cdc v2 Flashcards by walker pettis

The Air Force atomic, biological, chemical (ABC) warfare program in was formed in 1951 in response to proliferation of

a. nuclear weapons after World War II by the Middle East.
b. nuclear weapons after World War II by the Soviet Union.
c. chemical weapons after World War II by the Middle East.
d. chemical weapons after World War II by the Soviet Union.

b. nuclear weapons after World War II by the Soviet Union.

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What emergency management (EM) career field emblem was approved for use in 1966 by the US Army Institute of Heraldry, graphically symbolizes the components that make up the response elements, and is still in use today? a. The base civil engineer (BCE) emblem.

b. The disaster control group (DCG) emblem.
c. The disaster response force (DRF) emblem.
d. The EM emblem.

c. The disaster response force (DRF) emblem.

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What career field award recognizes the best Readiness and Emergency Management (R&EM) flights annually?

a. The 1Lt Joseph Terry award.
b. The SrA John L. Levitow award.
c. The General Eugene Lupia award.
d. The Colonel Fredrick J. Riemer award.

d. The Colonel Fredrick J. Riemer award.

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After the terrorist attacks on 11 September 2001, a significant change to emergency management and response was the implementation of the

a. Joint Task Force-Civil Support (JTF-CS).
b. Full Spectrum Threat Response (FSTR).
c. National Incident Management System (NIMS).
d. Chemical Biological Incident Response Force (CBIRF).

c. National Incident Management System (NIMS).

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The Air Force complied with the directive to adopt the National Incident Management system (NIMS) by

a. modifying installation plans.
b. reorganizing emergency response agencies.
c. modifying installation command and control operations.
d. implementing the Air Force Incident Management System.

d. implementing the Air Force Incident Management System.

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The Air Force Chief of Staff (CSAF) approved the emergency management (EM) career field occupational badge in

a. 2001.
b. 2003.
c. 2005.
d. 2006.

d. 2006.

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What does the career field education and training plan (CFETP) state about wearing the emergency management (EM) occupational badge?

a. There is no stipulation.
b. Only active duty personnel must wear the CE and EM occupational badges.
c. You may wear the CE occupational badge with the EM occupational badge.
d. You must wear the Civil Engineering (CE) occupational badge with the EM occupational badge.

d. You must wear the Civil Engineering (CE) occupational badge with the EM occupational badge

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Which activities should include training and education as well as exercises, personnel qualifications, equipment certification, and the integration of planning and procedures?

a. Planning.
b. Prevention.
c. Operations.
d. Preparedness.

d. Preparedness.

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Providing support in the emergency operations center (EOC), chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) control center, and unit control center (UCC) fall into what readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight mission set?

a. Planning.
b. Prevention.
c. Operations.
d. Preparedness.

c. Operations.

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What determines the number of 3E9s assigned to a flight?

a. MAJCOM.
b. Size of the installation.
c. Manpower authorizations.
d. Installation threats/hazards.

c. Manpower authorizations.

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Who supervises the readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight and analyzes the local threat of natural, technological, or man-made hazards?

a. Flight chief.
b. Superintendent.
c. The highest ranking 3E9.
d. Civil engineering squadron (CES) commander.

a. Flight chief.

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Who is the key emergency management (EM) representative for the senior AF authority and will perform the duties necessary to properly train and educate airmen on AF specific requirements such as chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) passive defense?

a. EM section.
b. Operations element.
c. Civil Engineer squadron.
d. Readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight.

a. EM section.

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Which section is responsible for ensuring the civil engineer squadron accomplishes all Prime BEEF program requirements in accordance with AFI 10–210, Prime BEEF Program, and Air Force Pamphlet (AFPAM) 10–219, Volume 8, Prime BEEF Management?

a. Planning section.
b. Operations section.
c. Emergency management section.
d. Expeditionary engineering section.

d. Expeditionary engineering section

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Who do senior readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight personnel directly report to?

a. Major command (MAJCOM).
b. Wing commander.
c. Base civil engineer.
d. Mission support group (MSG) commander.

c. Base civil engineer.

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Who is responsible for ensuring unit emergency management (EM) programs are managed according to AFMAN 32–1007 and AFI 10–2501?

a. EM section.
b. Flight leadership.
c. Planning element.
d. Operations element.

b. Flight leadership.

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Which of the following would not be included in the meeting agenda?

a. Location.
b. Date/Time.
c. Purpose of meeting.
d. List of people attending.

b. Date/Time.

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The emergency management (EM) program review is designed

a. as a means to correct problems.
b. for evaluation of civil engineer manning requirements.
c. for senior staff oversight and direction of the installation program.
d. to facilitate integration of all functional activities affecting the installation during contingencies.

d. to facilitate integration of all functional activities affecting the installation during contingencies.

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After determining briefing topics, what is the next step in preparing for an Emergency Management Working Group (EMWG) meeting?

a. Conduct follow-up.
b. Prepare documentation.
c. Send out meeting minutes.
d. Schedule the time and place for the meeting.

d. Schedule the time and place for the meetin

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The Work Center Assignments option falls under which module of Automated Civil Engineering System-Personnel and Readiness (ACES-PR)?

a. Readiness.
b. Personnel.
c. Recall Roster.
d. Additional Duties.

b. Personnel.

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Which module of Automated Civil Engineer System-Personnel and Readiness (ACES-PR) allows the user to manage equipment, mobility, the Emergency Management (EM) Program, and stats?

a. Readiness.
b. Personnel.
c. Reference table.
d. Organization table.

a. Readiness.

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Which function of the Automated Civil Engineer System-Personnel and Readiness (ACES-PR) Personnel module allows the user to add and modify records; view personnel history and/or move records to history; view, assign, and or delete additional duties; and assign personnel to work center positions?

a. Readiness.
b. Recall Roster.
c. Organization table.
d. Civil Engineering (CE) personnel.

d. Civil Engineering (CE) personnel.

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Which emergency management (EM) section element is responsible for all Readiness and Emergency Management (R&EM) flight equipment?

a. Planning.
b. Training.
c. Logistics.
d. Operations.

c. Logistics.

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Checklists for readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight equipment must be prepared within how many days after the new equipment is received?

a. 30 days.
b. 60 days.
c. 120 days.
d. 365 days.

a. 30 days.

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Which element of the readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight is responsible for regularly reviewing EM-related allowance standards to determine if authorizations for accountable equipment items have been added, deleted, or changed?

a. Operations.
b. Logistics.
c. Planning.
d. Training.

b. Logistics.

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What document provides basic allowances of equipment normally required by Air Force activities and individuals for accomplishing the assigned mission, tasks, or duties? a. Allowance standard. b. Program element code. c. Equipment authorization. d. Equipment supply listing (ESL).

a. Allowance standard.

Which of the following would not be found in an allowance standard? a. Vehicles. b. Communication equipment. c. War reserve material (WRM). d. Chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) equipment.

c. War reserve material (WRM).

Which of the following is not a suitable reason to request changes to an allowance standard? a. When allowances are excessive. b. When allowances are inadequate. c. When broken equipment needs to be repaired. d. When equipment is unsuitable for peacetime or wartime.

c. When broken equipment needs to be repaired.

Items not in an allowance standard, but required by an organization to perform its mission, may be obtained as a. special allowances. b. special requirements. c. unfunded requirements. d. unauthorized allowances.

a. special allowances.

What is used to authorize a required item that is not in an allowance standard but is already on hand? a. Reprieve request. b. Retention authority. c. Special allowance request. d. Equipment authorization request.

b. Retention authority

Temporarily required items are items needed for a period of a. 45 calendar days or less. b. 89 calendar days or less. c. 180 calendar days or less. d. 364 calendar days or less.

c. 180 calendar days or less.

Unless otherwise directed by the secretary of defense (SecDef), installations may not stock supplies solely for a. war reserve materiel (WRM). b. defense support to civil authorities (DSCA). c. military operations other than war (MOOTW). d. active chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) response.

b. defense support to civil authorities (DSCA).

What is the key to logistics? a. Carefully planning your budget. b. Effective inventory management. c. Determining equipment requirements. d. Ensuring you stock enough spare parts.

b. Effective inventory management.

Which of the following is not one of the four basic steps to the inventory management process? a. Determining requirements. b. Accounting for equipment on-hand. c. Establishing equipment turn-in procedures. d. Actively addressing the shortfalls and overages.

c. Establishing equipment turn-in procedures.

Which system is a cross-service Web-enabled automated tracking system designed to initiate, process, and track equipment deficiency reports from the warfighter through the investigation process? a. Joint Deficiency Reporting System (JDRS). b. Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS). c. Automated Civil Engineer System – Personnel Readiness (ACES-PR). d. Joint Acquisition Chemical, Biological, Radiological, and Nuclear (CBRN) Knowledge System (JACKS).

a. Joint Deficiency Reporting System (JDRS).

Who must identify requirements and then budget for, obtain, store, and maintain materiel needed to accomplish their specific function’s emergency management (EM) tasks in support of response plans? a. Each major command (MAJCOM). b. Unit commanders. c. Wing commanders. d. Each individual flight.

b. Unit commanders.

The types and quantities of passive defense equipment needed by forces in the area of employment are specified in a. the status of forces agreements. b. AFI 10–2501 and AFMAN 32–1007. c. the logistics portions of war and contingency plans. d. the Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP) 10–2.

c. the logistics portions of war and contingency plans.

What must you do prior to starting any equipment task? a. Review all applicable technical orders (TO) for familiarization with the latest procedures. b. Request the latest copy of the TO for the specific equipment item you are using. c. Complete an operations check and document any discrepancies. d. Review the equipment operations checklist.

a. Review all applicable technical orders (TO) for familiarization with the latest procedure

Members appointed as technical order (TO) distribution account (TODA) representatives must complete training within how many days of assignment? a. 10 days. b. 30 days. c. 60 days. d. 90 days.

d. 90 days.

In chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) threat areas, who must store and maintain pre-positioned materiel for additive forces according to theater reinforcement plans, base support plans, and joint support plans? a. Installation commanders. b. MAJCOM commanders. c. Unit commanders. d. Individual flights.

a. Installation commanders.

Who ensures unit materiel, including materiel in bulk storage, is stored in facilities that provide security, accessibility, and protection from fire, extreme weather, temperature, dust, and humidity? a. Installation commanders. b. MAJCOM commanders. c. Unit commanders. d. Individual flights.

c. Unit commanders.

The readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight’s training element develops and maintains master lesson plans for instructor-led courses using available instructor guides created by a. AF/A7CV. b. AF/A7CXR. c. AFCEC/CXR. d. AFCEC/CXX.

c. AFCEC/CXR.

When emergency management (EM) training is completed the readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight’s training element updates a. Automated Civil Engineer System – Personnel Readiness (ACES-PR). b. Automated Civil Engineer System – Resource Module- ACES-RM). c. ACES-PM Unit Scheduler. d. ACES-PR Unit Scheduler.

a. Automated Civil Engineer System – Personnel Readiness (ACES-PR).

When formal training slots are available, individual mobilization augmentees should be a. scheduled before active duty personnel to ensure they receive the training quickly. b. scheduled after all active duty personnel have been scheduled. c. scheduled only if the active duty personnel cannot attend. d. given the same consideration as active duty personnel.

d. given the same consideration as active duty personnel.

What can help to evaluate training issues by considering topics previously covered, thus overcoming the urge to teach favorite topics and neglect other critical areas when conducting in-house training? a. Proper documentation. b. A rigid training schedule. c. Selecting instructors that are already experts on the topic being covered. d. Selecting instructors that are not experts on the topic and challenging them to research the topic.

a. Proper documentation.

How often must the installation Disaster Response Force’s (DRF) ability to respond to adversarial/human-caused, technological/accidental, and natural threats outlined in the Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP) 10–2 be exercised? a. Every quarter. b. Twice a year. c. Annually. d. Every 2 years.

c. Annually.

Who is responsible for exercising the ability to conduct deployed combat operations? a. All AF units. b. AF units in overseas areas. c. Any unit with a wartime mission. d. AF units identified by the Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS).

c. Any unit with a wartime mission.

Which component of the simple, attainable, measurable, and task-oriented (SMART) approach to developing exercise objectives encourages developers to remember that exercises are conducted during a limited timeframe and objectives must be able to be met during that time? a. Simple. b. Attainable. c. Measurable. d. Task-oriented.

b. Attainable.

Which component of the simple, attainable, measurable, and task-oriented (SMART) approach to developing exercise objectives encourages developers to focus on specific operations or tasks to be completed? a. Simple. b. Attainable. c. Measurable. d. Task-oriented.

d. Task-oriented.

What is the first step in establishing an effective “Be Ready” Awareness Campaign? a. Identify requirements. b. Plan for execution. c. Budget for items. d. Hazard analysis.

d. Hazard analysis.

Which element of the readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight ensures emergency support function (ESF)–5 has the ability to provide core management functions in the emergency operations center (EOC)? a. Planning. b. Training. c. Logistics. d. Operations.

d. Operations.

The readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight operations element ensures that every unit and agency on the installation is in compliance with the emergency management (EM) program by a. implementing the EM program review process. b. providing EM training to all assigned units. c. assigning unit EM representatives. d. conducting quarterly exercises.

a. implementing the EM program review process.

Who determines which installation will train and equip geographically separated units (GSU) units in compliance with the emergency management (EM) program? a. HQ USAF. b. MAJCOMs. c. Unit commanders. d. Installation commanders.

b. MAJCOMs.

How long after the most recent emergency management (EM) program review should the unit EM representatives perform a self-assessment using the EM program review checklist? a. 3 months. b. 6 months. c. 9 months. d. 12 months.

b. 6 months.

Each emergency management (EM) program review should be coordinated with the unit EM representative and commander at least how many weeks before the visit? a. 4. b. 3. c. 2. d. 1.

c. 2.

Readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight leadership will submit the written EM program review assessment to the civil engineering (CE) commander within how many duty days after the out-brief? a. 5 duty days. b. 10 duty days. c. 15 duty days. d. 20 duty days.

a. 5 duty days.

Which of the following is not a factor that will affect the size of the emergency management support team (EMST)? a. 24-hour operations. b. Mutual aid agreements. c. Training requirements. d. Installation’s initial response capability.

c. Training requirements.

Which element of the readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight serves as the OPR for chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) passive defense and consequence management planning? a. Planning. b. Training. c. Logistics. d. Operations.

a. Planning.

The readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight planning element is responsible for assisting with what portions of the installation risk management process? a. Chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) and force protection. b. Force protection and emergency management (EM). c. Anti-terrorism and force protection. d. CBRN and EM.

d. CBRN and EM.

Which group performs and documents the risk management process? a. Readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight’s emergency management (EM) section. b. Installation’s Emergency Management Working Group (EMWG). c. Installation’s Threat Working Group (TWG). d. Emergency operations center.

b. Installation’s Emergency Management Working Group (EMWG).

Which of the following is not one of the three assessments required to be completed as part of the risk management process? a. Hazards assessment. b. Capability assessment. c. Efficiency assessment. d. Vulnerability assessment.

c. Efficiency assessment.

Which is the most important assessment tool in the risk management process for an installation’s emergency management (EM) program? a. Hazards assessment. b. Capability assessment. c. Efficiency assessment. d. Vulnerability assessment.

a. Hazards assessment.

Which risk management assessment describes all resources and capabilities available both on and off the installation for incident response and recovery? a. Hazards assessment. b. Capability assessment. c. Efficiency assessment. d. Vulnerability assessment.

b. Capability assessment.

``` Which risk management assessment identifies shortfalls (procedural or programmatic) and steps taken to either mitigate or eliminate the shortfalls through procurement, developing support agreements, developing or revising plans/procedures, accepting the risk, or some other method? a . Hazards assessment. b. Capability assessment. c. Efficiency assessment. d. Vulnerability assessment. ```

b. Capability assessment.

Which risk management assessment identifies areas of improvement to withstand, mitigate, and deter hazards and serves as one of the foundational components for effective emergency management? a. Hazards assessment. b. Capability assessment. c. Efficiency assessment. d. Vulnerability assessment.

d. Vulnerability assessment.

How often are the assessments associated with the risk management process conducted? a. Monthly. b. Quarterly. c. Annually. d. Biannually.

c. Annually.

Which publication provides Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) guidance on the fundamentals of planning and developing emergency operations plans? a. CPG 101, Developing and Maintaining Emergency Operations Plans. b. AFI 10–2501, Air Force EM Planning and Operations. c. AFI 10–2502, AFIMS Standards and Procedures. d. DODI 6055.17, Installation EM Program.

a. CPG 101, Developing and Maintaining Emergency Operations Plans.

Which of the following is the foundation for state, territorial, tribal, and local emergency planning in the United States and is the standard for emergency management (EM) planning used within the Air Force EM Program? a. CPG 101, Developing and Maintaining Emergency Operations Plans. b. AFI 10–2501, Air Force EM Planning and Operations. c. AFI 10–2502, AFIMS Standards and Procedures. d. DODI 6055.17, Installation EM Program.

a. CPG 101, Developing and Maintaining Emergency Operations Plans.

Planners can test whether critical plan elements are sufficiently flexible by a. allowing all first responders to test the plan. b. having multiple people read the plan before approval. c. exercising them against the same scenario over and over. d. exercising them against scenarios of varying type and magnitude.

d. exercising them against scenarios of varying type and magnitude.

Which of the following is not one of the planning tiers? a. Tactical. b. Strategic. c. Deliberate. d. Operational.

c. Deliberate.

Planners typically use which approach to develop planning assumptions primarily for hazard- or threat-specific annexes to a basic plan? a. Scenario-based planning. b. Function-based planning. c. Operations-base planning. d. Capabilities-based planning.

a. Scenario-based planning.

Which approach to planning focuses on a jurisdiction’s capacity to take a course of action? a. Scenario-based planning. b. Function-based planning. c. Operations-base planning. d. Capabilities-based planning.

d. Capabilities-based planning.

What establishes an agreement between parties and documents proof of the agreement and its contents? a. Support plans. b. Assistance plans. c. Support agreements. d. Assistance agreements.

c. Support agreements.

For Defense Support to Civil Authorities (DSCA) response within the US, its territories, and possessions, who coordinates response activities for federal agencies if the incident affects areas outside the installation’s boundaries? a. Department of Homeland Security. b. Installation commander. c. Secretary of defense. d. Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff.

a. Department of Homeland Security.

At the national level, who is responsible for Emergency Management (EM) within the continental United States (CONUS)? a. The president. b. Joint director of military support. c. Department of Homeland Security (DHS). d. Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA).

d. Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA).

Which plan provides comprehensive guidance for an emergency response to physical threats resulting from natural, man-made, or technological hazards? a. Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP) 10–2. b. Civil Engineering (CE) Contingency Response Plan. c. National response framework. d. Base support plan.

a. Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP) 10–2.

Who approves the Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP) 10–2? a. Readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight chief. b. Mission support group (MSG) commander. c. Installation commander. d. MAJCOM commander.

c. Installation commander.

What was developed and adopted to assist Air Force emergency managers in the development process of their respective Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP) 10–2? a. CPG 101. b. IEMP 10–2 Planning Tool. c. AF “Be Ready” Awareness Campaign. d. All Hazards Risk Management Process.

b. IEMP 10–2 Planning Tool.

Units must develop and/or update implementing instructions within how many days of publication of an Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP) 10–2? a. 30. b. 45. c. 60. d. 90.

c. 60.

Who is responsible for identifying and evaluating installation facilities that may be used for shelters? a. Base civil engineer. b. Installation commander. c. American Red Cross personnel. d. Readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight personnel.

a. Base civil engineer.

What is used during a natural, man-made, or technological emergency condition to provide limited protection for unprotected personnel or casualties? a. Lockdown. b. Shelter-in-place. c. Collective protection. d. Extended operations shelters.

b. Shelter-in-place.

Which announcement is an emergency protocol used as a security measure to confine and restrict movement during an active shooter incident? a. All clear. b. Lockdown. c. Evacuation. d. Shelter-in-place.

b. Lockdown.

When planning supply and resupply actions to support extended shelter operations, how many days should you plan for after the onset of chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) contamination? a. 3 consecutive days. b. 5 consecutive days. c. 7 consecutive days. d. 9 consecutive days.

c. 7 consecutive days.

Which agency is responsible for providing notification of earthquakes in order to enhance public safety and to reduce losses through effective forecasts based on the best possible scientific information? a. National Weather Service (NWS). b. United States Geological Survey (USGS). c. International Tsunami Warning System (ITWS). d. National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA).

b. United States Geological Survey (USGS).

To determine which areas in the US are at higher risk than others to an earthquake, the United States Geological Survey (USGS) creates seismic hazard maps that show a. fault lines. b. ground depths. c. peak ground acceleration. d. local geological conditions.

c. peak ground acceleration.

Which agency monitors ocean waves after any Pacific earthquake with a magnitude greater than 6.5? a. National Weather Service (NWS). b. United States Geological Survey (USGS). c. International Tsunami Warning System (ITWS). d. National Meteorological & Hydrological Services (NMHS).

c. International Tsunami Warning System (ITWS).

When is hurricane season in the Atlantic, Caribbean, and Gulf of Mexico as well as in the Central Pacific basin? a. 1 January to 31 March. b. 1 March to 30 June. c. 1 June to 30 November. d. 1 July to 31 October.

c. 1 June to 30 November.

Which agency issues coastal tropical cyclone watches and warnings for the United States and its Caribbean territories and provides watch and warning recommendations to other World Meteorological Organization Region IV meteorological services? a. National Hurricane Center (NHC). b. National Weather Service (NWS). c. National Meteorological & Hydrological Services (NMHS). d. National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA).

a. National Hurricane Center (NHC).

What is the nickname for the area of the US that consistently experiences a high frequency of tornadoes each year? a. Tornado Row. b. Tornado Alley. c. Tornado Corner. d. Tornado Central.

b. Tornado Alley.

A boundary separating hot, dry air to the west from warm, moist air to the east is called a. a dry line. b. an isobar. c. a storm line. a. thermocline.

a. a dry line.

Which level of hazardous materials (HAZMAT) response is conducted when the hazard is confined to a small area that can be controlled by first responders, does not require evacuation beyond the involved structure, and poses no immediate threat to life or property? a. Level I. b. Level II. c. Level III. d. Level IV.

a. Level I.

Which level of hazardous materials (HAZMAT) response is conducted when the hazard poses a potential threat to life or property? a. Level I. b. Level II. c. Level III. d. Level IV.

b. Level II. (?)

Any large number of casualties produced in a relatively short time, usually as the result of a single incident that exceeds local logistic support capabilities, is called a a. disaster. b. major accident. c. mass casualty incident. d. full-scale medical response.

c. mass casualty incident.

Conventional explosives are the most troubling weapons of mass destruction because a. of the damage caused by the blast. b. they are very easy to make and acquire. c. they can be acquired easily and for little cost. d. they can disperse chemical, biological, or radiological agents.

d. they can disperse chemical, biological, or radiological agents.

Chemical agents are categorized based on their a. lethality. b. rate of action. c. exposure routes. d. physiological effects.

d. physiological effects.

Which weapons are used to cause illness, injury, or death in humans, livestock, or plants? a. Chemical. b. Biological. c. Radiological. d. Conventional.

b. Biological.

What is the primary defense against biological weapons? a. Detection. b. Recognition. c. Immunizations. d. Decontamination.

b. Recognition.

Which of the following is not one of the three primary mechanisms by which terrorists can use radiation to carry out an attack? a. Detonation of a nuclear bomb. b. Dispersal of radiological material. c. Hijacking an aircraft with nuclear weapons. d. Attacking a facility housing nuclear material.

c. Hijacking an aircraft with nuclear weapons.

A dirty bomb is another name for what kind of weapon? a. Chemical agents. b. Biological agents. c. Conventional explosives. d. Radiological Dispersion Device.

d. Radiological Dispersion Device.

Critical water or sewer system failures can and do occur quite often, primarily as a result of a. terrorism. b. natural hazards. c. chemical agents. d. biological agents.

b. natural hazards.

According to the World Food Programme, what is the greatest worldwide threat to health? a. Water contamination. b. Contagious diseases. c. Natural radiation. d. Famine.

d. Famine.

cdc v2 Flashcards

(100 cards)