CDC 3D153 v1 URE Flashcards by David Burrus

What reason for modulation involves modulating low frequency signals for transmission over long distances?

a. Spectrum conservation.
b. Channel allocation.
c. Ease of radiation.
d. Companding.

c. Ease of radiation.

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What are the three general categories used to produce modulation in radio frequency (RF) transmission today?

a. Binary amplitude shift keying, frequency shift keying, and phase shift keying.
b. Pulse amplitude, pulse width, and pulse position.
c. Amplitude, frequency, and phase.
d. Analog, digital and shift keying.

c. Amplitude, frequency, and phase.

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When the modulating signal and carrier signal are combined within a modulator, the output signal contains a/an

a. modulating signal, upper sideband, lower sideband.
b. carrier, upper sideband, and lower sideband.
c. upper sideband and modulating signal.
d. carrier and modulating signal.

b. carrier, upper sideband, and lower sideband.

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If a carrier frequency of 1 MHz and a modulating tone of 10 kHz goes to the modulator, the output signal include

a. 1.01 MHz, 1 MHz, and 0.99 MHz.
b. 1.1 MHz, 1 MHz, and 0.9 MHz.
c. 1.11 MHz, 1 MHz, 0.99 MHz.
d. 1.111 MHz, 1 MHz, 0.999 MHz.

a. 1.01 MHz, 1 MHz, and 0.99 MHz.

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If the modulating audio signal is 10 kHz wide, what is the bandwidth of the transmitted
amplitude modulated signal?
a. 5 kHz.
b. 10 kHz.
c. 15 kHz.
d. 20 kHz.

d. 20 kHz.

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The bandwidth of an amplitude modulated signal is

a. two times the modulating signal.
b. the same as the modulating signal.
c. determined by the modulation index.
d. defined in terms of maximum amount of modulation.

a. two times the modulating signal.

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The amount of effect or change that the intelligence has on the carrier in an amplitude modulated signal is expressed as the

a. percent of modulation.
b. modulation index.
c. bandwidth.
d. deviation.

a. percent of modulation.

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Which statement concerning bandwidth is true?

a. Overmodulating increases bandwidth due to the production of harmonics.
b. Undermodulating increases bandwidth due to the production of harmonics.
c. Overmodulating increases bandwidth due to the output’s increased amplitude.
d. Undermodulating increases bandwidth due to the output’s decreased amplitude.

a. Overmodulating increases bandwidth due to the production of harmonics.

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Reducing modulation to less than 100 percent gives

a. more total power.
b. a reduction in carrier power.
c. no reduction in carrier power.
d. a reduction in carrier and sideband power.

c. no reduction in carrier power.

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In frequency modulation (FM), the amount of oscillator frequency change is

a. inversely proportional to the amplitude of the modulating signal.
b. directly proportional to the amplitude of the modulating signal.
c. inversely proportional to the phase of the modulating signal.
d. directly proportional to the phase of the modulating signal.

b. directly proportional to the amplitude of the modulating signal.

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In frequency modulation (FM), what is considered a significant sideband?

a. Sidebands containing at least 1 percent of the total transmitted power.
b. Sidebands containing at least 3 percent of the total transmitted power.
c. Sidebands containing at least 10 percent of the total transmitted power.
d. Sidebands containing at least 0.1 percent of the total transmitted power.

a. Sidebands containing at least 1 percent of the total transmitted power.

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What is the formula to find the modulating index?

a. Deviation divided by frequency of modulation.
b. Deviation times frequency of modulation.
c. Sideband divide by carrier frequency.
d. Sideband times carrier frequency.

a. Deviation divided by frequency of modulation.

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In phase modulation (PM), the carrier’s

a. phase is shifted at the rate of the modulating signal.
b. phase shifted with the phase of the modulating signal.
c. amplitude is shifted at the rate of the modulating signal.
d. amplitude is shifted with the phase of the modulating signal.

a. phase is shifted at the rate of the modulating signal.

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What is the advantage of adding more phase shifts?

a. Easier detection.
b. Smaller bit error rate.
c. Better signal-to-noise ratio.
d. Higher data rates within a given bandwidth.

d. Higher data rates within a given bandwidth.

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What is the first step in the pulse code modulation (PCM) process?

a. Discrete amplitudes are assigned to the sampling pulses.
b. A binary code number is assigned to the sample.
c. The quantizer limits the amplitude of the pulses.
d. The analog signal is band-limited.

d. The analog signal is band-limited.

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What part of the pulse code modulation (PCM) process converts a continuous time signal
into a discrete time signal?
a. Sampling.
b. Rectifying.
c. Oscillating.
d. Band limiting.

a. Sampling.

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A type of pulse modulation (PM) that changes the amplitude of the pulse train to vary according to the amplitude of the input signal is called

a. pulse width modulation (PWM).
b. pulse position modulation.
c. pulse duration modulation.
d. pulse amplitude modulation.

d. pulse amplitude modulation.

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If an error should occur, what data transmission is lost in a synchronous transmission?

a. One character.
b. Block of data.
c. A parity bit.
d. Synchronization (SYNC) bit.

b. Block of data.

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When using vertical redundancy check (VRC), what significance does the amount of ones have in a data bit pattern?

a. Determines parity.
b. Determines transmission rate.
c. Determines whether transmission is in American Standard code for Information Interchange (ASCII) format.
d. Determines whether transmission is synchronous or asynchronous.

a. Determines parity.

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What two error detection methods, when used together, are 98 percent effective in detecting
errors?
a. Checksum and cyclic redundancy check.
b. Longitudinal redundancy check and checksum.
c. Cyclic redundancy check and vertical redundancy check.
d. Vertical redundancy check and longitudinal redundancy check.

d. Vertical redundancy check and longitudinal redundancy check.

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What error detection method adds stacked characters, divides it by 255, and disregards the answer except for the remainder?

a. Checksum.
b. Block check character.
c. Cyclic redundancy check.
d. Vertical redundancy check.

A. Checksum.

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What error-correction technique sends a retransmittal request by the receiver to the sender if it finds an error in a received frame?

a. Error-correcting code.
b. Forward error control.
c. Redundant data transfer.
d. Automatic retransmit on request.

d. Automatic retransmit on request.

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When using forward error control as a method of error correction, where does error correction take place?

a. Receiving end.
b. In the oscillator.
c. Transmitting end.
d. In the primary buffers.

a. Receiving end.

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What does an optical source do?

a. Terminates fiber optics cable.
b. Converts electrical energy into optical energy.
c. Extend the distance and to preserve signal integrity.
d. Accepts optical signals and converts them into electrical signals.

b. Converts electrical energy into optical energy.

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Light sources that are applicable to fiber optic waveguide are light-emitting diodes (LED) and a. photo transistors. b. hybrid photodiodes. c. semiconductor laser diodes. d. integrated photodiode/preamplifiers.

c. semiconductor laser diodes.

What type of light is emitted from a laser? a. Incoherent. b. Coherent. c. Ordinary. d. Invisible.

b. Coherent.

Laser diode power coupling is measured in which range a. megawatt. b. microwatt. c. milliwatt. d. kilowatt.

c. milliwatt.

A device that accepts optical signals from an optical fiber and coverts them into electrical signals is called an optical a. regenerator. b. transmitter. c. amplifier. d. receiver.

d. receiver.

Small current that flows from a photodiode even with no light is called a. dark current. b. dispersion. c. distortion. d. ionization.

a. dark current.

The responsivity of a photo detector is dependent on the a. emitter rise time. b. wavelength of light. c. signal-to-noise ratio (SNR). d. emitter modulation speed.

b. wavelength of light.

What are the two main types of photodetectors? a. Positive intrinsic negative and avalanche photodiode. b. Light-emitting diode (LED) and avalanche photodiode. c. LED and semiconductor laser. d. Tunnel and zener diodes.

a. Positive intrinsic negative and avalanche photodiode.

What photo detector converts one photon to one electron? a. Light emitting diode (LED). b. Avalanche photodiode. c. Positive intrinsic negative (PIN) diode. d. Integrated photodiode/preamplifier (IDP).

c. Positive intrinsic negative (PIN) diode.

What is used to extend the distance of a fiber optic communication systems link? a. Receiver. b. Transmitter. c. Repeater. d. Patch cords.

c. Repeater.

Which repeater amplifies optical signal without converting to and from the electrical domain? a. Repeaters. b. Regenerators. c. Optical amplifiers. d. Receiver.

c. Optical amplifiers.

Short sections of single fiber cables that has a connector at each end is called a a. pigtail. b. patch cord. c. jumper. d. breakout cables.

b. patch cord.

Which fiber-optic connector uses quick-release, keyed bayonet couplings that are preferred in situations where severe vibrations are not expected? a. Biconic. b. Field connector (FC) c. Straight tip (ST). d. Sub-miniature, type A (SMA).

c. Straight tip (ST).

``` Which fiber optic connector uses a push-pull engagement for mating? a. Biconic. b. Field (FC). c. Subscriber (SC). d. Sub-miniature, type A (SMA). Please ```

c. Subscriber (SC).

What initial nuclear radiation elements generate electromagnetic pulses? a. Gamma rays and neutrons. b. Thermally generated x-rays. c. Transient radiation effects on electronics. d. Neutrons and thermally generated X-rays.

a. Gamma rays and neutrons.

High-altitude electromagnetic pulse is what type of frequency phenomenon, and involves which frequency range? a. Secondary; 1 hertz to 1 gigahertz. b. Wideband; 1 hertz to 1 gigahertz. c. Secondary; 10 hertz to 10 gigahertz. d. Wideband; 10 hertz to 10 gigahertz.

b. Wideband; 1 hertz to 1 gigahertz.

A system-generated electromagnetic pulse is a problem for satellites and reentry vehicles that are a. susceptible to the wideband frequency phenomenon. b. directly exposed to nuclear radiations from a high-altitude burst. c. affected by the azimuthal magnetic fields and time-varying air conductivity. d. influenced by the signal fading or waveform distortion caused by the structured plasma field.

b. directly exposed to nuclear radiations from a high-altitude burst.

Which distinct region of the source region electromagnetic pulse is produced by the interactions between the weapon products and the earth’s atmosphere? a. Secondary. b. Radiated. c. Plasma. d. Source.

b. Radiated.

What electromagnetic pulse region is the principal threat to electronic systems by cable? a. Local. b. Source. c. Radiated. d. Long-line.

a. Local.

How does scintillation effects communications? a. Large attenuation of the transmitted signal causing the received signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) to fall below unity. b. Transmitted signal fading caused by multiple path propagation through the structured plasma field. c. Layers of charged electrons that are trapped and prevent transmissions through the layer. d. Absorption of the transmitted signal through the contaminated area.

a. Large attenuation of the transmitted signal causing the received signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) to fall below unity.

Atmospheric disturbances from initial nuclear radiation on higher frequencies affect communications by which types of effects? a. Blackout. b. Absorption. c. Scintillation. d. Attenuation.

c. Scintillation.

Which one of the following statements are true concerning shielding? a. Cables should be of unshielded construction. b. Only ventilation ports are shielded along the walls. c. Sensitive equipment will be located within the shielded barrier. d. All power lines supplying shielded areas does not require filters.

c. Sensitive equipment will be located within the shielded barrier.

What is the purpose of bonding? a. To isolate facility from any external electrical electromagnetic propagation. b. To reduce interference coupling around circuits and around interconnecting lines. c. To ensure a mechanically strong, low impedance interconnection between metal objects. d. To eliminate harmful differences of potential between the various telephone cables entering facility.

c. To ensure a mechanically strong, low impedance interconnection between metal objects.

Which types of filters are always used in combination with surge arresters? a. Linear. b. Alternating current (AC) line. c. Direct current (DC) DC line. d. Power line.

a. Linear.

If the interference can be eliminated by disconnecting the receiving antenna, the source of the disturbance is most likely a. line noise. b. internal to the radio. c. external to the radio. d. radio receiver trouble.

c. external to the radio.

What is an example of intentionally induced electromagnetic interference (EMI)? a. Jamming. b. Spurious responses. c. Intermodulation. d. Power line noise.

a. Jamming.

What type of electromagnetic interference (EMI) occurs when a receiver responds to off frequency signals? a. Rusty Bolt. b. Co-channel. c. Brute force. d. Spurious responses.

d. Spurious responses.

What type of equipment often generates many spurious emissions? a. Slow tuning receiver. b. Rapid tuning receiver. c. Slow tuning transmitter. d. Rapid tuning transmitter.

d. Rapid tuning transmitter.

What man-made noise results from voltage surges, arcing, or corona discharges? a. Relays. b. Lighting. c. Power line. d. Switching equipment.

c. Power line.

How can you normally eliminate electromagnetic interference (EMI) noise bursts caused by sodium and mercury vapor lights that have stopped working while the power is still applied? a. Change the bulb. b. Ground out the light fixture. c. Install a noise reject filter on the light. d. Install a noise reject filter on the receiver.

a. Change the bulb.

What Air Force program is used to resolve an electromagnetic interference (EMI) incident? a. Mishap prevention. b. Frequency management (FM). c. Electrostatic discharge (ESD) control. d. Spectrum interference resolution (SIR).

d. Spectrum interference resolution (SIR).

At what level does the Air Force want electromagnetic interference (EMI) problems resolved? a. Affected unit. b. Affected major command. c. Electromagnetic environmental effects office. d. Spectrum interference resolution office.

a. Affected unit.

What is the first step in the Air Force spectrum interference resolution (SIR) program? a. Identify the source. b. Verifying the source. c. Resolving the interference. d. Reporting the interference.

a. Identify the source.

What do you do when you are reasonably sure electromagnetic interference (EMI) exists? a. Request engineering assistance. b. Contact the base frequency manager. c. Systematically gather data for analysis. d. Contact the spectrum interference resolution (SIR) office.

c. Systematically gather data for analysis.

Who is initially responsible for reporting an electromagnetic interference (EMI)? a. The operator. b. Major command (MAJCOM). c. The frequency manager (FM). d. Federal Communications Commission (FCC).

a. The operator.

Which Air Force service provides on-site direction finding and interference problem analysis? a. USAF Gold Flag Program. b. Unit Self-Sufficiency Support. c. Reliability and Maintainability Deficiency. d. Quick Fix Interference Reduction Capability.

d. Quick Fix Interference Reduction Capability.

What program addresses persistent and recurring interferences problems in joint operations? a. The reliability and maintainability. b. Joint Spectrum Interference Resolution (SIR). c. Air Force Spectrum Interference Resolution (AFSIR). d. The Quick Fix Interference Reduction Capability (QFIRC).

b. Joint Spectrum Interference Resolution (SIR).

Who is tasked to provide interference resolution support to the unified commanders? a. The operator. b. Joint Spectrum Center (JSC). c. Installation spectrum manager (ISM). d. Federal Communications Commission (FCC). Please

b. Joint Spectrum Center (JSC).

Which feature of the Fluke 8025A locks the measurement into the display for viewing and automatically updates the display when you take a new measurement? a. Rotary switch. b. Range push button. c. Power-up self-test. d. Touch-hold push button.

d. Touch-hold push button.

Which current range on the Fluke 8025A do you select to measure 250 milliamps alternating current (AC)? a. Microamps direct current (DC). b. Microamps AC. c. Milliamps/amp DC. d. Milliamps/amp AC.

d. Milliamps/amp AC.

When testing a diode with the 8025A, the leads across a “good” diode produces an “OL” (open) on the display in one direction while reversing the leads produces a. a continuous audible tone. b. “SL” (short) on the display. c. a wavering audible tone. d. three short beeps.

a. a continuous audible tone.

How are voltage, time, and depth represented on the oscilloscope display? a. Voltage = intensity, time = vertical axis, and depth = horizontal axis. b. Voltage = intensity, time = horizontal axis, and depth = vertical axis. c. Voltage = horizontal axis, time = vertical axis, and depth = intensity. d. Voltage = vertical axis, time = horizontal axis, and depth = intensity.

d. Voltage = vertical axis, time = horizontal axis, and depth = intensity.

Which mode of triggering an oscilloscope causes a trace to be drawn on the screen at all times, whether there is an input signal or not? a. Auto. b. Norm. c. External. d. Source.

a. Auto.

Which probe does not need to actually make contact with the circuit under test? a. Current probe. b. Passive 1:1 probe. c. Active (FET) probe. d. Passive divider, 10:1 probe.

a. Current probe.

What digital storage oscilloscope circuit compensates for high sampling rates of high frequency signals? a. Analog-to-digital converter. b. Digital-to-analog converter. c. Charged coupled device. d. Cathode-ray tube.

c. Charged coupled device.

Sampled data points are stored in the memory of a digital storage oscilloscope as a. sequential records. b. waveform points. c. record lengths. d. record points.

b. waveform points.

What area of a digital storage oscilloscope takes digitized samples and performs numerous manipulations on the data including measuring rise and fall times, periods, time intervals, and math computations? a. Microprocessors. b. Acquisition. c. Memory. d. Input.

a. Microprocessors.

What type of sampling does a digital storage oscilloscope normally use on single-shot or seldom-occurring signals? a. Sequential. b. Repetitive. c. Real-time. d. Random.

c. Real-time.

In real-time sampling, what type of interpolation is used when measuring pulse waves? a. Sine. b. Linear. c. Non-uniform. d. Companding.

b. Linear.

Which are the three types of digital storage oscilloscope acquisition modes, and which is the standard operating mode? a. Sample, peak detect, averaging; sample. b. Real-time, peak detect, sample; real-time. c. Real-time, peak detect, sample; averaging. d. Sample, peak detect, averaging; peak detect.

a. Sample, peak detect, averaging; sample.

In acquiring a 4K record length on a digital storage oscilloscope, how many samples can you view at one time? a. 1,000. b. 2,000. c. 3,000. d. 4,000.

d. 4,000.

What test equipment provides a bit error detection system that can determine the received data quality after traveling over a communications link? a. Megger. b. Multimeter. c. Oscilloscope. d. Bit error rate (BER).

d. Bit error rate (BER).

What pattern simulator section of the bit error rate test set accepts a 48-bit parallel word and generates a serial pattern? a. 48-bit transmitter only. b. Pseudo random noise (PRN) generator. c. Pseudo random noise (PRN) comparator. d. 48-bit register and 8-bit word display.

a. 48-bit transmitter only.

What pattern simulator section of the bit error rate test set converts the non-return zero-level (NRZ-L) data into the desired coding, such as non-return zero-mark (NRZ-M)? a. Data drivers. b. Code converter. c. External data comparator. d. Pseudo random noise (PRN) generator.

b. Code converter.

What pattern synchronizer and error counter section of the bit error rate test set internally generates its own pattern to compare with the received data from the data/clock receivers? a. 48-bit transmitter. b. 48-bit synchronizer/comparator. c. External data pattern synchronizer/comparator. d. Pseudo random noise (PRN) synchronizer/comparator.

d. Pseudo random noise (PRN) synchronizer/comparator.

Which of these bit rates do you use for a bit error rate test on a 64 Kbps data circuit? a. 511 bps. b. 9,600 bps. c. 64 Kbps. d. 1.544 Mbps.

c. 64 Kbps.

On the bit error rate test (BER) set, the 25-pin connectors are designed to operate with data modems to a. simplify connection of test equipment to the modem under test and to transmit the test pattern. b. simplify connection of test equipment to the modem under test and to carry the necessary signaling and handshake signals for modem operations. c. isolate test equipment from the data circuit under test and to transmit the test pattern. d. isolate test equipment from the data circuit under test and to carry the necessary signaling and handshake signals for modem operations.

b. simplify connection of test equipment to the modem under test and to carry the necessary signaling and handshake signals for modem operations.

System grounds must continually be tested a. randomly. b. periodically. c. every 10 years. d. just one time only.

b. periodically.

A known current is generated by the earth ground tester between the earth ground electrode and the a. grounding point. b. inner earth stake Y. c. auxiliary current probe. d. auxiliary potential probe.

c. auxiliary current probe.

Where is voltage potential measured in the fall of potential ground testing method? a. Between the auxiliary potential electrode and the earth ground electrode. b. Between the auxiliary current electrode and the earth ground electrode. c. Between the auxiliary potential and auxiliary current electrodes. d. Between the earth ground electrode and the outer stake Z.

b. Between the auxiliary current electrode and the earth ground electrode.

The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) have recommended a ground resistance value of a. 5 ohms or less. b. 10 ohms or less. c. 20 ohms or less. d. 25 ohms or less.

a. 5 ohms or less.

``` What component on a protocol analyzer process the frames based on the selected test and user configuration inputs? a. Counter. b. Buffer. c. Central processing unit (CPU). d. Filter. ```

c. Central processing unit (CPU).

What protocol analyzer test window provides information concerning the network utilization and frame error that are related to a specific protocol? a. Media access control (MAC) node statistics. b. Connection statistics. c. Protocol statistics. d. Node discovery.

c. Protocol statistics.

What protocol analyzer test window reports errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers? a. Media access control (MAC) node statistics. b. Connection statistics. c. Protocol statistics. d. Node discovery.

a. Media access control (MAC) node statistics.

What active test is selected to see the path that the packets are traveling and the time it takes the packets to compete the trip. a. Packet Internetwork Groper (PING). b. Trace Route. c. Traffic Generator. d. Route Generator.

b. Trace Route.

Which one of these is not an application of a radio frequency (RF) generator? a. Verifying transmitter frequencies. b. Troubleshooting receivers. c. Checking antenna systems. d. Aligning telemetry receivers.

a. Verifying transmitter frequencies.

A power reading that uses the abbreviation dBm indicates the a. ratio of decibels relative to a 1-milliwatt standard. b. ratio of decibels relative to a 1-megawatt standard. c. actual power level expressed in milliwatts. d. actual power level expressed in megawatts.

c. actual power level expressed in milliwatts.

During what operation is the radio frequency blanking output used on the HP 436A power meter? a. While in WATT mode operation. b. While in REMOTE mode operation. c. During the automatic zeroing operation. d. During calibration adjustment operation.

c. During the automatic zeroing operation.

Plug-in elements of the wattmeter are selected based on the a. selection of the autorange function. b. frequency and power to be measured. c. 1-milliwatt standard and relative decibels. d. absolute and relative power levels to be measured.

b. frequency and power to be measured.

The two switches on the front panel of the wattmeter is to correspond to the a. power range of the reverse element. b. power range of the forward element. c. frequency range of the forward element. d. frequency range of the reverse element.

b. power range of the forward element.

When reading forward power on a wattmeter, what does two right facing arrow head mean? a. Equipment malfunction. b. Calculating forward power. c. No power is applied for reading. d. Power exceeds 120 percent of the range.

d. Power exceeds 120 percent of the range.

What feature is useful for making adjustments to optimize any of the parameters which the wattmeter measures? a. Peaking aid. b. Minimum reading. c. Maximum reading. d. Standing wave ratio.

a. Peaking aid.

Which measurements are not made with a spectrum analyzer? a. Frequency stability. b. Peak-peak voltage. c. Amplitude modulation. d. Subcarrier oscillator outputs.

b. Peak-peak voltage.

Which are the correct four classes of electronic counters? a. Frequency counters, time counters, microwave counters, and reciprocal counters. b. Frequency counters, universal counters, microwave counters, and reciprocal counters. c. Frequency counters, universal counters, period counters, and reciprocal counters. d. Scaling counters, universal counters, microwave counters, and reciprocal counters.

b. Frequency counters, universal counters, microwave counters, and reciprocal counters.

What test equipment combines the operations of many test instruments into a single compact unit? a. Volt meter. b. Oscilloscope. c. Impedance meter. d. Communication service monitor.

d. Communication service monitor.

What function is not part of the communication service monitor? a. Radio frequency generator. b. Analog multimeter. c. Oscilloscope. d. Receiver.

b. Analog multimeter.

What operational capability of the communication service monitor produces sine, square, and triangle waveforms? a. Scope. b. Duplex. c. Receiver. d. Function generator.

d. Function generator.

CDC 3D153 v1 URE Flashcards

(100 cards)