MICROPARA Flashcards by Rhoan Jane Altura Calunsag

Which of the following refers to a positive H2S production result?
a. Formation of red color
b. Formation of yellow precipitate
C. Formation of black precipitate
d. Formation of blue color

C. Formation of black precipitate

SPACEd

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Which of the following is tested to identify the most common cause of otitis media?
A. PYR test
B. Optochin test
C. CAMP test

B. Optochin test/ ethyl hydrosuprinehydro chloride

S. Pneumoniae
-Taxo P
-> 14 mm

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What might be the reason why mycoplasma is not routinely detected using Grams stain?
A. The organism exist almost exclusively within the most cell
B. It lacks cell wall
C. It has insufficient dimension to be resolved using light microscopy

B. It lacks cell wall

Chlamydia & rickettia
-The organism exist almost exclusively within the most cell

Spirochetes
-It has insufficient dimension to be resolved using light microscopy

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Phenotypic properties used to classify bacteria include all the following except?
A. DNA relatedness
B. Colonial morphology
C. Biochemical properties
D. Antibiotic resistance patterns

A. DNA relatedness
-Genotype

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Purpose of mordant in gram staining
A. Dye fixative
B. Reinforcing stain
C. Secondary stain
D. Decolorizer

A. Dye fixative

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The Quebec colony counter used ___ principle
A. Phase-contrast
B. Brightfield
C. Darkfield

C. Darkfield

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What is the typical loop used for urine culture?
A. 1uL
B. 10uL
C. 100uL

A. 1uL

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Kept in sterile, screw-top container:
1 BAL
2 BB
3 BW
4 Sputum

1,2,3,4

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To read transfusion reaction on a blood agar plate accurately, the technologist must hold the plate up to the light and observe light using:
a. Natural light
b. Transmitted light
c. Full spectrum light
d. None of these

b. Transmitted light

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To read transfusion reaction on a blood agar plate accurately, the technologist must hold the plate up to the light and observe plate coming from:
a. Above
b. Behind
c. Across
d. None of these

b. Behind

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Incomplete or partial hemolysis; green or brown color surrounding the colony:
A. Alpha hemolysis
B. Beta hemolysis
C. Gamma hemolysis
D. Alpha prime hemolysis

A. Alpha hemolysis

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What might be the reason why human is not recommended as a source of blood in the preparation of blood agar?
a. Ethical issues regarding the use of human secretion, excretion and material.
b. Safety issues.
c. Generally, blood harvested from animals such as sheep and rabbits allow for a robust growth.
d. Human blood does not contain necessary growth factors required for bacterial growth.

b. Safety issues.

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What is the most probable cause of a Cart-Blair medium changing its color?
A. Change in the pH
B. Buffering capacity is overcome
C. Contamination of the media

B. Buffering capacity is overcome

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Transport media for tool with v. cholerae
A. Stuart
B. Amies
C. Cary blair
D. Buffered glycerol

C. Cary blair

2nd choice: stuart

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What makes MSA a selective medium?

A. Salt
B. Mannitol
C. Phenol red

A. Salt

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Typically, petri dishes are ____
To prevent condensation droplets (moisture build up) from falling onto the surface of the agar
A. Passed over a flame
B. Inverted
C. Incubated

B. Inverted

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McFarland standards are prepared by mixing:
a.1% sulfuric acid and 1.175% barium chloride
b. 2% sulfuric acid and 2% barium chloride
c. 1% sulfuric acid and 2.175% barium chloride

a.1% sulfuric acid and 1.175% barium chloride

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Pure cultures are grown or are prepared directly from agar plates to match the turbidity of McFarland standard.
a. 0.3
b. 0.4
c. 0.5
d. 0.6

c. 0.5 = 1. 5x10^8 CFU/mL

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The agar depth for disk diffusion testing must be held constant at:
a. 2 mm
b. 3 mm
c. 4 mm
d. 5 mm

c. 4 mm

3-5mm

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According to the Kirby-Bauer standard antimicrobial susceptibility testing method, what should be done when interpreting the zone size of a motile, swarming organism such as a Proteus species?
a.The swarming should be ignored
b. The results of the disk diffusion method are invalid
c. The swarming area should be measured as the growth boundary
d. The isolate should be retested after diluting to 0.05 McFarland standard.

a.The swarming should be ignored

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Which of the following specimens would be best for identifying B. cereus as the cause of an outbreak of food poisoning?
a. Blood
b. Rectal swabs
c. Stool samples
d. Food

d. Food

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Responsible for the souring of milk:
a. Lactobacillus acidophilus
b. Streptococcus species
c. Bacillus subtilis
d. Serratia marcescens

b. Streptococcus species

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Forms spores, except:
a. B. anthracis
b. B. cereus
c. B. subtilis
d.B. fragilis

d.B. fragilis

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Gram-negative diplococci with growth on CAP and BAP:
aN. meningitidis
b. N. gonorrhoeae
c. H. influenzae
d. H. parainfluenzae

aN. meningitidis

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Which organism would demonstrate a cherry red color in indole test: a. P. aeruginosa b. Staphylococcus c. Streptococcus d. Enterobacteriaceae

d. Enterobacteriaceae

Not included in IMViC: a. Indole b. Methyl red c. Virulence d. Citrate

c. Virulence

A sputum culture from an alcoholic seen in the ER grows gray, mucoid, stringy colonies on sheep blood agar. The isolate grows readily on MacConkey agar and forms mucoid dark pink colonies. The colonies yield the following test results: ONPG POSITIVE Indole NEGATIVE Glucose POSITIVE Oxidase NEGATIVE Citrate POSITIVE VP POSITIVE The organism is most likely: a. Edwardsiella tarda b Klebsiella pneumoniae c. Escherichia coli d. Proteus vulgaris

B. Klebsiella pneumoniae

100, 000 CFU/mL of a gram-negative bacilli were isolated on MacConkey from a urine specimen. Biochemical results are as follow: 🟢Glucose Acid, gas produced 🟢Indole Negative 🟢Urea Positive 🟢PDA Positive Positive The organism is most likely: a. Morganella morganii Proteus mirabilis c. Proteus vulgaris d. Providencia stuartii

B. Proteus mirabilis

A 64-year-old male with lymphoma has a positive blood culture at 18 hours incubation. The organism is a nonlactose fermenting gram-negative bacillus on MacConkey agar. Further testing gives the following reactions: Oxidase - TSI K/A h2s - Motility + Indole + Citrate + Ornithine decarboxylase - Urea + Phenylalanine deaminase + VP - The genus is: a. Morganella b. Proteus c. Providencia d.Serratia

C. Providencia Morganella OR (+) Ci (-) Providencia OR (-) Ci (+)

E. Coli IMVIC

++- -

What is the classification of Actinomyces? a. Gram-positive aerobic bacilli b. Gram-positive anaerobic bacilli c. Gram-negative aerobic bacilli d. Gram-negative anaerobic bacillit

b. Gram-positive anaerobic bacilli

C. tetani pores: a. Round, terminal b. Round, central c. Oval, subterminal d. Oval, terminal

a. Round, terminal -Tac head, lollipop, tennis racket Oval, subterminal -c. botulinum & c. difficile(motile) - c. perferinges(non motile)

Which of the following is an incorrect match? a. L. interrogans: Kissing b. R. prowazekii: transmitted lice c. C. burnetti: Aerosols d. O. tsutsugamushi: mites and chiggers

a. L. interrogans: Kissing L. interrogans: Rats

Which of the following is the vector of R. prowazekii? a. Mites b. Chiggers C.Flea d. Lice

d. Lice

Which of the following is the vector of Y. pestis? a.Xenopsylla cheopis b. Ixodes scapularis c. Reduviid bugs d. Aedes aegypti

a.Xenopsylla cheopis Rat flea

Culture of a finger wound specimen from a meat packer produced gram positive bacilli on a blood agar plate with no hemolysis. Given the following test results at 48 hours, what is the most likely identification? Catalase= NEGATIVE Motility (wet prep) = NEGATIVE Motility (media) =NEGATIVE H2S = POSITIVE a. L. monocytogenes bE. rhusiopathiae c. B. cereus d. None of the above

B. E. rhysiopathiae

Alcaligenes faecalis (formerly A. odorans) is distinguished from Bordetella bronchiseptica with which test? a. Urease (rapid) b. Oxidase c. Motility d. All of the above

a. Urease (rapid) Alcaligenes faecalis -Strawberry/apple odor

What causes Mycobacterium tuberculosis to stain positive with acid fast stains? a. Presence of thick cell wall b. Presence of chitin fugi c. Presence of mycolic acid d. Presence of abundant polysaccharide capsule

c. Presence of mycolic acid

What is the principle of Xpert MTB/RIF assay used to detect MTB resistance to rifampin? a. Colorimetric b. Disk diffusion testing c. NAAT d. IGRAs

c. NAAT

Which of the following is a blood test that can aid diagnose M. tuberculosis infection? This test can detect latent TB infection. a. NAAT b. IGRAS c. EIA d. None of these

b. IGRAS Interferon Gamma Release Assay

In the central dogma of molecular biology, genetic information flows only in one direction, from DNA to RNA, RNA to: a. Lipids b. Carbohydrates c. DNA d. Protein

d. Protein

Which of the following bacteria should be considered important pathogens when reading gram-stained smears of soft tissue abscess? a. Streptococcus pneumoniae b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae c.Pseudomonas aeruginosa d. Staphylococcus aureus

d. Staphylococcus aureus

Within 5 hours of returning home from lunch at your most favorite fast-food restaurant you feel very sick and are vomiting. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism? a.Staphylococcus aureus b. Vibrio parahaemolyticus с. Shigella sonnei d. Escherichia coli

a.Staphylococcus aureus

Profuse watery diarrhea ("rice water stools"), leading to dramatic fluid loss, severe dehydration, and hypotension that frequently leads to death, is the hallmark of which toxin activity? a. Cholera toxin b. Enteric endotoxin с. Shiga toxin d. Toxin A

a. Cholera toxin Rice watery stool Sucrose fermenter Yellow on TCBS

The best specimen for the isolation of Bordetella pertussis is which of the following? a. Throat swabs b. Sputum c Nasopharyngeal aspirates d. Anterior nose swab

c Nasopharyngeal aspirates

Organisms belonging to the genus Brucella are best described by which of the following statements? a. Gram-positive diplococci b. Gram-positive diphtheroid bacilli c.Gram-negative coccobacilli d. Gram-negative bacilli

c.Gram-negative coccobacilli

Which organism is associated with the disease Melioidosis? a. Burkholderia ralstonia b. Burkholderia pseudomallei c. Burkholderia mallei d. Burkholderia cepacia

b. Burkholderia pseudomallei

Differentiation of Stenotrophomonas maltophilia and Burkholgeria cepacia is best accomplished by which of the following tests? a.Oxidase test b. Maltose and glucose medium c. Tyrosine-enriched heart infusion agar d. Growth at 42° C

a.Oxidase test (-) Stenotrophomonas maltophilia (+)Burkholgeria cepacia

Which of the following sets of results represent the most common reactions for Moraxella catarrhalis When tested in CTA sugar tubes? a. Glucose: Negative; Maltose: Negative; Lactose: Negative; Sucrose: Negative b. Glucose: Positive; Maltose: Negative; Lactose: Negative; Sucrose: Negative c. Glucose: Positive; Maltose: Positive; Lactose: Negative; Sucrose: Negative d. Glucose: Positive; Maltose: Negative; Lactose: Positive; Sucrose: Negative

a. Glucose: Negative; Maltose: Negative; Lactose: Negative; Sucrose: Negative Moraxella catarrhalis -cant sugar

A gram-negative bacillus with bipolar staining was isolated from a wound infection caused by a bite from a pet cat. The following characteristic were seen: Oxidase Positive Glucose OF Fermentative Catalase Positive Motility Negative MacConkey No growth Which of the following is the most likely organism? a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa b.Pasteurella multocida c. Aeromonas hydrophilia d. Vibrio cholerae

b. Pasteurella multocida

Paramecia are completely covered with that beat rhythmically to propel them and to direct bacteria and other food particles into their mouths. a. Flagella b. Pseudopodia c. Cilia d. None of the above

c. Cilia

Eggs of pinworm can be found in: a. Stool b. Perianal region с. Blood d. None of the above

b. Perianal region

Trichuris trichiura is also known as: a. Pinworm b.Whipworm c. Hookworm d. Threadworm

b.Whipworm

Ova recovered from the stool are routinely used to diagnose infections caused by all of the following, except: a. N. americanus b. A. lumbricoides c. T. trichiura d. S. stercoralis

d. S. stercoralis- Larva

Migration of newly hatched larvae from the anal skin back into the rectum (CDC): a. Retroinfection b. Autoinfection c. Hyperinfection d. None of the above

a. Retroinfection

In Strongyloides stercoralis _life cycle, rhabditiform larvae in the gut become infective filariform larvae that can penetrate either the intestinal mucosa or the skin of the perianal area, resulting in: a. Retroinfection b. Autoinfection с. Hyperinfection d. None of the above

b. Autoinfection

Leaflike, unsegmented and monoecious: a Trematode b. Cestode c. Nematode d. Protozoa

a Trematode

Which parasite has been closely associated with cholangiocarcinoma? a. P. westermani b. Fascio/opsis buski c. H. heterophyes C C. sinensis

C C. sinensis

What is the start of trematode life cycle? a. Egg b. Sporocyst c. Miracidia d. Cercaria

a. Egg Egg➡️ Miracidum ➡️ cercaria➡️ metacercaria

The only known human tapeworm with an operculated ova is: a. D. latum b. H. nana c. G. lamblia d. S. haematobium

a. D. latum

In T. solium infection, man serves as: a. Definitive host b. Intermediate host c. Both definitive and intermediate host d. Accidental host

c. Both definitive and intermediate host

If the ova of this parasite are ingested by humans, the oncosphere form can migrate through the body via the bloodstream, resulting in the condition known as cysticercosis. a. T. solium Б. E. histolytica с. H. nana d. C. sinensis

a. T. solium

Objective used to ID organisms in trichrome-stained smears: a: LPO b. HPO C.OlO

C.OlO

The preservative to be employed with trichrome stain is: a. Formalin b. Alcohol c. PVA d. Saline

c. PVA

An Entamoeba histolytica trophozoite has the following characteristics: a. Central karyosome in the nucleus, ingested RBCs, and clear pseudopodia b. Ingested RBCs, clear pseudopodia, and uneven chromatin on the nuclear membrane c. Ingested RBCs, clear pseudopodia, and large glycogen vacuoles in cytoplasm d. Large, blotlike karyosome, ingested white blood cells (WBCs), and granular pseudopods

a. Central karyosome in the nucleus, ingested RBCs, and clear pseudopodia

An MLS finds an E. coli cyst on a wet mount of a fresh stool specimen. Which of the following should be done? a. Request & second specimen b. Look for additional E. coli cysts c. Examine the remaining area of the wet preparation d. Generate a final report

c. Examine the remaining area of the wet preparation

Which of the following parasites have migration through the lung, as part of their lifecycle? a. Necator americanus, Ancylostoma duodenale, Strongyloides stercoralis b. Giardia lamblia, Wuchereria bancrofti, Brugia malayi c. Enterobius vermicularis, Trichuris trichiura, Trichinella spiralis d. Toxocara canis, Toxoplasma gondii, Blastocystis hominis

a. Necator americanus, Ancylostoma duodenale, Strongyloides stercoralis

Necator americanus rhabditiform larvae can be differentiated from Strongyloides stercoralis rhabditiform larvae by: a. Length of the notched tail b. Length of the head region c. Segmentation Size of the genital primordium

D. Size of the genital primordium

Immunoassays can be used in detecting which parasite? a. Malaria b. Trichuris c. Ascaris d. None of the above

a. Malaria

Eating poorly cooked pork can lead to an infection with: a. Taenia solium and Trichinella spiralis b. Taenia saginata and Hymenolepis nana c. Trichuris trichiura and Hymenolepis diminuta d. Diphyllobothrium latum and Ascaris lumbricoides

a. Taenia solium and Trichinella spiralis

Trophozoite forms of amoebae are found in what type of stool specimen? a. Formed b. Loose c. Soft d. Watery

d. Watery- Trophozoite Formed-cyst

Which preservation method is most suitable and the most widely used for subsequent fixed smear preparation? a. Formalin-ethyl acetate b. PVA c. Trichrome d. MIF

b. PVA

What is the reason why B. fragilis is resistant to penicillin? a. Production of capsule b. Production of beta-lactam ring c. Production of beta-lactamase d. None of the above

c.Production of beta-lactamase

Which of the following tests uses Kovac's reagent? a. Indole production b. Methyl red test c. Voges Proskauer test d. Citrate utilization test

a. Indole production

Which of the following is not aBSL-1 organism? a. Serratia marcescens b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Bacillus subtilis d. Staphylococcus epidermidis

b. Staphylococcus aureus BSL -2 Serratia marcescens BSL -1 Bacillus subtilis BSL- 1 Staphylococcus epidermidis BSL -1

schizogony life cycle of Plasmodia occurs in which of the following host? a. Definitive host bIntermediate host c. Accidental host

bIntermediate host

A college student attended a beach party where raw oysters and other shellfish were consumed. The next day, he had symptoms of septicemia. The blood cultures grew gram-negative bacilli with the following characteristics: Oxidase Positive MacConkey Pink colonies agar 0/129 Susceptible (150ug) The most likely organism is: a. Aeromonas hydrophila b. Pseudomonas putida c. Serratia marcescens d. Vibrio vulnificus

D. Vibrio vulnificus

An aerobic, gram-negative coccobacillus was isolated on Bordet-Gengou agar from a nasopharyngeal swab 48 hours after culture from a 6-month-old infant with suspected pertussis. The organism exhibited the following characteristics: MacConkey No growth agar Urea Negative at 4 hours, positive at 24 hours Oxidase Negative Catalase Positive The most probable identification is: a. Moraxella lacunata b. Pasteurella ureae c. Bordetella pertussis

D. Bordetella parapertusis

While swimming in a lake near his home, a young boy cut his foot, and an infection developed. The culture grew a nonfastidious gram-negative, oxidase positive, beta-hemolytic, motile bacilli that produced deoxyribonuclease. The most likely identification is: a. Enterobacter cloacae b. Serratia marcescens Aeromonas hydrophila d. Escherichia coli

C. Aeromonas hydrophilia

The protein coat that surrounds the nucleic acid of a virion is called which of the following? a. Capsomere b. Capsid c. Capsule d. Nucleocapsid

b. Capsid

Prions are best described by which of the following? a. infectious viral RNA without capsid proteins b. Infectious protein with no associated nucleic acid c. Infectious viral DNA without capsid proteins d. Nonenveloped virus highly resistant to heat and chemical inactivation

b. Infectious protein with no associated nucleic acid

Which of the following viruses are thought to predominately cause gastroenteritis? a. Hepadnaviruses b. Filoviruses c. Noroviruses d. Arboviruses

c. Noroviruses -Cruise ship

Which of the following is the specimen of choice for detecting rotavirus? a. Throat swab b. Urine sample c. Bronchoalveolar wash d. Feces sample

d. Feces sample

The test of choice and most sensitive assay for use with CSF to diagnose aseptic meningitis caused by enterovirus is which of the following? a. Cell culture b.PCR c. Antigenemia immunoassay d. Shell vial assay

b.PCR

In the lactophenol cotton blue, fungal spores, hyphae, and fruiting structures of fungi stain while the background stains pale blue. a. White b. Red c. Blue d. Gray

c. Blue

Nutrient media suitable for cultivation of fungi: а. ВАР b. CAP с. MAC d.SDA

d.SDA Dextrose- provides energy

A mold is isolated in the laboratory that displays a velvety, gray-green colony morphology. On microscopic evaluation, flask-shaped conidiophores arranged in a brushlike formation are seen. The most likely organism is which of the following? a.Penicillium sp. b. Acremonium sp. c. Paecilomyces sp. d. Scopulariopsis sp.

a.Penicillium sp.

A KOH preparation of respiratory secretions of a 78- year-old man reveals large, spherical, thick-walled yeast cells 8 to 15 mm in diameter, usually with a single bud that is connected to the parent cell by a broad base. Which fungus will likely be isolated from the culture? a. Coccidioides immitis b. Blastomyces dermatitidis c. Histoplasma capsulatum d. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis

b. Blastomyces dermatitidis