CCNP - Implementing Cisco Data Center v5 - DCUFI Flashcards
1
Q
Q1) Which multifunction adapter integrates with the Cisco Nexus 5000 and 5500 Platform switches to provide Cisco Unified Fabric convergence? (Source: Describing the Cisco Data Center Network Architecture)
A) network interface card
B) host bus adapter
C) consolidated network adapter
D) converged network adapter
A
Q1) Which multifunction adapter integrates with the Cisco Nexus 5000 and 5500 Platform switches to provide Cisco Unified Fabric convergence? (Source: Describing the Cisco Data Center Network Architecture)
D) converged network adapter
- slide 23
2
Q
Q2) What is the advantage of having a core layer? (Source: Describing Cisco Data Center Network Architecture)
A) ability to replace the core
B) high-speed interfaces
C) cost savings
D) test bed
A
Q2) What is the advantage of having a core layer? (Source: Describing Cisco Data Center Network Architecture)
A) ability to replace the core
must relate to “future growth” - slide 29
3
Q
Q3) Which Cisco product supports the integration of service modules to create a services chassis? (Source: Describing Cisco Data Center Network Architecture)
A) Cisco Catalyst 4000 Series Switch
B) Cisco Catalyst 6000 Series Switch
C) Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch
D) Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switch
A
Q3) Which Cisco product supports the integration of service modules to create a services chassis? (Source: Describing Cisco Data Center Network Architecture)
D) Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switch
- slide 33
4
Q
Q4) Which technology enables data center architects to gain new design flexibility while simplifying cabling infrastructure and management complexity? (Source: Identifying Cisco Nexus Products)
A) Cisco OTV
B) Cisco FabricPath
C) Cisco FEX-Link
D) vPC
A
Q4) Which technology enables data center architects to gain new design flexibility while simplifying cabling infrastructure and management complexity? (Source: Identifying Cisco Nexus Products)
C) Cisco FEX-Link
- slide 25
5
Q
Q5) Which Cisco Nexus switch is supported on the IBM BladeCenter H and HT chassis? (Source: Identifying Cisco Nexus Products)
A) Cisco Nexus 4001I Switch Module
B) Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extender
C) Cisco Nexus 1000V Switch
D) Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switch
A
Q5) Which Cisco Nexus switch is supported on the IBM BladeCenter H and HT chassis? (Source: Identifying Cisco Nexus Products)
A) Cisco Nexus 4001I Switch Module
- slide 43
6
Q
Q6) Which feature is supported on the Cisco Nexus 5500 Platform switches to provide native Layer 2 multipathing? (Source: Identifying Cisco Nexus Products)
A) IS-IS
B) Extended Port Channels
C) Spanning Tree Protocol
D) Cisco FabricPath
A
Q6) Which feature is supported on the Cisco Nexus 5500 Platform switches to provide native Layer 2 multipathing? (Source: Identifying Cisco Nexus Products)
D) Cisco FabricPath
- slide 25
7
Q
Q7) Which feature would be used to extend the Layer 2 domain between multiple network locations? (Source: Identifying Cisco Nexus Products)
A) vPC
B) Cisco OTV
C) Cisco FabricPath
D) TRILL
A
Q7) Which feature would be used to extend the Layer 2 domain between multiple network locations? (Source: Identifying Cisco Nexus Products)
B) Cisco OTV
- slide 25
8
Q
Q8) Which feature would be used to virtualize the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches hardware? (Source: Identifying Cisco Nexus Products)
A) virtual device contexts
B) VLANs
C) VRFs
D) security contexts
A
Q8) Which feature would be used to virtualize the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches hardware? (Source: Identifying Cisco Nexus Products)
A) virtual device contexts
9
Q
Q1) Which option provides the most effective load-balancing solution? (Source: Understanding High Availability and Redundancy)
A) HSRP with STP
B) GLBP with STP
C) HSRP with vPC
D) GLBP with PC
A
Q1) Which option provides the most effective load-balancing solution? (Source: Understanding High Availability and Redundancy)
C) HSRP with vPC
Cisco extension for HSRP vPC enables optimal flows:
1. Clients load-balance traffic to both vPC uplink switches
2. Active router forwards traffic directly to the core
- slide 100
10
Q
Q2) Which statement best describes Nonstop Forwarding (NSF)? (Source: Understanding High Availability and Redundancy)
A) It exchanges frequent hello messages to detect connectivity problems
B) It replaces hello messages of the routing protocols
C) It facilitates graceful restart when a process fails
D) It performs Stateful Switchover (SSO) when the active supervisor experiences a problem
A
Q2) Which statement best describes Nonstop Forwarding (NSF)? (Source: Understanding High Availability and Redundancy)
D) It performs Stateful Switchover (SSO) when the active supervisor experiences a problem
- slide 111
11
Q
Q3) Which component in the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch is upgraded last during a Cisco IOS ISSU process? (Source: Understanding High Availability and Redundancy)
A) active supervisor
B) CMP
C) I/O module
D) standby supervisor
A
Q3) Which component in the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch is upgraded last during a Cisco IOS ISSU process? (Source: Understanding High Availability and Redundancy)
C) I/O module
- Standby sup brought up on new OS
- Sup switchover
- Original active sup upgraded
- CMP BIOS/image upgraded
- I/O module hitless upgrades
- slide 122
12
Q
Q4) Which of the following virtualization models best describes VDCs? (Source: Configuring Virtual Device Contexts)
A) Data plane virtualization
B) Data plane and control plane virtualization
C) Data plane, control plane, and management plane virtualization
D) Data plane, control plane, and operating environment virtualization with resource control
E) Data plane, control plane, management plane, and operating environment virtualization with resource control
A
Q4) Which of the following virtualization models best describes VDCs? (Source: Configuring Virtual Device Contexts)
C) Data plane, control plane, and management plane virtualization (separation) with resource management and process separation
- slide 131
13
Q
Q5) Which of the following deployment scenarios are enabled by VDCs? (Choose three.) (Source: Configuring Virtual Device Contexts)
A) Split core for migrations and mergers
B) Access layer expansion for increased numbers of access switches
C) Multiple aggregation blocks for management and policy separation
D) Service insertion for increased security and fault isolation
E) Collapsed core for reduced management points
A
Q5) Which of the following deployment scenarios are enabled by VDCs? (Choose three.) (Source: Configuring Virtual Device Contexts)
A) Split core for migrations and mergers
C) Multiple aggregation blocks for management and policy separation
D) Service insertion for increased security and fault isolation
- slide 132
14
Q
Q6) How many VDCs are supported on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch? (Source: Configuring Virtual Device Contexts)
A) Four equal VDCs, which control a subset of the resources on the switch.
B) Eight VDCs, which control a subset of the resources on the switch.
C) One default VDC, which controls the entire switch and three nondefault VDCs, with limited control over a subset of the switch resources.
D) One default VDC, which controls the entire switch and seven nondefault VDCs, with limited control over a subset of the switch resources.
E) Two VDCs, which control a subset of the resources on the switch.
A
Q6) How many VDCs are supported on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch? (Source: Configuring Virtual Device Contexts)
C) One default VDC, which controls the entire switch and three nondefault VDCs, with limited control over a subset of the switch resources.
- Sup1 offers 4 total (1 default)
- *Sup2 offers 4 + 1 (ADMIN)
- **Sup2E offers 8 + 1 (ADMIN) and scales to 48 FEX
- slide 65
15
Q
Q7) Which of the following resources can be assigned to a specific VDC on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch? (Source: Configuring Virtual Device Contexts)
A) A percentage of the supervisor CPU capacity
B) Individual interfaces or port groups on I/O modules
C) A dedicated slice of the supervisor DRAM
D) The out-of-band (OOB) management interface
A
Q7) Which of the following resources can be assigned to a specific VDC on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch? (Source: Configuring Virtual Device Contexts)
B) Individual interfaces or port groups on I/O modules
16
Q
Q8) Which of the following resources can be limited through a VDC resource template? (Choose three.) (Source: Configuring Virtual Device Contexts)
A) Number of VLANs
B) Number of SPAN sessions
C) Amount of space on the supervisor CompactFlash in megabytes
D) Power consumption for the ports that are assigned to the VDC
E) Amount of supervisor memory that is assigned to IPv4 routes in megabytes
F) Amount of supervisor memory that is assigned to MAC addresses and access list entries
A
Q8) Which of the following resources can be limited through a VDC resource template? (Choose three.) (Source: Configuring Virtual Device Contexts)
A) Number of VLANs (16 - 4094) B) Number of SPAN sessions (0 - 2) E) Amount of supervisor memory that is assigned to IPv4 routes in megabytes Resource templates are configurable - slide 139
17
Q
Q9) When you change a value in a resource template, it is automatically applied to all VDCs that use that resource template. (Source: Configuring Virtual Device Contexts)
A) true
B) false
A
Q9) When you change a value in a resource template, it is automatically applied to all VDCs that use that resource template. (Source: Configuring Virtual Device Contexts)
B) false, a VDC resource template is not “live” and must be reapplied for changes to take affect:
vdc NAME (migrates to appropriate VDC)
template TEMPLATE-NAME (applies updates)
- slide 155
18
Q
Q10) Which of the following licenses needs to be installed in order to configure VDCs? (Source: Configuring Virtual Device Contexts)
A) Enterprise Services Package B) Transport Services Package C) Enhanced Layer 2 Package D) Scalable Feature Package E) Basic Storage Services Package F) Advanced Services Package G) Storage Protocols Services Package H) Virtualization Services Package
A
Q10) Which of the following licenses needs to be installed in order to configure VDCs? (Source: Configuring Virtual Device Contexts)
F) Advanced Services Package
19
Q
Q11) Which feature must be enabled in order to implement a storage VDC? (Source: Configuring Virtual Device Contexts)
A) FCoE Initialization Protocol (FIP)
B) Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP)
C) Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP)
D) FCoE license
A
Q11) Which feature must be enabled in order to implement a storage VDC? (Source: Configuring Virtual Device Contexts)
B) Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP) is required in the storage VDC for FCOE negotiation. LACP is optional.
- slide 164
20
Q
Q12) Which of the following commands is used to configure the first four Gigabit Ethernet ports on an I/O module of a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch? (Source: Configuring Layer 2 Switching Features)
A) interface range ethernet 1/1-4
B) interface ethernet 1/1-4
C) interface range GigabitEthernet 1/1-4
D) interface GigabitEthernet 1/1-4
A
Q12) Which of the following commands is used to configure the first four Gigabit Ethernet ports on an I/O module of a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch? (Source: Configuring Layer 2 Switching Features)
B) interface ethernet 1/1-4
21
Q
Q13) Which of the following statements best describes the use of dedicated mode on the N7K-M132XP-12 I/O modules? (Source: Configuring Layer 2 Switching Features)
A) The first port in the port group can use up to 10 Gb/s. The other three ports in the port group are down and cannot be enabled.
B) One of the four ports in the port group can be configured to use up to 10 Gb/s. The other three ports in the port group are down and cannot be enabled.
C) One of the ports in the port group can use up to 10 Gb/s, but if you enable any of the other ports in the port group, they share the bandwidth.
D) One of the ports in the port group can use up to 10 Gb/s. If you enable any of the other ports in the port group, all ports are error-disabled.
A
Q13) Which of the following statements best describes the use of dedicated mode on the N7K-M132XP-12 I/O modules? (Source: Configuring Layer 2 Switching Features)
A) The first port in the port group can use up to 10 Gb/s. The other three ports in the port group are down and cannot be enabled.
22
Q
Q14) When you change a command in a port profile, it is automatically applied to all ports that inherit that particular port profile. (Source: Configuring Layer 2 Switching Features)
A) true
B) false
A
Q14) When you change a command in a port profile, it is automatically applied to all ports that inherit that particular port profile. (Source: Configuring Layer 2 Switching Features)
A) true
To apply commands in a port profile, the port profile must be enabled via the “state enabled” command.
- slide 173
23
Q
Q15) What do you need to configure when deploying Cisco Adapter FEX? (Choose three.) (Source: Configuring Layer 2 Switching Features)
A) vEthernet interfaces B) Cisco FEX interfaces C) Virtual Interface Configuration (VIC) protocol D) Port profiles E) Interface mode—shared or dedicated F) Auto-creation feature G) Channel numbers
A
Q15) What do you need to configure when deploying Cisco Adapter FEX? (Choose three.) (Source: Configuring Layer 2 Switching Features)
B) Cisco FEX interfaces
D) Port profiles
G) Channel numbers (on the vNICs: port-profile name, channel number, and Active/standby status).
- slide 184
24
Q
Q16) Which of the following are valid private VLAN types that can be configured for a VLAN? (Choose three.) (Source: Configuring Layer 2 Switching Features)
A) Primary B) Secondary C) Tertiary D) Closed E) Community F) Secure G) Isolated
A
Q16) Which of the following are valid private VLAN types that can be configured for a VLAN? (Choose three.) (Source: Configuring Layer 2 Switching Features)
A) Primary
E) Community
G) Isolated
25
Q17) Which of the following types of ports can a port in a private VLAN of type community communicate with? (Choose two.) (Source: Configuring Layer 2 Switching Features)
A) Isolated ports
B) Community ports for all secondary VLANs
C) Community ports in the same secondary VLAN
D) Promiscuous ports
Q17) Which of the following types of ports can a port in a private VLAN of type community communicate with? (Choose two.) (Source: Configuring Layer 2 Switching Features)
C) Community ports in the same secondary VLAN
D) Promiscuous ports
26
Q18) What is the default type of Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) used by Cisco Nexus switches? (Source: Configuring Layer 2 Switching Features)
```
A) PVRST+
B) PVST+
C) 802.1D-1998
D) MST
E) 802.1D-2004
```
Q18) What is the default type of Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) used by Cisco Nexus switches? (Source: Configuring Layer 2 Switching Features)
A) PVRST+
Cisco Nexus switches run the Rapid Per VLAN Spanning Tree Plus (Rapid PVST+) protocol by default for all VLANs.
- slide 197
27
Q19) Which types of ports send bridge protocol data units (BPDUs) when the bridge assurance feature is enabled on the port? (Source: Configuring Layer 2 Switching Features)
A) Designated ports only
B) Designated and root ports
C) Root ports and alternate ports
D) Any type of spanning-tree port
Q19) Which types of ports send bridge protocol data units (BPDUs) when the bridge assurance feature is enabled on the port? (Source: Configuring Layer 2 Switching Features)
D) Any type of spanning-tree port
BPDUs are sent on all ports that have Bridge Assurance enabled.
- slide 207
28
Q20) Which of the following header fields can be used in the port channel load-balancing hash algorithm? (Choose three.) (Source: Configuring PortChannels)
```
A) Destination IP address
B) Source MAC address
C) TCP flags
D) IP header length
E) ICMP type and code
F) TCP destination port
```
Q20) Which of the following header fields can be used in the port channel load-balancing hash algorithm? (Choose three.) (Source: Configuring PortChannels)
A) Destination IP address
B) Source MAC address
F) TCP destination port
- slide 214
29
Q21) Match the components of the vPC architecture to their descriptions. (Source: Configuring PortChannels)
A) vPC peer link
B) vPC peer keepalive link
C) Cisco Fabric Services
_____ 1. Carries control traffic between vPC peer devices
_____ 2. Used to reliably synchronize vPC control plane information
_____ 3. Carries heartbeat messages to detect a dual-active condition
Q21) Match the components of the vPC architecture to their descriptions. (Source: Configuring PortChannels)
1-A, vPC peer link: Carries control traffic between vPC peer devices
3-B, vPC peer keepalive link: Carries heartbeat messages to detect a dual-active condition
2-C, Cisco Fabric Services: Used to reliably synchronize vPC control plane information
- slide 227
30
Q22) A vPC domain cannot consist of more than two switches or VDCs. (Source: Configuring PortChannels)
A) true
B) false
Q22) A vPC domain cannot consist of more than two switches or VDCs. (Source: Configuring PortChannels)
A) true
31
Q23) Which of the following commands allows a vPC switch to forward traffic for the vPC peer router MAC address? (Source: Configuring PortChannels)
```
A) peer-switch
B) peer-gateway
C) peer-link
D) peer-mac
E) peer-router
```
Q23) Which of the following commands allows a vPC switch to forward traffic for the vPC peer router MAC address? (Source: Configuring PortChannels)
B) peer-gateway allows interoperability with NAS and load balancers
- slide 240
32
Q24) Which of the following Cisco FEX deployment options is supported on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switches? (Source: Configuring PortChannels)
A) Active-active FEX
B) Straight-through with static pinning
C) Straight-through with dynamic pinning
D) Active-standby FEX
Q24) Which of the following Cisco FEX deployment options is supported on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switches? (Source: Configuring PortChannels)
C) Straight-through with dynamic pinning
- Slide 177
33
Q25) Match the correct Cisco NX-OS command to the function that it has in the vPC troubleshooting process. (Source: Configuring PortChannels)
A) show port-channel summary
B) show vpc consistency parameters vpc
C) show vpc
D) show vpc peer-keepalive
_____ 1. This command can be used to verify that the vPC peer link is operational in addition to allow viewing of the global vPC parameters.
_____ 2. This command can be used to verify the state of the port channel interfaces, both on the vPC peer switches and on the connected downstream device.
_____ 3. This command displays the state of the peer-keepalive link, which must be operational before the vPC peer link can come up.
_____ 4. This command can be used to verify that the configuration on the vPC port channels is consistent on both vPC peer switches.
Q25) Match the correct Cisco NX-OS command to the function that it has in the vPC troubleshooting process. (Source: Configuring PortChannels)
1-C, show vpc: This command can be used to verify that the vPC peer link is operational in addition to allow viewing of the global vPC parameters.
2-A, show port-channel summary: This command can be used to verify the state of the port channel interfaces, both on the vPC peer switches and on the connected downstream device.
3-D, show vpc peer-keepalive: This command displays the state of the peer-keepalive link, which must be operational before the vPC peer link can come up.
4-B, show vpc consistency parameters vpc: This command can be used to verify that the configuration on the vPC port channels is consistent on both vPC peer switches.
34
Q26) The vPC peer-keepalive link must be operational before the vPC peer link can come up. (Source: Configuring PortChannels)
A) true
B) false
Q26) The vPC peer-keepalive link must be operational before the vPC peer link can come up. (Source: Configuring PortChannels)
A) true
- slide 234
35
Q27) In which topology can you deploy enhanced vPC? (Source: Configuring PortChannels)
A) Server dual-homed to two Cisco Nexus 5500 Platform switches
B) Dual-homed server connected by a port channel to a single Cisco FEX, with the Cisco FEX dual-homed to two switches
C) Dual-homed server connected to two Cisco FEXs, with both Cisco FEXs dual-homed to two Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switches
D) Dual-homed server connected to a pair of Cisco FEXs that connects to a single switch
Q27) In which topology can you deploy enhanced vPC? (Source: Configuring PortChannels)
B) Dual-homed server connected by a port channel to a single Cisco FEX, with the Cisco FEX dual-homed to two (N5K) switches
* Single-homed server connected to a single FEX (uplinked to 2 parent N5K)
* *Dual-homed server connected to two Cisco FEXs, with both Cisco FEXs dual-homed to two Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switches (not N7K)
* **Dual-homed server connected by active/standby NIC teaming to a pair of FEXs (which are dual-homed to parent N5K).
- slide 255
36
Q28) What is the default MAC address learning for Cisco FabricPath VLANs? (Source: Implementing Cisco FabricPath)
A) Source
B) Conversational
C) Destination
D) Source/Destination
Q28) What is the default MAC address learning for Cisco FabricPath VLANs? (Source: Implementing Cisco FabricPath)
B) Conversational
37
Q29) Which of the following protocols is used as the Cisco FabricPath control protocol? (Source: Implementing Cisco FabricPath)
```
A) OSPF
B) IS-IS
C) BGP
D) OTV
E) Cisco Fabric Services
```
Q29) Which of the following protocols is used as the Cisco FabricPath control protocol? (Source: Implementing Cisco FabricPath)
B) IS-IS
38
Q30) Which of the following is true about Cisco FabricPath forwarding in the Cisco FabricPath core? (Source: Implementing Cisco FabricPath)
A) MAC addresses are learned using conversational MAC learning.
B) MAC addresses are learned using the regular Ethernet flooding process.
C) No MAC address lookups or MAC address learning is required.
D) MAC address reachability is advertised using Cisco FabricPath IS-IS.
Q30) Which of the following is true about Cisco FabricPath forwarding in the Cisco FabricPath core? (Source: Implementing Cisco FabricPath)
C) No MAC address lookups or MAC address learning is required in the CORE. The FabricPath edge has conversational MAC learning.
39
Q31) The Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch F1 I/O modules and Cisco Nexus 5500 Platform switch hardware are capable of running both Cisco FabricPath and TRILL modes. (Source: Implementing Cisco FabricPath)
A) true
B) false
Q31) The Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch F1 I/O modules and Cisco Nexus 5500 Platform switch hardware are capable of running both Cisco FabricPath and TRILL modes. (Source: Implementing Cisco FabricPath)
A) true
40
Q32) Match the field in the Cisco FabricPath header with the correct explanation. (Source: Implementing Cisco FabricPath)
```
A) Switch ID
B) Subswitch ID
C) Port ID
D) FTag (Forwarding Tag)
E) TTL (Time to Live)
```
_____ 1. Identifies the destination or source interface
_____ 2. Decremented at each hop to prevent loops
_____ 3. Identifier of topology or multidestination distribution tree
_____ 4. Identifies devices/hosts connected via VPC+
_____ 5. Unique number identifying each Cisco FabricPath node
Q32) Match the field in the Cisco FabricPath header with the correct explanation. (Source: Implementing Cisco FabricPath)
1-C, Port ID: Identifies the destination or source interface
2-E, TTL (Time to Live): Decremented at each hop to prevent loops
3-D, FTag (Forwarding Tag): Identifier of topology or multidestination distribution tree
4-B, Subswitch ID: Identifies devices/hosts connected via VPC+
5-A, Switch ID: Unique number identifying each Cisco FabricPath node
41
Q33) Which of the following is true about Cisco FabricPath vPC+? (Source: Implementing Cisco FabricPath)
A) It creates a logical switch ID for each switch in the vPC domain.
B) It can be deployed in Classic Ethernet VLANs and Cisco FabricPath VLANs.
C) On Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switches, it works only on F Series modules.
D) It requires only one address lookup on the egress switch for traffic going out through vPC+.
Q33) Which of the following is true about Cisco FabricPath vPC+? (Source: Implementing Cisco FabricPath)
C) On Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switches, it works only on F Series modules.
42
Q34) All routing protocols require the Enterprise Services License to be installed on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch. (Source: Configuring Layer 3 Switching Features)
A) true
B) false
Q34) All routing protocols require the Enterprise Services License to be installed on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch. (Source: Configuring Layer 3 Switching Features)
B) false
43
Q35) Which of the following commands is used to configure a static route for a VRF? (Source: Configuring Layer 3 Switching Features)
A) switch (config)# ip route 10.0.0.0/8 172.16.1.1 vrf RED
B) switch (config-if)# ip route 10.0.0.0/8 172.16.1.1
C) switch (config-if)# ip route 10.0.0.0/8 172.16.1.1
vrf RED
D) switch (config-vrf)# ip route 10.0.0.0/8 172.16.1.1
Q35) Which of the following commands is used to configure a static route for a VRF? (Source: Configuring Layer 3 Switching Features)
D) switch (config-vrf)# ip route 10.0.0.0/8 172.16.1.1
44
Q36) Which command enables Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP) on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch? (Source: Configuring Layer 3 Switching Features)
A) switch(config)# enable hsrp
B) switch(config)# feature hsrp
C) switch(config)# hsrp enable
D) switch(config)# feature hsrp enable
Q36) Which command enables Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP) on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch? (Source: Configuring Layer 3 Switching Features)
B) switch(config)# feature hsrp
45
Q37) Which redundancy protocols provide the best protection against undesired peering with rogue gateways? (Choose two.) (Source: Configuring Layer 3 Switching Features)
```
A) FHRP
B) HSRPv1
C) HSRPv2
D) VRRP
E) GLBP
```
Q37) Which redundancy protocols provide the best protection against undesired peering with rogue gateways? (Choose two.) (Source: Configuring Layer 3 Switching Features)
C) HSRPv2
E) GLBP
46
Q38) Match the components of the unicast routing architecture components on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switches with their descriptions. (Source: Configuring Layer 3 Switching Features)
A) UFDM
B) RIB
C) FIB
D) TCAM
_____ 1. Specialized hardware that contains forwarding information used in packet header lookups
_____ 2. Exists on the active supervisor and distributes the forwarding path information to the I/O modules
_____ 3. Builds the information that is used for the hardware-forwarding engine
_____ 4. Contains routing information learned through routing protocols and other sources
Q38) Match the components of the unicast routing architecture components on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switches with their descriptions. (Source: Configuring Layer 3 Switching Features)
D-1, TCAM: Specialized hardware that contains forwarding information used in packet header lookups
2-A, UFDM: Exists on the active supervisor and distributes the forwarding path information to the I/O modules
3-C, FIB: Builds the information that is used for the hardware-forwarding engine
4-B, RIB: Contains routing information learned through routing protocols and other sources
47
Q39) Which of the following commands is used to filter routes when redistributing between routing protocols? (Source: Configuring Layer 3 Switching Features)
A) switch(config-router)# redistribute eigrp 200 route-map EIGRP-TO-OSPF
B) switch(config-router)# redistribute eigrp 200 prefix-list EIGRP-TO-OSPF
C) switch(config-router)# redistribute eigrp 200 access-list name EIGRP-TO-OSPF
D) switch(config-router)# distribute-list name EIGRP-TO-OSPF out eigrp 200
Q39) Which of the following commands is used to filter routes when redistributing between routing protocols? (Source: Configuring Layer 3 Switching Features)
A) switch(config-router)# redistribute eigrp 200 route-map EIGRP-TO-OSPF
48
Q40) What happens to a packet that matches one of the match statements in a policy-based routing (PBR) route map entry with a deny action? (Source: Configuring Layer 3 Switching Features)
A) The packet is dropped.
B) The next entry in the route map is processed.
C) The packet is forwarded using normal destination-based routing.
D) The packet is treated according to the configured policy
Q40) What happens to a packet that matches one of the match statements in a policy-based routing (PBR) route map entry with a deny action? (Source: Configuring Layer 3 Switching Features)
C) The packet is forwarded using normal destination-based routing.
49
Q41) Which of the following commands are used to start an OSPFv3 process and enable it on interface Ethernet 1/1? (Choose four.) (Source: Configuring Layer 3 Switching Features)
A) switch(config)# feature ospfv3
B) switch(config)# router ospfv3 1
C) switch(config)# ipv6 router ospfv3 1
D) switch(config-router)# address-family ipv6 unicast
E) switch(config)# interface ethernet 1/1
F) switch(config-if)# ipv6 router ospfv3 1 area 0
G) switch(config-router-af)# network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0
H) switch(config-router-af)# interface ethernet 0/0 area 0
Q41) Which of the following commands are used to start an OSPFv3 process and enable it on interface Ethernet 1/1? (Choose four.) (Source: Configuring Layer 3 Switching Features)
A) switch(config)# feature ospfv3
B) switch(config)# router ospfv3 1
E) switch(config)# interface ethernet 1/1
F) switch(config-if)# ipv6 router ospfv3 1 area 0
50
Q42) Which of the following Cisco NX-OS commands configures an operational IPv6 static default route? (Source: Configuring Layer 3 Switching Features)
A) switch(config)# ipv6 route ::/0 FE80::260:3EFF:FE47:1530
B) switch(config-if)# ipv6 route ::/0 FE80::1
C) switch(config)# ipv6 route ::/0 FE80::1 ethernet 2/1
D) switch(config)# ipv6 route ::/0 2001::ffff:ffff::6
Q42) Which of the following Cisco NX-OS commands configures an operational IPv6 static default route? (Source: Configuring Layer 3 Switching Features)
C) switch(config)# ipv6 route ::/0 FE80::1 ethernet 2/1
51
Q43) Which of the following protocols can be used for intradomain IP multicast routing on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch? (Choose three.) (Source: Configuring IP Multicast)
```
A) MSDP
B) MBGP
C) MOSFP
D) PIM sparse mode
E) PIM dense mode
F) PIM SSM
G) BIDIR-PIM
H) IGMPv2
I) IGMPv3
```
Q43) Which of the following protocols can be used for intradomain IP multicast routing on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch? (Choose three.) (Source: Configuring IP Multicast)
D) PIM sparse mode
F) PIM SSM
G) BIDIR-PIM
52
Q44) Which of the following commands are used to enable IGMPv3 on an interface? (Choose two.) (Source: Configuring IP Multicast)
```
A) switch(config-if)# ip pim sparse-mode
B) switch(config-if)# ip igmp
C) switch(config-if)# ip igmp version 3
D) switch(config-if)# ip igmp enable
E) switch(config-if)# ip igmp querier 10.1.1.1
```
Q44) Which of the following commands are used to enable IGMPv3 on an interface? (Choose two.) (Source: Configuring IP Multicast)
A) switch(config-if)# ip pim sparse-mode
C) switch(config-if)# ip IGMP version 3
53
Q45) Which of the following options can be used to distribute PIM RP information in a PIM sparse mode deployment? (Choose three.) (Source: Configuring IP Multicast)
```
A) Static RP configuration
B) MSDP
C) MBGP
D) Auto-RP
E) Cisco Fabric Services
F) BSR
G) MOSPF
```
Q45) Which of the following options can be used to distribute PIM RP information in a PIM sparse mode deployment? (Choose three.) (Source: Configuring IP Multicast)
A) Static RP configuration
D) Auto-RP
F) BSR
54
Q46) What destination MAC address has IP multicast packets? (Source: Configuring IP Multicast)
A) Destination MAC address FFFF.FFFF.FFFF
B) Destination MAC address of the appropriate receiver
C) Destination MAC address corresponding to multicast group
D) Destination MAC address requested by IGMP messages
Q46) What destination MAC address has IP multicast packets? (Source: Configuring IP Multicast)
D) Destination MAC address requested by IGMP messages
55
Q47) Which of the following commands can be used to view the multicast forwarding state for the multicast group 239.1.1.1? (Source: Configuring IP Multicast)
```
A) show ip igmp group 239.1.1.1
B) show ip pim topology 239.1.1.1
C) show ip mroute 239.1.1.1
D) show ip mcast 239.1.1.1
E) show forwarding ipv4 mcast 239.1.1.
```
Q47) Which of the following commands can be used to view the multicast forwarding state for the multicast group 239.1.1.1? (Source: Configuring IP Multicast)
C) show ip mroute 239.1.1.1
56
Q1) Which feature can be configured using a configuration session? (Source: Configuring Security Features)
A) access control lists
B) all security features
C) DHCP snooping
D) port security
Q1) Which feature can be configured using a configuration session? (Source: Configuring Security Features)
A) access control lists
57
Q2) Which security feature can restrict inbound traffic from a specific set of MAC addresses known as secure MAC addresses? (Source: Configuring Security Features)
A) DHCP snooping
B) Dynamic ARP Inspection
C) port security
D) IP Source Guard
Q2) Which security feature can restrict inbound traffic from a specific set of MAC addresses known as secure MAC addresses? (Source: Configuring Security Features)
C) Port security allows you to configure physical or port channel interfaces that allow inbound traffic from only a restricted set of MAC addresses. The MAC addresses in the trusted MAC address set are called secure MAC addresses. - slide 128
58
Q3) You are implementing DHCP snooping and the support of metropolitan Ethernet- access environments where DHCP centrally manages the IP addresses for many subscribers.
Which option should be supported on the DHCP server so that it permits the DHCP server to assign an IP address that is based on any parameters that are configured? (Source: Configuring Security Features)
A) 80
B) 81
C) 82
D) 83
Q3) You are implementing DHCP snooping and the support of metropolitan Ethernet- access environments where DHCP centrally manages the IP addresses for many subscribers.
Which option should be supported on the DHCP server so that it permits the DHCP server to assign an IP address that is based on any parameters that are configured? (Source: Configuring Security Features)
C) Option 82 supports metropolitan Ethernet-access environments where DHCP centrally manages the IP addresses for many subscribers. Option 82 permits identification of a subscriber device even though it is connected to the same port on the access device, thus providing unique identification for each subscriber. - slide 117
59
Q4) What are two disadvantages of traditional data center interconnect technologies? (Choose two.) (Source: Understanding Overlay Transport Virtualization)
A) overhead associated with additional headers
B) complex operations
C) low bandwidth
D) transport-dependent
Q4) What are two disadvantages of traditional data center interconnect technologies? (Choose two.) (Source: Understanding Overlay Transport Virtualization)
B) complex operations
D) transport-dependent
- slide 10
60
Q5) Match the technology to the characteristics. (Source: Understanding Overlay Transport Virtualization)
A) Cisco OTV
B) Traditional DCI technologies
_____ 1. MAC address learning based on flooding
_____ 2. control plane-based MAC learning dynamic
_____ 3. encapsulation
_____ 4. pseudowires and tunnels
_____ 5. complex dual-homing
_____ 6. native automated dual-homing
Q5) Match the technology to the characteristics. (Source: Understanding Overlay Transport Virtualization)
A) Cisco OTV
B) Traditional DCI technologies
B_____ 1. MAC address learning based on flooding
A_____ 2. control plane-based MAC learning dynamic
A_____ 3. encapsulation
B_____ 4. pseudowires and tunnels
B_____ 5. complex dual-homing
A_____ 6. native automated dual-homing
61
Q6) Which statement best describes a Cisco OTV overlay interface? (Source: Understanding Overlay Transport Virtualization)
A) An overlay interface is one of the uplinks of the Cisco OTV edge device.
B) An overlay interface is one of the interfaces on the edge device that faces the site and carries at least one of the VLANs that are extended through Cisco OTV .
C) An overlay interface is a new virtual interface that contains the entire Cisco OTV configuration.
D) An overlay interface is a special type of Layer 3 interface that sends and receives packets on a virtual IP-based ring.
Q6) Which statement best describes a Cisco OTV overlay interface? (Source: Understanding Overlay Transport Virtualization)
C) An overlay interface is a new virtual interface that contains the entire Cisco OTV configuration.
62
Q7) Cisco OTV edge devices can perform fragmentation to allow jumbo frames to be carried across an IP transport network with a smaller MTU. (Source: Understanding Overlay Transport Virtualization)
A) true
B) false
Q7) Cisco OTV edge devices can perform fragmentation to allow jumbo frames to be carried across an IP transport network with a smaller MTU. (Source: Understanding Overlay Transport Virtualization)
B) false
63
Q8) Which protocol is used as the Cisco OTV control protocol? (Source: Understanding Overlay Transport Virtualization)
```
A) OSPF
B) IS-IS
C) BGP
D) MSDP
E) CFS
```
Q8) Which protocol is used as the Cisco OTV control protocol? (Source: Understanding Overlay Transport Virtualization)
B) IS-IS
64
Q9) Which five commands need to be configured on the Cisco OTV overlay interface for Cisco OTV to be fully operational? (Choose five.) (Source: Understanding Overlay Transport Virtualization)
```
A) otv join-interface interface ethernet 1/1
B) otv site-vlan 200
C) otv extend-vlan 100-199
D) otv control-group 239.1.1.1
E) otv isis group 239.1.1.1
F) otv ssm-groups 232.1.1.0/24
G) otv data-group 232.1.1.0/24
H) ip igmp version 3
I) ip pim sparse-mode
J) no shutdown
```
Q9) Which five commands need to be configured on the Cisco OTV overlay interface for Cisco OTV to be fully operational? (Choose five.) (Source: Understanding Overlay Transport Virtualization)
```
A) otv join-interface interface ethernet 1/1
C) otv extend-vlan 100-199
D) otv control-group 239.1.1.1
G) otv data-group 232.1.1.0/24
J) no shutdown
- slide 26
```
65
Q10) Which entity is part of the Cisco TrustSec network? (Source: Configuring Security Features)
A) local switch
B) supplicant
C) authenticator
D) authorization server
Q10) Which entity is part of the Cisco TrustSec network? (Source: Configuring Security Features)
C) Authenticators: Devices already part of the Cisco TrustSec network
Supplicants: Devices attempting to join the Cisco TrustSec network
Authorization server: Device that provides authentication information, authorization information, or both
- slide 134
66
Q11) When you are implementing QoS, which type of traffic should be classified so that no frames are dropped due to its exchange-based behavior? (Source: Configuring Quality of Service)
A) SCSI I/O
B) file transfer
C) SMTP traffic
D) voice
Q11) When you are implementing QoS, which type of traffic should be classified so that no frames are dropped due to its exchange-based behavior? (Source: Configuring Quality of Service)
A) SCSI I/O read and writes suffer from the loss of a single data frame. In the case of a lost Fibre Channel frame, the whole SCSI read or write Fibre Channel exchange will be restarted.
- slide 72
67
Q12) When policing traffic on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch, how many colors or conditions can be applied? (Source: Configuring QoS)
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q12) When policing traffic on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch, how many colors or conditions can be applied? (Source: Configuring QoS)
C) 3 markings
After network traffic is sorted, marking can be used to color (tag) individual packets so that other network devices can apply QoS features uniformly to those packets as they travel through the network. - slide 79
3-color policing - slide 100
68
Q13) What is the default type of class-map when no specific type is specified? (Source: Configuring QoS)
A) type policing
B) type queuing
C) type scheduling
D) type QoS
Q13) What is the default type of class-map when no specific type is specified? (Source: Configuring QoS)
```
D) type QoS: Used for marking, mutations, ingress port trust state, and policing (This type is also the default policy map and class map type.)
- slide 76
```
69
Q14) Which statement is correct regarding mutation mapping? (Source: Configuring QoS)
A) On ingress, mutation mapping occurs after traffic classification and all other actions.
B) On egress, mutation mapping occurs after traffic classification and all other actions.
C) On ingress, mutation mapping occurs before traffic classification and after all other actions.
D) On egress, mutation mapping occurs after traffic classification and before the other actions.
Q14) Which statement is correct regarding mutation mapping? (Source: Configuring QoS)
D) On egress, mutation mapping occurs after traffic classification (marking and policing) and before the other actions (queuing and scheduling).
- slide 74
1. Classification
2. Marking
3. Policing
4. Mutation
5. Queuing and scheduling
70
Q15) Which type of policy map is used to mark, shape and queue packets? (Source: Configuring QoS)
A) type policing
B) type queuing
C) type scheduling
D) type QoS
Q15) Which type of policy map is used to mark, shape and queue packets? (Source: Configuring QoS)
B) type queuing
- slide 111
71
Q16) Which two forwarding bases are used in MPLS data plane? (Choose two.) (Source: Configuring MPLS)
A) routing table
B) FIB
C) LFIB
D) topology table
Q16) Which two forwarding bases are used in MPLS data plane? (Choose two.) (Source: Configuring MPLS)
B) FIB
C) LFIB
The data plane on an MPLS-enabled router consists of two forwarding structures: FIB and LFIB
- slide 39
72
Q17) LDP is used for label allocation and distribution in MPLS network. (Source: Configuring MPLS)
A) True
B) False
Q17) LDP is used for label allocation and distribution in MPLS network. (Source: Configuring MPLS)
A) True
LDP is responsible for advertisement and redistribution of MPLS labels between MPLS routers. LDP adds MPLS labels to the FIB and populates the LFIB. - slide 40
73
Q18) Which Cisco Nexus card has MPLS functionality support on it? (Source: Configuring MPLS)
A) All M I/O series of line card
B) F1 cards
C) F2 cards
D) FCoE-based cards
Q18) Which Cisco Nexus card has MPLS functionality support on it? (Source: Configuring MPLS)
A) All M I/O series of line card
• All MPLS functionality supported on all M-series I/O modules in all Nexus 7000 chassis
• F1 cards will NOT support MPLS natively
- slide 43
74
Q19) Which three commands must be used to install the MPLS feature set on Cisco Nexus switches? (Choose three.) (Source: M03L02 – Configuring MPLS)
```
A) install ldp
B) install feature-set mpls
C) feature-set mpls
D) use mpls feature-set
E) feature mpls ldp
F) install mpls-l3vpn
```
Q19) Which three commands must be used to install the MPLS feature set on Cisco Nexus switches? (Choose three.) (Source: M03L02 – Configuring MPLS)
```
B) install feature-set mpls
C) feature-set mpls
E) feature mpls ldp
*config-interface# mpls ip (enables LDP)
- slide 44
```
75
Q20) Which two benefits are benefits of using LISP? (Choose two.) (Source: Configuring LISP)
A) mobility
B) reduction of BGP table
C) optimization
D) scalability
Q20) Which two benefits are benefits of using LISP? (Choose two.) (Source: Configuring LISP)
A) Mobility: Location can change without needing to change IP address
B) Reduction of BGP table: Only need to store location information
• Efficient multihoming: Customers do not need to use core for
multihoming
• Ease of renumbering: No need for renumbering when client changes providers
- slide 60
76
Q21) What is the RLOC? (Source: Configuring LISP)
A) IPv4 or IPv6 addresses that are used in the source or destination address fields in the inner LISP header
B) IPv4 or IPv6 address of the customer router that de-encapsulates a LISP packet
C) a block of IP addresses that are assigned to a site by each service provider
D) router that accepts IP packets and performs encapsulation into the LISP header and performs an EID-to-RLOC mapping lookup
Q21) What is the RLOC? (Source: Configuring LISP)
B) IPv4 or IPv6 address of the customer router that de-encapsulates a LISP packet
Splitting the device identity, which is known as an endpoint identifier (EID), and its location, which is known as its routing locator (RLOC), into two different namespaces allows you to create separate databases for EID and RLOC functions.
- slide 59
77
Q1) What does the SCSI architecture define the relationship between? (Source: Describing Fibre Channel Protocol)
A) hosts and targets
B) hosts and disks
C) initiators and disks
D) initiators and targets
Q1) What does the SCSI architecture define the relationship between? (Source: Describing Fibre Channel Protocol)
D) initiators and targets
78
Q2) What is a Fibre Channel exchange? (Source: Describing Fibre Channel Protocol)
A) a number of words
B) a number of sequences
C) a TCP session
D) a number of frames
Q2) What is a Fibre Channel exchange? (Source: Describing Fibre Channel Protocol)
B) a number of sequences
79
Q3) Which process occurs between the N Port of an initiator and the N Port of a target to exchange information about upper layer protocol support? (Source: Describing Fibre Channel Protocol)
```
A) PLOGI
B) NPV
C) PRLI
D) FLOGI
E) Fibre Channel exchange
```
Q3) Which process occurs between the N Port of an initiator and the N Port of a target to exchange information about upper layer protocol support? (Source: Describing Fibre Channel Protocol)
C) PRLI
80
Q4) Which Fibre Channel address is used by FSPF to route Fibre Channel frames through a fabric? (Source: Describing Fibre Channel Protocol)
A) FCID
B) nWWN
C) pWWN
D) MAC
Q4) Which Fibre Channel address is used by FSPF to route Fibre Channel frames through a fabric? (Source: Describing Fibre Channel Protocol)
A) FCID
81
Q5) How many domains are available to the fabric? (Source: Understanding Fibre Channel Protocol)
A) 256
B) 255
C) 244
D) 239
Q5) How many domains are available to the fabric? (Source: Understanding Fibre Channel Protocol)
D) 239
82
Q6) IVR resembles IP routing protocols because it enables connectivity between all endpoints and applications in physically separate locations. (Source: Describing Fibre Channel Protocol)
A) true
B) false
Q6) IVR resembles IP routing protocols because it enables connectivity between all endpoints and applications in physically separate locations. (Source: Describing Fibre Channel Protocol)
B) false
83
Q7) Which two features are features of zones? (Choose two.) (Source: Describing Fibre Channel Protocol)
A) They are defined by physical port or pWWN.
B) Zoning configuration can change frequently.
C) An HBA can belong only to a single zone.
D) They provide routing and namespace separation.
E) They limit unicast traffic, but not multicast or broadcast.
Q7) Which two features are features of zones? (Choose two.) (Source: Describing Fibre Channel Protocol)
B) Zoning configuration can change frequently.
E) They limit unicast traffic, but not multicast or broadcast.
84
Q8) Which feature should be enabled to support multiple fabric logins from a host? (Source: Understanding Fibre Channel Protocol)
A) NPV
B) NP Port
C) NPIV
D) Zoning
Q8) Which feature should be enabled to support multiple fabric logins from a host? (Source: Understanding Fibre Channel Protocol)
C) NPIV
85
Q9) RSCNs provide a timely indication of which two of these events. (Choose two.) (Source: Understanding Fibre Channel Protocol)
```
A) servers joining or leaving the fabric
B) name server registration change
C) VSAN configuration change
D) new zone enforcement
E) change in interswitch connections
```
Q9) RSCNs provide a timely indication of which two of these events. (Choose two.) (Source: Understanding Fibre Channel Protocol)
B) name server registration change
D) new zone enforcement
86
Q10) Which two components support FCoE? (Choose two.) (Source: Understanding FCoE Protocol)
```
A) hosts with HBAs
B) all Cisco Nexus 5000 models
C) all Cisco Nexus 2000 Fabric Extenders
D) Cisco Nexus 7000 in all VDCs
E) hosts with CNAs
```
Q10) Which two components support FCoE? (Choose two.) (Source: Understanding FCoE Protocol)
B) all Cisco Nexus 5000 models
E) hosts with CNAs
87
Q11) Which component is responsible for the encapsulation and de-encapsulation that is necessary to transport FCoE? (Source: Understanding FCoE Protocol)
A) FCoE Logical Endpoint
B) FCoE node
C) Fibre Channel forwarder
D) FCoE forwarder
Q11) Which component is responsible for the encapsulation and de-encapsulation that is necessary to transport FCoE? (Source: Understanding FCoE Protocol)
A) FCoE Logical Endpoint
88
Q12) How does an FCoE node acquire the MAC address that it will use for FCoE traffic? (Source: Understanding FCoE Protocol)
A) server-provided MAC address
B) local MAC address
C) locally defined MAC address
D) fabric-provided MAC address
Q12) How does an FCoE node acquire the MAC address that it will use for FCoE traffic? (Source: Understanding FCoE Protocol)
D) fabric-provided MAC address
89
Q13) FIP establishes virtual Fibre Channel links between which two combinations of types of ports? (Choose two.) (Source: Understanding FCoE Protocol)
```
A) N Ports and F Ports
B) VN Ports and VF Ports
C) VE Ports and VF Ports
D) E Ports and E Ports
E) VE Ports and VE Ports
F) VN Ports and VE Ports
```
Q13) FIP establishes virtual Fibre Channel links between which two combinations of types of ports? (Choose two.) (Source: Understanding FCoE Protocol)
B) VN Ports and VF Ports
E) VE Ports and VE Ports
90
Q14) Which method does a blade switch that is installed between the FCoE host and the FCF switch use to forward FCoE frames in a remote-attached FCoE topology? (Source: Understanding FCoE Protocol)
A) By FIP snooping
B) FIP spoofing
C) MAC address lookup using the burned-in MAC address of the host
D) MAC address lookup, where the FPMA includes the FC-MAP that uniquely identifies the CNA
E) MAC address lookup, where the FPMA includes the FCID that uniquely identifies the CNA
Q14) Which method does a blade switch that is installed between the FCoE host and the FCF switch use to forward FCoE frames in a remote-attached FCoE topology? (Source: Understanding FCoE Protocol)
E) MAC address lookup, where the FPMA includes the FCID that uniquely identifies the CNA
91
Q15) Which benefit results from having different FIP and FCoE EtherType IDs? (Source: Understanding FCoE Protocol)
A) The FCF switch can process FIP frames while transparently forwarding FCoE frames based on the MAC address.
B) The FCF switch can process FCoE frames while transparently forwarding FIP frames based on the MAC address.
C) Blade switches in remote-attached topologies can process FIP frames while transparently forwarding FCoE frames based on the MAC address.
D) Blade switches in remote-attached topologies can process FCoE frames while transparently forwarding FIP frames based on the MAC address.
Q15) Which benefit results from having different FIP and FCoE EtherType IDs? (Source: Understanding FCoE Protocol)
C) Blade switches in remote-attached topologies can process FIP frames while transparently forwarding FCoE frames based on the MAC address.
92
Q16) Which specification of Data Center Bridging Ethernet enhancements do Cisco Nexus switches implement? (Source: Identifying DCB Enhancements)
A) Cisco proprietary
B) IEEE 802.1
C) www.T11.org
D) ANSI
Q16) Which specification of Data Center Bridging Ethernet enhancements do Cisco Nexus switches implement? (Source: Identifying DCB Enhancements)
B) IEEE 802.1
93
Q17) Priority groups are associated with which Data Center Bridging Ethernet enhancement feature? (Source: Identifying Data Center Bridging Enhancements)
A) Priority Flow Control
B) Enhanced Transmission Selection
C) End-to-End Congestion Management
D) Layer 2 Multipathing
Q17) Priority groups are associated with which Data Center Bridging Ethernet enhancement feature? (Source: Identifying Data Center Bridging Enhancements)
B) Enhanced Transmission Selection
94
Q18) Which Data Center Bridging Ethernet enhancement feature supports pause on a virtual channel? (Source: Identifying Data Center Bridging Enhancements)
A) Enhanced Transmission Selection
B) Link Level Flow Control
C) Layer 2 Multipathing
D) Priority Flow Control
Q18) Which Data Center Bridging Ethernet enhancement feature supports pause on a virtual channel? (Source: Identifying Data Center Bridging Enhancements)
D) Priority Flow Control
95
Q19) Which protocol performs discovery of Data Center Bridging capabilities in a peer? (Source: Identifying Data Center Bridging Enhancements)
A) Data Center Bridging Exchange Protocol
B) Data Center Bridging Exchange Control Protocol
C) Cisco Discovery Protocol
D) Link-Layer Discovery Protocol
Q19) Which protocol performs discovery of Data Center Bridging capabilities in a peer? (Source: Identifying Data Center Bridging Enhancements)
A) Data Center Bridging Exchange Protocol
96
Q20) Which of the following defines the encapsulation of FLOGI, FDISC, LOGO, and ELP frames? (Source: Configuring FCoE)
A) FIP discovery
B) FCoE virtual link maintenance
C) FCoE virtual link instantiation
D) FCoE discovery
Q20) Which of the following defines the encapsulation of FLOGI, FDISC, LOGO, and ELP frames? (Source: Configuring FCoE)
C) FCoE virtual link instantiation
97
Q21) Which mode should be enabled on the Ethernet interface to support the transport of both Ethernet and FCoE frames? (Source: Configuring FCoE)
A) switchport mode trunk
B) switchport mode access
C) switchport mode fcoe
D) fcoe mode on
Q21) Which mode should be enabled on the Ethernet interface to support the transport of both Ethernet and FCoE frames? (Source: Configuring FCoE)
A) switchport mode trunk
98
Q22) Which message would be sent to an individual virtual link to reset the virtual interface? (Source: Configuring FCoE)
A) FCoE Clear Virtual Link
B) FCoE Virtual Link Clear
C) FIP Virtual Link Clear
D) FIP Clear Virtual Link
Q22) Which message would be sent to an individual virtual link to reset the virtual interface? (Source: Configuring FCoE)
D) FIP Clear Virtual Link
99
Q23) Which license is required on a Cisco Nexus 5000 or 5500 Platform switch to support FCoE? (Source: Configuring FCoE)
A) Enterprise license
B) Storage Protocol Services license
C) Advanced Services license
D) Storage Protocol Advanced Services license
Q23) Which license is required on a Cisco Nexus 5000 or 5500 Platform switch to support FCoE? (Source: Configuring FCoE)
B) Storage Protocol Services license
100
Q24) Which command would be used to associate an interface with a VSAN? (Source: Configuring FCoE)
A) switch(config)# interface ethernet 1/3 switch(config-if)# vsan 2
B) switch(config)# vsan database switch(config-vsan-db)# vsan 2 interface ethernet 1/3
C) switch(config)# vsan database switch(config-vsan-db)# vsan 2 interface vfc 1/3
D) switch(config)# vsan database switch(config-vsan-db)# vsan 2 interface vfc 10
Q24) Which command would be used to associate an interface with a VSAN? (Source: Configuring FCoE)
D) switch(config)# vsan database switch(config-vsan-db)# vsan 2 interface vfc 10
101
Q25) How does a Cisco Nexus switch process bit errors on Fibre Channel interfaces? (Source: Configuring SAN Switching Features)
A) It disables the interface when a bit error occurs.
B) It does not disable the interface until a threshold is reached.
C) You can configure an error threshold that affects the bit error processing.
D) By default, it increases error counters and keeps the interface up.
Q25) How does a Cisco Nexus switch process bit errors on Fibre Channel interfaces? (Source: Configuring SAN Switching Features)
B) It does not disable the interface until a threshold is reached.
102
Q26) Which service ensures that domain IDs are unique throughout a single fabric (or VSAN)? (Source: Configuring SAN Switching Features)
A) Route Bridge
B) FSPF
C) Principle Switch
D) STP
Q26) Which service ensures that domain IDs are unique throughout a single fabric (or VSAN)? (Source: Configuring SAN Switching Features)
C) Principle Switch
103
Q27) What is the default switch priority for fcdomains? (Source: Configuring SAN Switching Features)
A) 64
B) 128
C) 192
D) 254
Q27) What is the default switch priority for fcdomains? (Source: Configuring SAN Switching Features)
B) 128
104
Q28) What is the default load-balancing method for traffic within a VSAN? (Source: Configuring SAN Switching Features)
A) S_ID/D_ID
B) S_ID/D_ID/OX_ID
C) S_MAC/D_MAC
D) S_MAC/D_MAC/Port_ID
Q28) What is the default load-balancing method for traffic within a VSAN? (Source: Configuring SAN Switching Features)
B) S_ID/D_ID/OX_ID
105
Q29) What tagging method is used for VSAN trunks? (Source: Configuring SAN Switching Features)
A) 802.1Q
B) Inter-Switch Link (ISL)
C) Extended ISL (EISL)
D) 802.1Q or ISL
Q29) What tagging method is used for VSAN trunks? (Source: Configuring SAN Switching Features)
C) Extended ISL (EISL)
106
Q30) Which three attributes change as a Fibre Channel frame is forwarded in an IVR scenario? (Choose three.) (Source: Configuring SAN Switching Features)
```
A) source FCID
B) destination FCID
C) transit VSAN ID
D) current VSAN ID
E) source FCID when IVR NAT is enabled
F) destination FCID when IVR NAT is enabled
```
Q30) Which three attributes change as a Fibre Channel frame is forwarded in an IVR scenario? (Choose three.) (Source: Configuring SAN Switching Features)
D) current VSAN ID
E) source FCID when IVR NAT is enabled
F) destination FCID when IVR NAT is enabled
107
Q31) How many physical links can be configured in a single SAN port channel? (Source: Configuring SAN Switching Features)
A) 4
B) 8
C) 12
D) 16
Q31) How many physical links can be configured in a single SAN port channel? (Source: Configuring SAN Switching Features)
D) 16
108
Q32) Which of the following commands displays information about devices that are logged into a switch? (Source: Configuring SAN Switching Features)
A) show flogi database
B) show fcns database
C) show mac-table
D) show fspf database
Q32) Which of the following commands displays information about devices that are logged into a switch? (Source: Configuring SAN Switching Features)
A) show flogi database
109
Q33) Which method is a valid Cisco Fabric Services distribution method? (Source: Configuring SAN Switching Features)
A) In-band with fallback to out-of-band
B) IPv4 and IPv6 at the same time
C) IPv4 with fallback to Fiber Channel
D) IPv6 with fallback to Fiber Channel
Q33) Which method is a valid Cisco Fabric Services distribution method? (Source: Configuring SAN Switching Features)
A) In-band with fallback to out-of-band
110
Q34) Which two port types support trunking on an NPV-enabled switch? (Choose two.) (Source: Configuring NPV Mode)
```
A) TNP
B) TF
C) NP
D) TE
E) F
```
Q34) Which two port types support trunking on an NPV-enabled switch? (Choose two.) (Source: Configuring NPV Mode)
A) TNP
B) TF
111
Q35) Which mode relays the FLOGI and FDISC requests to an upstream Fibre Channel
switch? (Source: Configuring NPV Mode)
A) NPV
B) NPIV
C) Switch
D) NPV and NPIV
Q35) Which mode relays the FLOGI and FDISC requests to an upstream Fibre Channel
switch? (Source: Configuring NPV Mode)
A) NPV
112
Q36) What must be enabled on the NPV core switch if a Cisco Nexus 5000 Switch is in NPV mode and acts as an NPV edge switch? (Source: Configuring NPV Mode)
A) NPV
B) NPIV
C) NPV and NPIV
D) trunking
Q36) What must be enabled on the NPV core switch if a Cisco Nexus 5000 Switch is in NPV mode and acts as an NPV edge switch? (Source: Configuring NPV Mode)
B) NPIV
113
Q37) Which port type connects a Cisco Nexus 5000 switch in NPV mode to an upstream Fibre Channel switch? (Source: Configuring NPV Mode)
A) N Port
B) F Port
C) E Port
D) NP Port
Q37) Which port type connects a Cisco Nexus 5000 switch in NPV mode to an upstream Fibre Channel switch? (Source: Configuring NPV Mode)
D) NP Port
114
Q38) How does an FCoE NPV edge switch appear to the upstream switch? (Source: Configuring NPV Mode)
A) as an HBA with multiple FC-IDs
B) as an end node with multiple MAC addresses
C) as an end node with multiple FCIDs but one MAC address
D) as a CNA with multiple end nodes, each with a unique end node MAC address
E) as a CNA with multiple end nodes but one MAC address
Q38) How does an FCoE NPV edge switch appear to the upstream switch? (Source: Configuring NPV Mode)
D) as a CNA with multiple end nodes, each with a unique end node MAC address
115
Q39) Which setting is required when FCoE NPV is implemented? (Source: Configuring NPV Mode)
A) VSAN-to-VLAN mapping
B) FCoE VLAN definition in the storage VDC
C) traffic maps
D) LACP feature
Q39) Which setting is required when FCoE NPV is implemented? (Source: Configuring NPV Mode)
A) VSAN-to-VLAN mapping
116
Q40) Which component of the Cisco Prime DCNM for SAN, at configurable intervals, monitors the ports of the Cisco MDS 9000 Series switches in real time? (Source: Using SAN Management Tools)
A) DCNM-SAN Server
B) Device Manager
C) Performance Manager
D) Performance monitoring
Q40) Which component of the Cisco Prime DCNM for SAN, at configurable intervals, monitors the ports of the Cisco MDS 9000 Series switches in real time? (Source: Using SAN Management Tools)
D) Performance monitoring
117
Q41) Which capability is included only in the Advanced Edition of Cisco Prime DCNM for SAN? (Source: Using SAN Management Tools)
A) fabric topology views
B) automated fabric discovery
C) summary and host dashboards
D) VM-aware monitoring
Q41) Which capability is included only in the Advanced Edition of Cisco Prime DCNM for SAN? (Source: Using SAN Management Tools)
D) VM-aware monitoring
118
Q42) Which tool would be used by operators to monitor and obtain reports for Cisco SAN switch events, performance, and inventory? (Source: Using SAN Management Tools)
A) Cisco Device Manager
B) Cisco Performance Manager
C) DCNM-SAN Server
D) Cisco Fabric Manager
Q42) Which tool would be used by operators to monitor and obtain reports for Cisco SAN switch events, performance, and inventory? (Source: Using SAN Management Tools)
C) DCNM-SAN Server
119
Q43) Which SAN management tool is used to configure and manage a single switch in the SAN fabric? (Source: Using SAN Management Tools)
A) DCNM-SAN Server
B) Cisco Device Manager
C) Cisco Performance Manager
D) Network monitoring
Q43) Which SAN management tool is used to configure and manage a single switch in the SAN fabric? (Source: Using SAN Management Tools)
B) Cisco Device Manager
120
Q1) Which three are the important CMP features? (Source: Describing the Connectivity Management Processor)
A) dedicated operating environment
B) shared operating environment
C) login authentication
D) control capability
Q1) Which three are the important CMP features? (Source: Describing the Connectivity Management Processor)
A) dedicated operating environment
B) shared operating environment
D) control capability
121
Q2) Which two protocols can you use for CMP access? (Source: Describing the Connectivity Management Processor)
A) Telnet
B) Rlogin
C) HTTP
D) SSH
Q2) Which two protocols can you use for CMP access? (Source: Describing the Connectivity Management Processor)
A) Telnet
D) SSH
122
Q3) Which three types of servers can you use for user authentication? (Choose three). (Source: Configuring User Management)
A) RADIUS
B) Web
C) LDAP
D) TACACS+
Q3) Which three types of servers can you use for user authentication? (Choose three). (Source: Configuring User Management)
A) RADIUS
C) LDAP
D) TACACS+
123
Q4) What command is used to establish SSH server on Cisco Nexus switches? (Source: Configuring User Management)
___________
Q4) What command is used to establish SSH server on Cisco Nexus switches? (Source: Configuring User Management)
ssh key rsa 2014 force
feature ssh
124
Q5) How many users can be configured on Cisco Nexus switches? (Source: Configuring User Management)
A) 16
B) 32
C) 256
D) 128
Q5) How many users can be configured on Cisco Nexus switches? (Source: Configuring User Management)
C) 256
125
Q6) Name three user account attributes. (Source: Configuring User Management)
_____
Q6) Name three user account attributes. (Source: Configuring User Management)
username, password, expiry date, user roles
126
Q7) Which four configuration methods are available for configuring Nexus switches? (Source: Describing System Management)
```
A) CLI
B) ASDM
C) XML
D) DCNM
E) RLOGIN
F) User Defined GUI
```
Q7) Which four configuration methods are available for configuring Nexus switches? (Source: Describing System Management)
A) CLI
C) XML
D) DCNM
F) User Defined GUI
127
Q8) Name three system management features found on Nexus switches. (Source: Describing System Management)
_____
Q8) Name three system management features found on Nexus switches. (Source: Describing System Management)
Scheduler, SNMP, NTP and PTP (precision time protocol), ERSPAN, SPAN, XML...
128
Q9) Which three clock types are common PTP devices? (Source: Describing System Management)
A) boundary
B) limited
C) ordinary
D) transparent
Q9) Which three clock types are common PTP devices? (Source: Describing System Management)
A) boundary
C) ordinary
D) transparent
129
Q10) Cisco SPAN supports Layer 3 subinterfaces. (Source: Describing System Management)
A) true
B) false
Q10) Cisco SPAN supports Layer 3 subinterfaces. (Source: Describing System Management)
B) false
130
Q11) What is ERSPAN? (Source: Describing System Management)
A) port mirroring traffic forwarded using IP network
B) production traffic forwarded over MPLS network
C) control traffic forwarded over ATM network
D) routing protocol running over IPX network
Q11) What is ERSPAN? (Source: Describing System Management)
A) port mirroring traffic forwarded using IP network
131
Q12) Cisco Smart Call Home provides an email-based notification for critical system policies. (Source: Describing System Management)
A) true
B) false
Q12) Cisco Smart Call Home provides an email-based notification for critical system policies. (Source: Describing System Management)
A) true
132
Q13) Which command validates the Cisco Smart Call Home destination profile? (Source: Understanding System Management)
A) show smart-call
B) show call home transport-email
C) show e-mail
D) show smartnet
Q13) Which command validates the Cisco Smart Call Home destination profile? (Source: Understanding System Management)
B) show call home transport-email
133
Q14) Which two Embedded Event Management (EEM) actions are supported on Nexus switches? (Source: Describing System Management)
A) device reload
B) generate a syslog message
C) running routing protocol
D) enabling interface
Q14) Which two Embedded Event Management (EEM) actions are supported on Nexus switches? (Source: Describing System Management)
A) device reload
B) generate a syslog message
why can't it enable an interface?
134
Q15) Which three SNMP versions are supported on Cisco NX-OS? (Source: Describing System Management)
A) SNMPv1
B) SNMPv1c
C) SNMPv2c
D) SNMPv3
Q15) Which three SNMP versions are supported on Cisco NX-OS? (Source: Describing System Management)
A) SNMPv1
C) SNMPv2c
D) SNMPv3
135
Q16) Which task is required when configuring the vCenter solution? (Source: Understanding System Management)
A) configure interface mode
B) configure a distributed virtual switch (DVS)
C) enable high performance mode
D) configure the CNA for single-OS deployment
Q16) Which task is required when configuring the vCenter solution? (Source: Understanding System Management)
B) configure a distributed virtual switch (DVS)
1. Configure datacenter attributes
2. Configure a distributed virtual switch (DVS).
3. Add ESX hosts to the DVS.
4. Migrate ESX hosts to pass-through switching.
5. Set up virtual machines (VMs) on the server.
>>> Port Profiles
Slide 5-95
136
Q17) What should you do when upgrading the Cisco NX-OS software release on a Nexus switch? (Source: Describing System Management)
A) Upgrade the EPLDs.
B) Perform the EPLDs upgrade in a non-disruptive fashion.
C) Check to see if the EPLD image upgrades are available.
D) Verify if you can upgrade Cisco NX-OS software without an EPLD upgrade.
Q17) What should you do when upgrading the Cisco NX-OS software release on a Nexus switch? (Source: Describing System Management)
D) Verify if you can upgrade Cisco NX-OS software without an EPLD upgrade.
show version module 7 epld
show install all impact epld bootflash:FILENAME
install all epld FILENAME > upgrades 1-by-1
Slide 5-102
