2000 ft (gear down)
or < 800 ft (gear up)

Disappears < 80 kt after landing

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12
Q

When does the DECEL light below the speed tape appear?

A

When at least 80% of the selected deceleration is reached and it disappears when it falls below 70%

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13
Q

DFDR

A

Digital flight data recorder system

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14
Q

FDIU

A

Flight data interface unit

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15
Q

QAR

A

Quick access recorder

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16
Q

Takeoff inhibit bis wann?

A

Bis 1500 ft AGL

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17
Q

Landing inhibit von wann bis wann?

A

Ab 800 ft AGL bis 80 kt am Boden

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18
Q

Seat belts AUTO: Wann gehen sie aus und wann gehen sie wieder an?

A

Aus: Slat retraction
An: Slat Extension

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19
Q

All signs ON irrespective of switch position if cabin ALT >___?

A

11300 ft

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20
Q

Wann gehen die RWY turnoff lights und nose lights automatisch aus?

A

Mit gear retraction

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21
Q

When does the APU AVAIL light go on?

A
  • APU at least 2s at 95% operating speed
  • GEN and BLEED available
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22
Q

APU shutdown delay after usage of APU BLEED? Why?

A
  • 60 - 120s for thermal stabilization
  • APU continues running with MASTER switch OFF
    (Exception: pushing APU fire switch)
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23
Q

APU EMER SHUT DOWN when?

A
  • Fire detection on ground
  • APU SHUT OFF pb on external power panel
  • APU FIRE pb on overhead panel
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24
Q

ECB

A

Electronic control box

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25
What happens when the APU master switch is selected ON?
- the intake flap opens - the fuel isolation valve opens - the APU fuel pump operates if no tank pump is running
26
When is the APU starter de-energized?
After 55% N
27
Where is the water service panel?
At the aft left fuselage
28
Where is the waste service panel?
At the lower right side of the fuselage
29
What is the water tank capacity?
200l
30
What is the waste tank capacity?
170l
31
How does the waste flushing work?
With differential pressure or a vacuum generator on ground and below 16000 ft
32
FMGS
Flight management and Guidance system
33
What is a pseudo waypoint?
A point that is not geographically fixed eg. TOC
34
FCU 1+2 Fault what does the ND show?
- Rose Mode, Range 80NM - Needle 1 —> VOR 1 - Needle 2 —> ADF 2
35
What happens if you push the A/THR disconnect push button for more than 15 seconds?
The A/THR functions inclusive alpha floor protection is lost (recovered only on ground at next FMGC power up)
36
What is a common mode?
A combination of literal and vertical modes
37
What are the functions of the FAC?
- yaw damping/ rudder travel limitation - Display of speeds (S, F, green dot) - responsible for triggering alpha floor
38
When do you have alpha floor protection?
- from T/O until 100ft RA at landing - normal law and A/THR available
39
When do you get a low energy warning?
- between 100 and 2000 ft RA - config 2, 3, FULL - Normal law
40
When does the FAC give you wind shear detection?
- in all configs - from 1300 ft until 50 ft - independent of p/b on overhead panel
41
Required NAV accuracy (enroute, terminal, approach)?
Enroute: 3.41 NM terminal: 2.07 NM approach: 0.61 NM (VOR/DME) 0.36 NM (other cases)
42
Which FMGC modes are there?
- Dual - single - Independent
43
When does the Automatic speed mode protection activate?
- Vmax + 4 kt - Vls - 2 kt - FDs werden removed (im manual flight)
44
When is the autoland warning light armed?
- below 200ft RA - LAND or FLARE on FMA in green - at least one AP engaged
45
When does the auto land warning light flash?
- both APs fail - G/S between 200 ft and 100 ft > 1 dot - LOC between 200 ft and 100 ft > 0,25 dot - difference between RA 1 and 2 > 15 ft
46
What happens if FCU 1+2 fail? (Ragarding Altimeter)
Baro 1013 is set automatically
47
What does it mean if the ADIRU fault light is steady on?
The IR (intertial reference) Part is completely lost
48
What does it mean if the ADIRU fault light is flashing?
It means that only the navigation capability is lost
49
Can you auto tune/manual tune when only one RMP is in Backup tuning?
No (es reicht wenn nur einer Backup tuned damit der andere über seine MCDU nichts mehr tunen kann)
50
Welche Sicherungen sind Monitored/not monitored?
Black = not monitored Green = monitored
51
How much battery capacity equals 25.5 V?
50%
52
How is the AC bus supplying priority?
1. Onside generator 2. External power 3. APU 4. Offside generator
53
Above which airspeed does the RAT extend automatically?
> 100 kt
54
How long do the batteries last with Power on batteries only?
22 min
55
Wie werden AC und DC ESS BUS versorgt solange die RAT noch nicht draußen ist?
- BAT 1 supplies AC ESS BUS + AC inverter - BAT 2 supplies DC ESS BUS
56
Welche Hydraulic wird von der RAT betrieben?
B HYD
57
Wenn die RAT draußen ist und ein Generator geresetted werden konnte, übernimmt dieser?
Erstmal nicht, erst mit Gear down übernimmt er
58
How are the hydraulic systems pressurized?
By engine 1 or Xbleed duct (all reservoirs)
59
Welche fault lights bleiben bei einem Reservoir overheat am overhead panel an?
Das Licht der entsprechenden Pumpe und das der PTU (bei G/B)
60
Wie viele ELACs, SECs und FACs gibt es?
2 ELACs 3 SECs 2 FACs
61
By which flight control computer is the elevator and stabilizer control normally done?
ELAC 2 (if inop ELAC 1)
62
What different servo jack modes are there?
- active - damping - centering
63
In what situation are both jacks in active mode?
If there is a high G load demand
64
By which flight control computer is the THS normally trimmed?
ELAC 2
65
By which flight control computer is aileron control normally done?
ELAC 1 (if inop ELAC 2)
66
How many jacks does an aileron have?
2
67
How many jacks does a spoiler have?
1
68
Which flight control computer controls the spoilers?
SEC 1/2/3 (Roll order comes from ELAC)
69
Which flight control computer controls rudder trim?
FAC 1 (if inop FAC 2)
70
In case of FAC 1+2 fault the Rudder travel limit stays at the present limit. When is full rudder authority recovered?
At select extension
71
Which spoilers are roll spoilers?
2-5
72
Which spoilers are used for the speed break?
2-4
73
When is the speed break inhibited?
When AOA protection is active or if FLAPS FULL
74
How is ground condition defined?
- Wheel Speed > 72 kt - RA < 6 ft and both MLG compressed
75
Which hydraulic is needed for the ailerons?
B G —— G B
76
Which hydraulic is needed for the spoilers?
G Y B Y G ——— G Y B Y G
77
Which hydraulic is needed for the elevator?
B G ——— Y B
78
Which hydraulic is needed for the THS?
G — Y
79
Wann kommt die overspeed warning?
Vmo + 4 kt MMO +0.006 M
80
ALTN LAW (reduced protection): Was ist low und high speed stability?
Leichte nose up/down Inputs vom Flieger, die man aber overriden kann
81
Wann ist die Transition von ground Mode zu Flight Mode?
- 5s nach liftoff - Pitch > 8
82
Was passiert im Flare Mode?
- attitude is memorized in 50ft - < 30ft the attitude is reduced to 2 pitch
83
Wann geht es von Flare Mode in den ground Mode?
- Aircraft on ground for > 5s - Pitch < 2,5 - (in case of go around back to flight mode if >50ft)
84
Im Normal law flight mode max roll rate?
15 degrees per s
85
Max loadfactor?
Clean: 2,5 to - 1 All other configs: 2 to 0
86
Flight envelope protection (Pitch): CONFIG 0-3? CONFIG FULL?
0-3: 30 degrees (25 at low speed) FULL: 25 degrees (20 at low speed)
87
Wie schaut die high Speed Protection aus?
Automatic pitch up moment, kein Thrust change if A/THR not active
88
When does the low speed stability activate?
5 - 10 kt before the stall warning (gentle nose down input which can be overridden)
89
Wenn du F2 hast und F1 selectest, was passiert?
- < 210 kt —> F1+F - > 210 kt —> F1
90
Wann fahren die Flaps von 1+F automatisch auf 1?
210 kt
91
When is Slat retraction from 1 to 0 inhibited?
If - speed < 148 kt - high AOA - alpha Lock
92
Vfe F1
230
93
Vfe F1+F
215
94
Vfe F2
200
95
Vfe F3
185
96
Vfe FULL
177
97
How does the auto restow function work? (Regarding reverser)
- at least one door I uncommanded open - engine running on ground with N1>70%
98
EGT Green below ___?
855
99
Above what N2 is FADEC self powered?
~ 12% N2
100
Welche valves steuert der engine Master Lever direkt?
LP und HP FUEL valve
101
How long is the fuel supply cut between automatic FADEC engine start attempts?
7 s
102
Will the FADEC abort an engine start in flight?
No only on ground
103
Was bedeutet ein Fault light unterm engine master?
Es gibt ein disagree zwischen Engine Master Position und dem HP fuel valve (Das low pressure fuel valve sehe ich auf der Fuel page)
104
Wo im Triebwerk sind die sensing Elements für die Fire detection?
- pylon nacelle - engine core - fan section
105
Was passiert bei einem APU Fire on ground?
- automatic shutdown - automatic bottle discharge after 3s
106
Wie viele smoke detectors gibt es pro cargo compartment?
1
107
Was closed der ENG FIRE PB alles?
- LP FUEL valve - HYD FIRE valve - ENG BLEED valve - PACK FLOW control valve - deactivates generator - cuts off FADEC power supply
108
Ab welcher Temperatur wird die Nacellen Temperatur am SD angezeigt? (Advisory)
Ab 240 Grad
109
Was passiert wenn man den GEN 1 line pb Switch ausschaltet?
- one fuel pump per wing tank is supplied - AC BUS 1 supplied by GEN 2
110
Kann man einen APU FIRE Test machen während die APU läuft?
Ja
111
Was ist bei der caution ENG FIRE DET FAULT kaputt?
Both loops of the engine fire detection
112
Was passiert, wenn beide Loops innerhalb von 5s failen?
Es gibt eine ENG FIRE warning
113
Wie weit ist bei einer TA der CPA entfernt?
40s
114
Wie weit ist bei einer RA der CPA entfernt?
15-35 s
115
TCAS: What is the (vertical) tracking range and what is the normal display range?
Tracking: +-9900 ft Display: +- 2700 ft
116
What is the reaction time for the first and the second RA?
First: 5 s. (1500 fpm) Second: 2,5 s (2500 fpm)
117
Wann wird das armen des TCAS inhibited?
- < 900 ft - WS, Stall, TAWS
118
Von welcher LGCIU kommen die Green Triangels?
LGCIU 1
119
Max Speed für gear extension?
260 kt (Die Speed Info kommt von ADR1+3, also wenn die nicht gehen geht das gear auch nicht raus (nur mit Gravity Extension also))
120
Wann kommt die L/G NOT DOWN Warnung?
- RA < 750 ft and all Engines < 75% N1 - RA < 750 ft and Flaps 1, 2, 3, FULL - Both RAs failed and F3, FULL
121
Max NWS Angle?
- if disconnected: 95 Grad - Handwheel: 75 Grad - Rudder: 6 Grad
122
Ab welcher Geschwindigkeit lässt sich das Nosewheel nicht mehr steuern?
- Handwheel ab 70 kt - Rudder ab 130 kt
123
Wann geht nach dem takeoff die Autobrake aus?
10 s nach liftoff
124
Wann greift die autobrake nach der Landung?
Low: 2 s (2 m/s) Med: 2 s (3 m/s) Jeweils nach Ground Spoiler deployment
125
Ab welcher Temperatur gibt es einen green arc über einer Bremse auf der wheel page?
Ab 100 Grad
126
Wie wird das gear über bzw. unter 260 kt oben gehalten?
- über 260 kt: gear rests auf den Doors - unter 260 kt: by green hydraulic
127
Geht bei ALTN Breaking anti Skid?
Ja allerdings eingeschränkt. Beide Seiten werden von dem rutschensten Reifen beeinflusst (dh. Sobald ein Reifen rutscht wird der Bremsdruck bei ALLEN Reifen verringert)
128
Ab welcher Temperatur kommt eine BRAKES HOT Caution?
Ab 300 Grad
129
Wann ist der gear lever locked in der down position?
- LGCIU „on Ground“ - Nose Wheel not centered
130
Was bewirkt der A/SKID NWS Switch?
Der Cutted die Power zur BSCU
131
Hat der A321 CTR TK PUMPS? (Gilt teilweise auch für A320)
Nur eine Jet Pump, die mit „Motive Flow“ von den Wing Tanks läuft und den Sprit vom CTR TK in den Wing Tank pumpt
132
Was ist das FTIS?
- Fuel Tank inerting System - provides oxygen depleted air in center tank - starts automatically when engines running
133
Ist der Druck der CTR TK PUMPS oder der WING TK PUMPS größer?
Der Druck der CTR TK PUMPS ist grösser
134
Wann werden die CTR TK PUMPS automatisch abgeschaltet?
Mit Slats extended
135
Wie werden die Packs inflight und am Boden gekühlt?
- Inflight mit cooling air - am Boden mit einem cooling fan
136
Wie reguliert der Pack Controller die Temperatur?
- Turbine bypass valve - cooling air - outlet flaps
137
Sind beide Cargo compartments ventilated?
Nein nur das aft
138
Was steuert der aft Isolation valve pb?
- blower fan - inlet isolation valve - extract fan - outlet isolation valve
139
Bei welchem Druck öffnet das safety valve?
- 8,6 PSI - -1 PSI
140
Welche Temperatur herrscht in der Mixing Unit?
Die niedrigste eingestellte Temperatur
141
Wann ist bezüglich avionics Ventilation die Open bzw. closed Configuration vorhanden?
- Skin temp > 12 degrees on gnd (open) - Skin temp < 9 degrees on gnd (closed) - intermediate inflight > 35 degrees
142
When does the CPC change after landing?
3 min
143
How many motors does the outflow valve have?
3 (2 for automatic operation, 1 for manual operation)
144
Which valves does the Ram air on control?
- ram air valve - outflow valve
145
Was passiert mit den anti ice valves, in case of electrical power loss
- engine anti ice —> ON - wing anti ice —> OFF
146
An welchen Slats gibt es WING AI?
3,4,5
147
Darf ich Wing anti ice von der APU Zapfen?
Nein
148
Was passiert, wenn man WING AI am Boden anschaltet?
The valves open for a 30s test cycle, thereafter it is armed for Takeoff
149
Wann ist window heat ON in Auto Mode?
With at least one engine running or inflight (Windshield heat on ground in low power, inflight in normal power)
150
Max wiper speed?
230 kt
151
When is the CVR activated?
With first engine start
152
When does the CVR switch off?
5 mins after last engine shutdown

A320 (3 decks)

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