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CBT Flashcards

1
Q

Which stage of bleed air is the normal supply to the pneumatic system?

A

Intermediate Pressure stage (IP)

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2
Q

The ground compressed air and the APU air are applied to which side of the pneumatic system?

A

Left

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3
Q

With the X BLEED in AUTO, and APU bleed valve open, the Engine Bleed Valves will be ___?

A

Closed

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4
Q

The Engine Bleed Valves are controlled by ___?

A

The associated BMC

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5
Q

With the X BLEED in AUTO, APU bleed valve open, the X BLEED valve will be ___?

A

Open

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6
Q

What is the maximum steering angle provided by the steering hand wheel?

A

75 degrees

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7
Q

For how long can wing-anti ice be operated on the ground?

A

30 seconds

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8
Q

Which fuel tank normally supplies the APU?

A

Left

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9
Q

What control the aileron and elevator response?

A

ELACs

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10
Q

How many slat segments are located on the leading edge of the wing?

A

Five

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11
Q

Is the tail cone area pressurized?

A

no

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12
Q

What is the wingspan?

A

34.1m

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13
Q

Which Display Unit shows the E/WD?

A

Upper ECAM

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14
Q

What is the normal configuration for switches and lights on the flightdeck of the A320?

A

Lights out

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15
Q

The fuel quantity display (FOB) is located on the ___?

A

ECAM E/WD

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16
Q

What color illuminates in a switch to inform that a system is available?

A

Green

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17
Q

Where is the EFIS Control Panels?

A

Glareshield

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18
Q

Potable Water pressure is provided by __?

A

Bleed air and an electric motor pump

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19
Q

Waste tank negative pressure is provided by cabin differential air pressure when aircraft is above ___?

A

16 000 ft

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20
Q

Which of the External Lights automatically turns off when gear is retracted? (regardless of switch position)

A

TAXI, TO and RWY TURN OFF

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21
Q

If the strobe lights are in AUTO, when will they operate?

A

When the main gear struts are extended

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22
Q

When is the LDG LT memo displayed?

A

When at least one landing light is extended

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23
Q

Which electrical bus provides the power to charge the internal batteries for the emergency light system?

A

DC SHED ESS BUS

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24
Q

When activated, how long does the emergency lights last?

A

10 minutes

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25
When on battery power, which dome light can be turned on?
Righthand
26
Where is the control switch for the standby compass light?
Overhead panel
27
If a cabin door is armed, and opened from the outside, what happens?
Slide will not deploy, and emergency mode will not operate
28
Pilot inputs to the MCDU are considered ____?
Managed inputs
29
Pilots inputs to the FCU is considered ____?
Selected inputs
30
What device is responsible for autotuning of RADNAV?
FMGS
31
With AP1 and 2 on for a dual channel approach, which FMGS is the master?
FMGC 1
32
Which FMGC provides signals to the autopilots?
Both
33
Cat 3 dual is ___?
a fail operational system
34
After an instinctive disconnect, the alerts _______.
Will automatically cancel
35
What is engaged when the V/S - FPA knob is pressed (pushed in)?
Level off
36
What is engaged when the altitude selector knob is pressed?
Managed vertical mode
37
For how long is a white box present around a newly activated FMA mode?
10 seconds
38
In which FMA row will special FMA messages appear?
Third
39
Is A/THR used for takeoff?
No
40
Which DMC normally provides images to the System Display (SD)?
DMC 1
41
If the mode or range data fail on the ND, what is the default mode and range?
ROSE NAV mode, 80NM range
42
The airspeed trend arrow shows the predicted speed in how much time?
10 seconds
43
How much vertical speed is needed for it to show in digital format on the vertical speed display?
min 200ft/min
44
How many display modes are available on the ND?
5 (PLAN, ARC, NAV, VOR, LS)
45
What is the radar tilt based upon?
The horizon
46
What is the nominal delay time for APU shutdown, with APU BLEED in use?
60-120 seconds
47
What happens if one lane of the air conditioning system controller fails?
the remaining lane takes over and operation remains normal
48
What is the normal configuration of the avionics ventilation system on a warm day?
Open curcuit
49
What is the normal configuration of the avionics ventilation during flight?
Closed curcuit
50
What happens to hot air to the cargo compartment when the cargo door is opened?
The hot air valve automatically closes, shutting off heat to the cargo compartment
51
How many CPC (Cabin Pressure Controllers) are there?
Two
52
How many onboard sources of AC power is available?
5 (ENG1 GEN, ENG2 GEN, APU GEN, EMER GEN, Static Inverter)
53
If the ND mode is in ILS, what ILS data is displayed?
Data from opposite ILS radio
54
Within what ranges is the Predictive Windshear system giving alerts? Ranges for on ground and in flight respectively.
3NM (ground), 1.5NM (flight)
55
From what heights is the PRED W/S advisories available?
1500-50ft AGL
56
When are all TA aural alerts inhibited?
600ft AGL and below when climbing 400ft AGL and below when descending
57
Below what height is "Increase Descent" RAs inhibited?
1450ft AGL
58
With the TCAS switch in ABV, within what altitude ranges is traffic displayed?
9900 above, 2700 below
59
What is the primary purpose of GPWS Mode 4 alerts?
To provide alert to protect against CFIT
60
What is the approximate time before impact for a look ahead terrain caution?
40-60 seconds
61
Where does the GPWS receive data from?
RA1, ADIRS1, ILS1, FMGC1, LGCIU1
62
What hydraulic system provides normal braking?
Green
63
What has to be electrically powered for the landing gear indicator panel lights to be operational?
LGCIU 1
64
What does LGCIU stand for?
Landing Gear Control Interface Unit
65
How many brake applications are available when operating on accumulator pressure only?
Seven
66
When does a wheel brake temperature arc appear amber?
When temperature exceeds 300 degrees
67
What hydraulic system provide pressure to the Nosewheel Steering?
Yellow
68
What is the maximum steering angle that can be commanded by rudder pedals?
6 degrees either direction
69
Where is fuel that flows through the IDG cooler returned to?
Outer tank of respective wing
70
What computers provide backup for elevators and ailerons?
SECs
71
Which spoiler panels deploys as speed brakes?
2, 3 and 4
72
How many slat and flap surfaces are on each wing?
5 slat, 2 flap
73
At what bank angle will the FDs disappear?
45 degrees
74
When does the aircraft switch from ground mode to flight mode?
RA above 50ft, AC in flight, pitch above 8 degrees
75
What modes are available when operating with alternate law with reduced protection?
Flight, flare, ground
76
How many crew masks are there on the flight deck?
Four
77
At what cabin altitude does the cabin oxygen masks automatically deploy?
14 000ft
78
How are the reverser doors operated?
Hydraulically
79
At what N2-percentage will ignition come on during an automatic start?
16% N2
80
When will ignition automatically shut off during an engine start? (regardless of auto or manual start)
When N2 reaches 50%
81
How many igniters will activate during manual engine start?
Two
82
When does the green command arcs appear on the E/WD to display the difference from the current thrust and commanded thrust?
Only when A/THR is active
83
When the Mode Selector is moved to IGN/START, what happens?
The FADEC is powered, the ECAM engine page displays, and the pack valves close
84
If the thrust levers are positioned between detents, what is the thrust limit computed to?
The next higher detent
85
After the agent has been discharged to a cargo compartment, how long will it be until the DISCH light comes on?
About 60 seconds
86
What parts of the wing can be heated by the wing anti ice?
the three most outboard slats
87
With loss of electrical power, in what position does the wing anti ice valve fail?
Closed
88
With loss of electrical power, in what position does the engine anti ice valve fail?
Open
89
At what pressure will the bleed air valve automatically close due to downstream pressure?
85 psi
90
What will appear on the DOOR/OXY ECAM page if the regulated oxygen pressure drops below 50 PSI?
Amber REGUL LO PR indication
91
At what cabin alt will the cockpit oxygen system provide 100% oxygen, regardless of selected operating mode?
35 000 ft

A320 (3 decks)

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