CC Flashcards by Rhoan Jane Altura Calunsag

Which if of the following refers to the chylomicrons?
A. Cathode
B. Anode

A. Cathode

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

It is the main storage lipid in humans (found in adipose tissue); constitutes 95% stored fat:
A. Cholesterol
B. Phospholipid
C. Fatty acids
D. Triglycerides

D. Triglycerides

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following apoproteins is responsible for the receptor binding for IDL and the Chylomicron remnant produced in fat transport?
A. Apo A1
B. Apo C
C. Apo E
D. Apo B

C. Apo E

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following apoproteins is inversely related to risk for coronary heart disease and is a surrogate marker for HDL?
A. Apo A-1
B. Apo B48
C. Apo B100
D. Apo E

A. Apo A1

Apo B48- chylomicrons
Apo B100- LDL, VLDV
Apo E- IDL

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following would be most adversely affected by non fasting sample?
A. HDL
B. LDL
C. Cholesterol
D. Triglycerides

D. Triglycerides

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which type of lipids are steroids derived from?
A. Glyceride
B. Nonglyceride
C. Fatty Acid
D. Complex

B. Nonglyceride

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following blood samples would serve the best to assay lipoproteins because this anticoagulant preserve lipoproteins?
A. EDTA plasma sample
B. Heparin plasma sample
C. Citrate plasma sample
D. Fluoride plasma sample

A. EDTA plasma sample

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following lipoproteins is considered the smallest of all lipoproteins and is composed of 50% protein?
A HDL
B. Chylomicrons
C. Triglycerides
D. LDL

A. HDL

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is a rare autosomal recessive disorder characterized by the absence of VLDL, LDL and chylomicrons?
A. Bassen-Kornzweig syndrome
B. Tangier Disease
C. Anderson’s disease
D. Sitosterolemia

A. Bassen-Koenzweig Synderome

ApoB is absent

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is a rare autosomal recessive disorder characterized by the absence of HDL?
A. Bassen-Kornzweig syndrome
B. Tangier Disease
C. Anderson’s disease
D. Sitosterolemia

B. Tangier disease

Apo A is absent

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is a rare autosomal recessive disorder characterized by the absence of chylomicrons?
A. Bassen-Kornzweig syndrome
B. Tangier Disease
C. Anderson’s disease
D. Sitosterolemia

C. Andersons disease

Apo B48 is absent

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

At what serum glucose concentration would glucose begin to appear in the urine?
A. 50 mg/dl
B. 75 mg/dl
C. 100 mg/dl
D. 170 mg/dl

D. 170 mg/dl

Renal threshold: 160-180 mg/dl

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Sodium renal threshold?
A. 50 mmol/L
B. 75 mmol/L
C. 100 mmol/L
D. 120 mmol/L

D. 120 mmol/L

Renal threshold: 110-130 mmol/L

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The Dubowski method for glucose utilizes:
A. Arsenomolybdic acid
B. Orthotoluidine
C. G6PD
D. Mutarotase

B. Orthotoluidine

(Condensation reaction)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is the most specific enzymatic method for glucose determination (employing G6PD as a second coupling step)?
A. Glucose oxidase
B. Glucose dehydrogenase
C. Hexokinase
D. Pyruvate Kinase

C. Hexokinase

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What form of sugar in the liver is converted to glucose?
A. Starch
B. Cellulose
C. Glycogen
D. Amylopectin

C. Glycogen

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Type 1 DM
I. Detectable C-peptide
II. Undetectable C-peptide
III. Most common in childhood/teens
IV. Most common in advancing age

A. I and III
B. III and IV
C. II and III
D. II and IV

C. II and III

There is low/no insulin for C-peptide to be detectable.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the Critical Value for hyperglycemia?
A. >200 mg/dl
B.>300mg/dl
C. >400mg/dl
D. > 500mg/dl

D.> 500mg/dl

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A fasting blood sugar result of equal or greater then ____ is diagnostic for diabetes mellitus
A. 90mg/dl
B. 126mg/dl
C. 110mg/dl

B. 126mg/dl

90mg/dl- normal
110 mg/dl— impared

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following methods is used as the primary reference method in the determination of HBA1c?
A. HPLC
B. Affinity chromatography
C. Ion-exchange chromatography
D. Immunoassay

A.HPLC

Preferred method(routine)- Affinity chromatography

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Where does TCA(Kreb’s cycle) happens?
A. Mitochondria
B. Deoxyribonucleic acid
C. Ribonucleic acid
D. Golgi aparatus

A. Mitochondria

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Abnormality of the hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyl transferase indicate problems with ___ metabolism
A. Purines
B. Pyrimidines
C. Myscle
D. Amino acid

A. Purines

Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome(Uric Acid)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

End color of phosphotungstic acid (Caraway method) for uric acid?
A. Red
B. Orange
C. Blue
D. Yellow

C. Blue

Orange-Jaffe(Creatinine)
Yellow—Fearon’s(Urea)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Creatinine is formed in the
A. Liver
B. Muscles
C. Brain
D. Kidney

B. Muscles

Muscled metabolism- Creatinine
Protein metabolism- Urea
Purine metabolism- Uric Acid
Amino Acid Deamination- Ammonia

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Dont stop

Padayun

In the direct Jaffe method for creatinine, a____ tauter of creatinine picrate is formed when creatinine is mixed with alkaline picrate reagent. A. Yellow-green B. Blue- green C.Mauve lavender D. Red-Orange

D. Red-Orange

Creatinine is expressed in A. Umol/L B. mL/s C. mmol/L D.mL/min

A. umol/L

Neurotoxic product of amino acid deamination: A. Ammonia B. Urea C. Uric Acid D. Creatinine

A. Ammonia

Albumin level in ascites:(Kwashiorkur) A. Increase B. Decrease

B. Decrease Decrease: Albumin, protein, calorie

Most specific myocardial infraction: A. Troponin I B. Myoglobin C. AST D. CK-MB

A. Troponin I Rise: 3-6hrs Peak- 12-18hrs Back to normal: 5-10days

True about CRP I. Elevated in bacterial infection II. It may be used as cardiac marker III. It is an acute inflammatory marker IV. It is a chronic inflammatory marker A. I and III B. I, II and III C. All of these

B. I, II and III

Which test is used as an indicator of congestive heart failure A. CRP B. BNP C. BTP D. CTX

B. BNP BTP- CSF leakage, perilymphatic fistulas CTX- bone resobtion

Which of the following tests is a good marker of nutritional value? A. Immunoglobulin M B. Prealbumin C. Ceruloplasmin D. Lp(a)

B. Prealbumin Ceruloplasmin- Wilson’s (copper) Lp(a)- risk of congenital heart disease

Which of the following formula refers to globin? A. Total protein+ Albumin B. Total protein - Albumin C. Total protein x Albumin D. Total protein / Albumin

B. Total protein - albumin

What protein fraction migrates the farthest TOWARDS the anode? A. Albumin B. Alpha globulins C. Beta globulins D. Gamma globulins

A. Albumin

The last step in enzymatic measurement for cholesterol involves which reaction? A. Trinder reaction B. Caraway reaction C. Diazo reaction D. Fearow’s reaction

A. Trinder reaction Caraway reaction- Uric Acid(Blue) Diazo reaction- Bilirubin Fearow’s reaction-Urea(Yellow) Jaffe- Creatinine Berthelot’s- ammonia

How is tolburamide administered in tolbutamide tolerance test? A. Intramuscularly B. Intravenously C. Subcutaneously D. Percutaneouslt

B. Intravenously

Conjugated bilirubin 1. Cannot appear in Urine 2. Can appear in Urine 3. Direct Bilirubin 4. Indirect Bilirubin A. 1 3 B 1 4 C 2 3 D 2 4

In which of the following disease states would you see an elevation in total bilirubin and conjugated bilirubin only? A. Biliary obstruction B. Hemolytic anemia C. Neonatal jaundice D. Hepatitis

A. Biliary obstruction Hemolytic anemia- ⬆️B1 Hepatitis-⬆️B1 ⬆️B2

Hepatocelluar damage may be best assessed by which of the following parameter? A. Serum AST and ALT B. Serum GGT, ALP C. Bilirubin, GGT and ALP D. Ammonia and Urea

A. Serum AST and ALT

Which test might be used to assess a person who is disoriented or confused? A. Cholesterol B. Ammonia C. CRPs D. Iron

B. Ammonia

Measurements of bilirubin in chemistry analyzers are based on A. Nephelometry B. Turbidimetry C. Photometry

C. Photometry Evelyn-Malloy-Methanol Jendrassik-Grof- Caffiene

Which test might be ordered on a patient with abdominal pain to test for possible pancreatitis? A. Amylase and lipase B. Sodium and potassium C. Cholesterol and triglyceride D. C3 and C4

A. Amylase and lipase

Which of the following enzymes is the best indicator of pancreatic function? A. AST B. ALT C. Amylase D. Lipase

D. Lipase

Kinetic enzyme assays are best performed during which phase of an enzymatic reaction? A. Linear phase B. Lag Phase C. Plateau phase D. Any phase as long as temp and pH are constant

A. Linear phase

A farmer that is working in the field accidentally had a pesticide poisoning. Cholinesterase activity is tested, which of the following is the expected result? A. Increased B. Decreased C variable result D. Normal

D. Decreased cholinesterase

A patient sample is assayed for fasting triglycerides and a triglyceride value of 1036mg/dL. This value is of immediate concern because of its association with which of the following conditions? A. Coronary heart disease B. Diabetes C. Pancreatitis D. Gout

C. Pancreatitis

Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the conversion if p-nitrophenyl phosphate to a colored p-niyrophen product? A. AST B. ALT C. ALP D. GGT

C. ALP Bowers McComb -PNPP Paget’s syndrome -Highest ALP

Which of the following buffers is used in the IFCC recommended method for ALP? A. Acetic Acid B. Tris-EDTA C. 2-Amino-2methyl-1propanol(AMP) D. Bicarbonate

C. AMP

An electrophoretic separation of lactate dehydrogenase isoenzymes that demonstrates an elevation in LD-1 and LD-2 in a flipped pattern is consistent with? A. Myocardial infraction B. Viral hepatitis C. Pancreatitis D. Renal failure

A. Myocardial infraction

The enzyme which exist chiefly in skeletal muscle, heart, and brain, is grossly elevated in active muscular dystrophy and rises early in myocardial infraction is: A. Lipase B. Aspartate transaminase C. Lactate dehydrogenase D. Creatinine kinase

D. Creatinine kinase CkMM- cathodal CkBB- anodal

Which of the following clinical disorders is associated with the greatest elevation of lactate dehydrogenase? A. Pneumonia B. Glomerulonephritis C. Pancreatitis D. Pernicious anemia

D. Pernicious anemia

What is both an enzyme and a hormone? A. Acetylcholinesterase B. Renin C. Corrisol

B. Renin

Chief plasma cation whose main function is maintaining osmotic pressure A. Chloride B. Calcium C. Sodium D. Potassium

C. Sodium (CATION)

Sample of choice for potassium measurement A. Whole blood B. Plasma C. Urine D. Serum

B. Plasma (heparin anticoagulant)

What is the most common cause of pseudohyperkalemia? A. In vitro phenomenon B. Diarrhea C. Starvation D. Blood transfusion

A. In vitro phenomenon Due to hemolysis. Potassium gets to the plasma resulting to paeudohyperkalemia

What is the most common cause of pseudohyperkalemia? A. In vitro phenomenon B. Diarrhea C. Starvation D. Blood transfusion

A. In vitro phenomenon Due to hemolysis. Potassium gets to the plasma resulting to paeudohyperkalemia

What is the sample of choice for measuring blood osmolality? A. Serum B. Plasma C. Whole blood D. Urine

A. Serum (freezing point)

Osmolality can be defined as a measure of the concentration of a solution based on: A. The number of particles present B. The number of size of particles present C. The density of particles present D. The isoelectric point of a particle

A. The number of the particles present

The most method for electrolyte testing involves A. Turbidimetry B. Nephelometry C. Potentiometry D. Fluorometry

C. Potentiometry Electrolyte testing= ISE K+- valinomycin Gel Na+ & pH- Glass Nh4+- monactin, monnactin pO2- Clark pCo2- severynhaus

To maintain electrical neutrality in the red blood cell, bicarbonate leaves the ted blood cell and enters the plasma through an exchange mechanism with the which following A. TCO2 B. Sodium C. Chloride D. Phosphate

C. Chloride

Which of the following is the correct collection and handling for the analysis of blood gases? A. Plastic syringe, dry heparin, store on ice, assay within 1hr B. Glass syringe, liquid heparin, store on ice, assay within 15 mins C. Glass syringe, no additive, store on ice, assay within 15mins D. Plastic syringe, dry heparin, store at room temperature, assay within 15 minutes

D. Plastic syringe, dry heparin, store at room temperature, assay within 15 minutes. Blood gasses

What is the main reason that causes the following blood gas values pH= 7.25 pCO2- 36mmHg HCO3- 19mEq/L A. Hypoventilation B. Bicarbonate retention C. Hyperventilation D. Bicarbonate loss

D. Bicarbonate loss

Used to calibrate pH electrode A. Distilled water B. Tap water C. Hyperventilation D. Bicarbonate loss

Metabolic Acidosis D. Bicarbonate loss

Used to calibrate pH electrode A. Distilled water B. Tap water C. Buffers

C. Buffers

Uncompensated metabolic acidosis A. pH 7.25, HCO3 15mmol/L, PCO2 37mmHg B. pH 7.30. HCO3 16mmol/L, PCO2 30 mmHg A. pH 7.45 , HCO3 22mmol/L, PCO2 40mmHg A. pH 7.45, HCO3 25mmol/L, PCO2 40mmHg

A. pH 7.25, HCO3 15mmol/L, PCO2 37mmHg

Which is a sign of primary adrenal insufficiency A. Acidosis B. Hypertension C. Hypokalemia D. Hypercortisolism

A. Acidosis Primary adrenal insufficiency ⬇️ALD, Cortisol, Na, BP, K+

What is the least sensitive marker for the diagnosis of pheochromacytoma? A. Plasma metanephrine B. Plasma catecholamines C. Urine metaphrine D. Vanillylmandelic acid

D. Vanillylmandelic acid

If a screening TSK is high, which test is likely to be ordered next? A. Cholesterol B. Free T4 C. Ferritin D. Glucose

B. Free T4

Of the following, which will most likely interfere with quantification of thyroglobulin? A. Antithyrogolobulin autoantibodies B. Thyroid-stimulating antibodies C. TSH receptor antibody D. Thyroid peroxidase antibodies

A. Antithyroglobulin autoantibodies

The center of thyroid hormone production A. Follicle B. Parafollicle C. Anterior pituitary gland D. Posterior pituitary gland

A. Follicle Parafollicle- calcitonin

GO GO GO PADAYUN

The pituitary gland is located in a small cavity in the ____ of the skull called sella turnica or turkish saddle A. Lacrimal bone B. Ethmoid bone C. Sphenoid bone D. External acoustic measure

C. Sphenoid bone

Ca concentration in the serum is regulated by A. Insulin B. Parathyroid hormone C. Thyroxine D. Vitamin C

B. Parathyroid Hormone VitD ⬆️ Calcium Calcitonin ⬇️Calcium

The majority of thyroxine (T4) is converted into the more biologically active hormone A. Thyroglobulin B. Thyroid-Stimulating hormone C. Triiodothyronine (T3) D. Thyrotropin-releasing hormone

C. Triiodothyronine (T3)

Which of the following is secreted by the placenta and used for the early detection of pregnancy? A. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) B. Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) C. Luteinizing hormone D. Progresterone

B. Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)

During pregnancy, the form of estrogen measures in urine is mostly A. Estradiol B. Estriol C. Estrone D. Pregnanediol

B. Estriol E3

The biologically most active, naturally occurring androgen is A. Androstenedione B. Cortisol C. Epiandeosterone D. Testosterone

D. Testosterone

Plasma cortisol determinations were collected at 7am, after waking the patient and at 10PM that evening. The cortisol level of the morning sample was higher than the evening sample. This is consistent with A. Normal B. Cushing syndrome C. Addison disease D

A. Normal finding ⬆️AM⬇️PM Cushing syndrome ⬆️AM⬆️PM Addison disease ⬇️AM⬇️PM Hypopituitarism ⬇️AM ⬇️PM

What common substrate is used in the biosynthesis of adrenal steroids, including androgens and estrogens A. Cortisol B. Catecholamines C. Progesterone D. Cholesterol

D. Cholesterol

75. Which of the following statements best describes the predominant feedback system associated with endocrinology? A. Decreased levels of circulating hormones directly result in the production of hormone from the target organ B. Increased circulating levels of hormones directly result in the production of releasing factor from the hypothalamus C. Increased circulating levels of hormones directly result in the production of inhibiting factor from the hypothalamus D. Normal levels of circulating hormones directly result in the production of hormone from the target organ

C. Increased circulating levels of hormones directly result in the production of inhibiting factor from the hypothalamus

Thyroid hormones are derived from A. Histidine B. Cholesterol C. Tyrosine D. Phenylalanine

C. Tyrosine

Trophic hormones are produced by the _____, and releasing factors are produced by the ____ A. Hypothalamus ; pituitary B. Pituitary; hypothalamus C. Specific endocrine glands ; hypothalamus D. Pituitary; target gland

B. Pituitary; hypothalamus

Lead toxicity is acquired via 1 Skin contact 2 animal bites 3 inhalation 4 Ingestion

1,2,4

Which of the following does not contain alcohol? A. Soju B. Wine C. Brandy D. Root beer

D. Root beer

How is ethanol formed A. Fermentation of sugar B. Oxidation of fats C. Breakdown of purines

A. Fermentation of sugar Oxidation of fats- ketones Breakdown if purines- uric acid

Cocaine is metabolized to A. Carbamazepine B. Codeine C. Hydrocodone D. Benzoylecgonine

D. Benzoylecgonine

A drug that relaxes the smooth muscles of the bronchial passage A. Acetaminophen B. Lithium C. Phenytoin D. Theophyline

D. Theophyline & theobromine -anti asthmatic

Which of these drug levels would be considered toxic? A. Alcohol at 80 mg/dL B. Valporic acid at 50 ug/dl C. Acetaminophen at 250 ug/dL D. Salicylate at 27 mg/dL

C. Acetaminophen at 250 ug/dL =Paracetamol >200 ug/dL

Which specimen is the sample of choice for lead screening? A. Whole blood B. Hair C. Serum D. Urine

A. Whole blood Tan EDTA

Which of the following anticoagulants is generally suitable for most drug analyses (TDM)? A. Heparin B. EDTA C. Citrate D. Oxalate

A. Heparin EDTA is for -cyclosporine -tacrolimus

Of the following, which will most likely interfere with quantification of thyroglobulin? A. Antithyroglobulin autoantibodies B. Thyroid-stimulating antibodies C. TSH receptor antibodies D. Thyroid peroxidase antibodies

A. Antithyroglobulin autoantibodies

A gaussian distribution is usually A. Bell shaped B. Rectangular C. Bimodal D. Skewed

A. Bell shaped

Which of the following set of values for repeat analyses of a QC sample (Target value: 50) reflects the best precision? A. 50, 51, 52 B. 50, 52, 56 C. 48, 50, 52 D. 44, 50, 53

A. 50, 51, 52

Which of the following sets of values for repeat analyses of a sample (Target value: 100) shows the least bias? A. 100, 105, 110 B. 95,100,105 C. 90,95,100 D. 90,100,105

B. 95,100,105

How should a laboratory verify the reference range it uses for a particular test? a. Call another laboratory b. Use the numbers form a textbook c. Test samples from healthy people d. Look on a medical internet site

c. Test samples from healthy people Establishing reference interval - 120-700 Verifying a reference interval - 40

First step in analytical phase A. Test order B. Patient preparation C. Specimen collection D. Specimen handling

A. Test order

Which are considered in pre-analytical quality assurance in relation to specimen management? 1 correctly separated or centrifuged 2 test done within specified timeframes 3 intact and seal 4 stored properly

1,2,4 Intact and seal- Transport

Which are considered in post-analytical quality assurance in relation to timeliness? a. Turnaround times recorded and analyzed b. Including laboratory care in patient surveys c. Specimen collection explained to the patient d. Results are accurately transcribed into the system

a. Turnaround times recorded and analyzed

Electrode that is constant A. Glass electrode B. Clarke electrode C. Severinghaus electrode D. Reference electrode

D. Reference electrode

Which type of blank is used to zero solutions before the test? A. Reagent B. Sample C. Calibration D. Procedural

A. Reagent blank Sample blank- during the test

When a serum sample has intrinsic color that absorbs at the same wavelength used to detect the reaction product, what technique could help distinguish the color produced by the analyte from the intrinsic color of the sample? A. Blanking B. Immunoturbidimetry C. Ion selective electrode D. PETINIA

A. Blanking

Which of the following analyses would best be done using photometric rate reaction? A. Measurement if lipase activity B. Determination of albumin with the dye bromocresol green C. Determination of potassium in the presence of excess sodium

A. Measurement of lipase activity

Pretreatment is designed to do which of the following? A. Ensure the concentration of analyte is in the measurable range B. Remove substances that could be erroneously measured as analyte C. Adjust the wavelength of light used for analysis D. Introduce a flourophore

B. Remove substances that could be erroneously measured as analyte

Which of the following would not be a typical methodology for a clinical chemistry test? A. Immunoturbidimetry B. Microscopy C. EMIT D. ISE

B. Microscopy

What does method traceability mean? A. The calibration of a method is linear B. The method meets the required error budget C. The method’s accuracy is linked to a certified method and/or material D. The method does not show matrix effects

C. The method’s accuracy is linked to a certified method and/or material

Which of the following is an example if a preanalytical error? A. Test method incorrectly calibrated B. Collection of blood in wrong kind of tube C. Presence of interfering substances D. Delay in sending the report to the provider

B. Collection of blood in wrong kind of tube

Which type of analytical error can be prevented by a good quality control program? a. Instrument not properly calibrated b. Presence of interfering substance in the sample c. Presence of bubbles in the light path of a photometric method d. Analyte concentration so high it depletes the active reagent

a. Instrument not properly calibrated

Not a physical hazard: a. Freezing temperature b. Noise c. Non-ionizing radiation d. Infectious aerosols

d. Infectious aerosols

Measurement technique to quantify hirsutism: a. Tanner staging system b. Ferriman-Gallwey score c. Both A and B d. None of the above

b. Ferriman-Gallwey score

Effects includes thickening of the cervical mucus, reduction of uterine contractions, and thermogenic effect, in which basal body temperature rises after ovulation. a. Estrogen b. Progesterone c. Testosterone d. None of the above

b. Progesterone