CDM revision SEM 1 Flashcards
What is the criteria for neutropenic sepsis and what. prophylaxis and treatment is given to a suspect or known case?
Neutropenic sepsis is a relatively common complication of cancer therapy, usually as a consequence of chemotherapy. It most commonly occurs 7-14 days after chemotherapy. It may be defined as a neutrophil count of < 0.5 * 109 in a patient who is having anticancer treatment and has one of the following:
a temperature higher than 38ºC or
other signs or symptoms consistent with clinically significant sepsis
Prophylaxis
if it is anticipated that patients are likely to have a neutrophil count of < 0.5 * 109 as a consequence of their treatment they should be offered a fluoroquinolone
Management
antibiotics must be started immediately, do not wait for the WBC
NICE recommends starting empirical antibiotic therapy with piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin) immediately
many units add vancomycin if the patient has central venous access but NICE do not support this approach
following this initial treatment patients are usually assessed by a specialist and risk-stratified to see if they may be able to have outpatient treatment
if patients are still febrile and unwell after 48 hours an alternative antibiotic such as meropenem is often prescribed +/- vancomycin
if patients are not responding after 4-6 days the Christie guidelines suggest ordering investigations for fungal infections (e.g. HRCT), rather than just starting therapy antifungal therapy blindly
there may be a role for G-CSF in selected patients
What are the risk factors for developing DVT?
General increased risk with advancing age obesity family history of VTE pregnancy (especially puerperium) immobility hospitalisation anaesthesia central venous catheter: femoral >> subclavian
Underlying conditions malignancy thrombophilia: e.g. Activated protein C resistance, protein C and S deficiency heart failure antiphospholipid syndrome Behcet's polycythaemia nephrotic syndrome sickle cell disease paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria hyperviscosity syndrome homocystinuria
Medication
combined oral contraceptive pill: 3rd generation more than 2nd generation
hormone replacement therapy: the risk of VTE is higher in women taking oestrogen + progestogen preparations compared to those taking oestrogen-only preparations
raloxifene and tamoxifen
antipsychotics (especially olanzapine) have recently been shown to be a risk factor
What is the commonest non-Hodgkins lymphoma in the UK?
Diffuse large B cell lymphoma is by far the most common form of non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) in the UK. It comprises around 40% of the total lymphoma cases. It is a high-grade tumour (i.e. aggressive) but typically responds better to treatment than some of the more indolent lymphomas.
How can Hodgkin’s and Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma be differentiated clinically?
While differentiating Hodgkin’s lymphoma from non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma is done by biopsy certain elements of the clinical presentation can help point towards one rather than the other.
Lymphadenopathy in Hodgkin’s lymphoma can experience alcohol-induced pain in the node
‘B’ symptoms typically occur earlier in Hodgkin’s lymphoma and later in non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
Extra-nodal disease is much more common in non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma than in Hodgkin’s lymphoma
How can Lymphoma’s be Investigated and what is the characteristic biopsy finding in Burkitt’s lymphoma?
Excisional node biopsy is the diagnostic investigation of choice (certain subtypes will have a classical appearance on biopsy such as Burkitt’s lymphoma having a ‘starry sky’ appearance)
CT chest, abdomen and pelvis (to assess staging)
HIV test (often performed as this is a risk factor for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma)
FBC and blood film (patient may have a normocytic anaemia and can help rule out other haematological malignancy such as leukaemia)
ESR (useful as a prognostic indicator)
LDH (a marker of cell turnover, useful as a prognostic indicator)
Other investigations can be ordered as the clinical picture indicates (LFT’s if liver metastasis suspected, PET CT or bone marrow biopsy to look for bone involvement, LP if neurological symptoms)
What are the laboratory findings in beta thalassemia?
The thalassaemias are a group of genetic disorders characterised by a reduced production rate of either alpha or beta chains. Beta-thalassaemia trait is an autosomal recessive condition characterised by a mild hypochromic, microcytic anaemia. It is usually asymptomatic
Features mild hypochromic, microcytic anaemia - microcytosis is characteristically disproportionate to the anaemia HbA2 raised (> 3.5%)
What are the types and causes of macrocytic anemia and what the features of megaloblastic anemia?
Macrocytic anaemia can be divided into causes associated with a megaloblastic bone marrow and those with a normoblastic bone marrow
Megaloblastic causes
vitamin B12 deficiency
folate deficiency
Normoblastic causes
alcohol liver disease hypothyroidism pregnancy reticulocytosis myelodysplasia drugs: cytotoxics
symptoms of anaemia, glossitis, a macrocytosis and hyper-segmented neutrophils on the blood film. This is typical of a megaloblastic anaemia such as B12 or folate deficiency anaemia. Another key feature of a megaloblastic anaemia is the presence of megaloblasts and giant metamyelocytes within the bone marrow. Following a full blood count, a blood film is the suggested second-line test for megaloblastic anaemia (as per BMJ best practice). It is also common practice to test for haematinics as this may reveal low B12 or folate levels and hence identify the cause of macrocytosis.
What are the causes of hyperkalemia and the ecg changes seen?
ECG changes seen in hyperkalaemia include tall-tented T waves, small P waves, widened QRS leading to a sinusoidal pattern and asystole
Causes of hyperkalaemia: acute kidney injury drugs*: potassium sparing diuretics, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin 2 receptor blockers, spironolactone, ciclosporin, heparin** metabolic acidosis Addison's disease rhabdomyolysis massive blood transfusion
What does raised ALP in the presence of normal LFT’s indicate?
Raised ALP in the presence of normal LFT’s should raise suspicion of malignancy. Particularly bone cancer/ metastases
How does hypophosphatemia present?how is it treated?
acute respiratory failure secondary to severe hypophosphataemia.
Hypophosphataemia is a common complication of insulin therapy in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) hence increasing the dosage of insulin is not an answer in this case. A rise in insulin causes phosphate to shift into the intracellular compartment, similar to the mechanism involved in hypophosphataemia as a result of refeeding syndrome or hyperglycaemic hyperosmolar non-ketotic coma (HONK).
Hypophosphataemia as a result of DKA treatment is usually transient and mild. Phosphate replacement therapy is rarely required unless it is severe and should be given as an infusion. Insulin therapy should never be stopped in a patient with DKA.
What are the causes and complications of hypophosphatemia?
Causes alcohol excess acute liver failure diabetic ketoacidosis refeeding syndrome primary hyperparathyroidism osteomalacia
Consequences red blood cell haemolysis white blood cell and platelet dysfunction muscle weakness and rhabdomyolysis central nervous system dysfunction
What are the causes of raised ALP?
Causes of raised alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
liver: cholestasis, hepatitis, fatty liver, neoplasia
Paget’s
osteomalacia
bone metastases
hyperparathyroidism
renal failure
physiological: pregnancy, growing children, healing fractures
The table below splits the causes according to the calcium level
Raised ALP and raised calcium Raised ALP and low calcium Bone metastases Hyperparathyroidism Osteomalacia Renal failure
What are the causes of SIADH including drug causes?
Malignancy small cell lung cancer also: pancreas, prostate Neurological stroke subarachnoid haemorrhage subdural haemorrhage meningitis/encephalitis/abscess Infections tuberculosis pneumonia Drugs sulfonylureas* SSRIs, tricyclics carbamazepine vincristine cyclophosphamide Other causes positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) porphyrias
What are the causes of hypocalcemia and how can it be managed?
Causes
vitamin D deficiency (osteomalacia)
chronic kidney disease
hypoparathyroidism (e.g. post thyroid/parathyroid surgery)
pseudohypoparathyroidism (target cells insensitive to PTH)
rhabdomyolysis (initial stages)
magnesium deficiency (due to end organ PTH resistance)
massive blood transfusion
acute pancreatitis
Contamination of blood samples with EDTA may also give falsely low calcium levels.
Management
acute management of severe hypocalcaemia is with intravenous replacement. The preferred method is with intravenous calcium gluconate, 10ml of 10% solution over 10 minutes
intravenous calcium chloride is more likely to cause local irritation
ECG monitoring is recommended
further management depends on the underlying cause
How does Osmotic demyelination syndrome (central pontine myelinolysis) present?
can occur due to over-correction of severe hyponatremia
to avoid this, Na+ levels are only raised by 4 to 6 mmol/l in a 24-hour period
symptoms usually occur after 2 days and are usually irreversible: dysarthria, dysphagia, paraparesis or quadriparesis, seizures, confusion, and coma
patients are awake but are unable to move or verbally communicate, also called ‘Locked-in syndrome’
How is Hypercalcemia treated?
The initial management of hypercalcaemia is rehydration with normal saline, typically 3-4 litres/day. Following rehydration bisphosphonates may be used. They typically take 2-3 days to work with maximal effect being seen at 7 days
Other options include:
calcitonin - quicker effect than bisphosphonates
steroids in sarcoidosis
Loop diuretics such as furosemide are sometimes used in hypercalcaemia, particularly in patients who cannot tolerate aggressive fluid rehydration. However, they should be used with caution as they may worsen electrolyte derangement and volume depletion.
What can cause hypernatremia and how is it managed?
Causes of hypernatraemia dehydration osmotic diuresis e.g. hyperosmolar non-ketotic diabetic coma diabetes insipidus excess IV saline
Hypernatraemia should be corrected with great caution. Although brain tissue can lose sodium and potassium rapidly, lowering of other osmolytes (and importantly water) occurs at a slower rate, predisposing to cerebral oedema, resulting in seizures, coma and death1. Although there are no clinical guidelines by NICE or Royal College of Physicians at present, it is generally accepted that a rate of no greater than 0.5 mmol/hour correction is appropriate.
What new diabetic drug can potentially be used to treated renal impairment
- In chronic kidney disease (CKD), dapagliflozin (Farxiga) reduced renal events and substantially improved overall survival, regardless of diabetes status, theDAPA-CKD trialshowed
How can CKD be classified?
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) can be defined by the presence of kidney damage or reduced kidney function for three or more months.
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is classified using a combination of estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) and urinaryalbumin:creatinine ratio(ACR).
- Increased ACR is associated with increased risk of adverse outcomes.
- Decreased GFR is associated with increased risk of adverse outcomes.
- Increased ACR and decreased GFR in combination multiply the risk of adverse outcomes.
How can proteinuria be measured?
ACR>30
What is Alport’s syndrome?
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is classified using a combination of estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) and urinaryalbumin:creatinine ratio(ACR).
- Increased ACR is associated with increased risk of adverse outcomes.
- Decreased GFR is associated with increased risk of adverse outcomes.
- Increased ACR and decreased GFR in combination multiply the risk of adverse outcomes.
COL4A5 is on thechromosome), so mutations in it can cause[X-linked])[Alport syndrome
COL4A3 and A4 are on[autosomes, meaning non-[sex chromosomes]and mutations in these cause either[autosomal recessive]
[Alport syndrome] which is also early onset, or[autosomal dominant][Alport syndrome](, which causes late onset disease.
• For diagnosis, Alport syndrome is typically suspected when there are clinical signs like gross hematuria or if there are vision or hearing problems, or microscopic hematuria with no apparent cause.
- To confirm the diagnosis, a kidney or skin biopsy is often analyzed by immunohistochemistry, meaning a labelled antibody is applied to a biopsy sample on a slide.
- The treatment for Alport syndrome usually focuses on the symptoms.
- Proteinuria is treated with angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors and/or angiotensin receptor blockers because there is evidence that this prevents progression to kidney failure.
- Anterior lenticonus can be treated with a replacement lens, and Kidney failure necessitates dialysis or even kidney transplant.
What are the side effects of hemodialysis?
hypotension arrhythmia muscle cramps nausea and vomiting headache air embolism seizure disequilibrium syndrome hemolysis
What are the complications for peritoneal dialysis
peritonitis catheter non function hyperlipidemia risk of hernias weight gain and hyperglycaemia
What are the Drug class Drug examples Mechanism of action SEs Contraindications
of common oral hypoglycaemic agents?
Drug class Drug examples Mechanism of action SEs Contraindications Biguanide Metformin
Other uses of metformin:
PCOS
NAFLD
Activates the AMP activated protein kinase (AMPK)
Increases insulin sensitivity
Decreases hepatic gluconeogenesis
GI side effects (can change to modified release if this is the case) - intolerable in 20% of people
Reduced vitamin b12 absorption
Lactic acidosis – this is rare. Occurs in severe liver disease/renal failure
No hypos, no weight gain
CKD – stop metofmrin if creatinine >150 or eGFR <30
Stop metformin if recent AKI, severe dehydration, recent MI (risk of lactic acidosis)
Sulfonylurea
Glomiperide, gliclazide
Increase pancreatic insulin secretion
Hypos
Increased appetite and weight gain
Rarer: SIADH Cholestatic liver dysfunction Peripheral neuropathy BM suppression Avoid in breast feeding and pregnancy Thiazolidinediones Pioglitazone Reduce peripheral insulin resistance Weight gain Liver impairment (LFTs need to be monitored) Fluid retention Bladder cancer Heart failure (due to fluid retention) DPP4-inhibitor Sitagliptin, alogliptin, vildagliptin - oral DPP4 inhibitors inhibit the breakdown of GLP1 (GLP1 = glucagon like peptide 1, it increases insulin secretin and inhibits glucagon secretion) Does not cause weight gain, does not cause hypos
Pancreatitis
SGLT2- inhibitor
Empaglafiozine, dapagliflozin, canagliflozin
Inhibits sodium glucose co-transporter 2 (SGLT2) in the kidney – increases urinary glucose excretion
Risk of DKA – with normal/mildly elevated blood glucose—therefore need to warn patients of symptoms of DKA (e.g. Rapid weight loss, N, V, fast breathing, sleepiness, sweet breath)
Fouriner’s gangrene
If had previous DKA GLP 1 mimetic Exenatide – given Subcut Dulaglutide NICE guidance – used in obese patients only (BMI above 35)
GLP1 is a hormone released by small intestine in response to glucose.
These drugs increase insulin secretion, inhibit glucagon secretion, slow gastric emptying
Weight loss (advantage)
Nausea, vomiting