CE Flashcards

(46 cards)

1
Q

Which of the following specification types allow bidders to suggest products that they believe will meet the requirements of the specifications? Check the three that apply.

a. descriptive specification
b. reference specification
c. outline specification
d. performance specification
e. proprietary specification
f. design narrative

A

A, B, D
____

a. descriptive specification
Correct. Descriptive specifications describe in words the qualities that the architect expects from the product. The contractor can submit any item that meets the description provided by the architect in the specifications.

b. reference specification
Correct. Reference specifications reference a standard that the product must meet in order to be accepted by the architect. These are typically UL or ASTM standards. The contractor can submit any product or material that meets the reference standards outlined by the architect.

c. outline specification
Incorrect. Outline specifications are typically provided at the design development stage, and are not yet complete enough for bidding. They describe the materials, products, and systems to be used in the project, but are not yet developed in sufficient detail for bidding purposes.

d. performance specification
Correct. Performance specifications list performance requirements that a product must meet in order to be accepted by the architect. The contractor can submit any item that meets the performance criteria.

e. proprietary specification
Incorrect. Proprietary specifications list a specific manufacturer and model number of a product to be used, and this is the only item that the architect will accept for that portion of the work. Proprietary specifications are closed specifications.

f. design narrative
Incorrect. Narrative specifications are often used at the schematic design level, and simply describe the major materials and systems to be included in the project. They do not contain sufficient detail for bidding purposes.

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2
Q

A client has retained an architecture firm for design and construction administration services for a new daycare facility. During predesign conversations, the client asks the project architect for recommendations for the project delivery method. After discussing the options, the architect and client agree that design-negotiate-build is the best option for the project.

Which of the following is a characteristic of design-negotiate-build?

a. DD are not fully completed when given to contractors.
b. proposals are requested from the potential contractors
c. contractors typically inflate fees in anticipation of negotiating a lower-cost
d. this delivery method is commonly used on public projects

A

B
___

a. DD are not fully completed when given to contractors.
Incorrect. The drawings are priced after the construction documents are completed, thus allowing for a complete bid.

b. proposals are requested from the potential contractors
Correct. In the design-negotiate-build method, the architect will provide design and contract documents to the owner, but instead of continuing with the traditional method of soliciting bids on the project, the owner will then request proposals from contractors and may negotiate fees and construction costs with one or more contractors.

c. contractors typically inflate fees in anticipation of negotiating a lower-cost
Incorrect. There is no data to suggest price inflation occurs due to the use of the design-negotiate-build bidding procedure.

d. this delivery method is commonly used on public projects
Incorrect. Public projects are projects funded by the government, and they must adhere to strict guidelines to ensure fair contracts and business practices. Public projects typically do not allow design-negotiate-build as a bidding option.

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3
Q

Which of the following delivery methods should the architect recommend in order to accomplish the owner’s goal of a high quality project?

a. Cost plus fixed fee
b. Design-bid-build
c. Design-build
d. Design-negotiate-build

A

D
___

a. Cost plus fixed fee
Incorrect. The primary factor for this method would be the scope of the work. The contractor is selected at the completion of the contract documents, but the scope of work is unknown due to factors such as existing conditions.

b. Design-bid-build
Incorrect. The primary factor to choose this method would be cost. The owner bids the work out to multiple contractors in order to create a more competitive bidding environment. After receiving the bids, the owner will typically select the lowest bidder.

c. Design-build
Incorrect. The primary factor with this method would be risk. The owner holds one contract with both the architect and contractor. This reduces the owner’s risk because there is only one entity responsible for the entire project.

d. Design-negotiate-build
Correct. A major factor for selecting this method is quality. The owner gets to hand pick which contractor they would like to work with and negotiate the cost of working with them, as opposed to bidding the work out and selecting the lowest bidder.

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4
Q

A project is undergoing value analysis (also known as value engineering) just before construction is to begin.

What is the fundamental goal of this process?

a. Achieve the required performance at the lowest cost
b. Verify that the project budget is adequate
c. decrease the overall cost of the project
d. identify possible material substitutions

A

A
___

a. Achieve the required performance at the lowest cost
Correct. Ideally, the goal of the value analysis or value engineering process is to find materials or systems of higher quality at the same cost, or to find materials and systems of equal quality at a lower cost.

b. Verify that the project budget is adequate
Incorrect. Verifying that the budget is adequate is a task that should be done during the initial planning stages of the project, not as a construction phase task.

c. decrease the overall cost of the project
Incorrect. This may seem like the correct answer but the reality is that a product with a lower cost is usually also a product of lower quality. In other words, you get what you pay for. The goal of value engineering is to increase value, NOT simply cut costs.

d. identify possible material substitutions
Incorrect. Material substitutions are part of the value analysis process, but this is not the fundamental goal of the process. Sometimes material substitutions decrease the quality without even reducing the cost, thereby decreasing the overall value for the client.

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5
Q

An architect is preparing a life cycle cost analysis for a project. The cost for water is $1,200 per month, the cost for energy is $1,500 per month, and the cost for internet, TV, and phone is $300 per month total. The life cycle cost is to be analyzed for a 30-year period.

Ignoring any utility cost increases, what is the projected life cycle cost of the utilities for the building?

a. $1,080,000
b. $36,000
c. $1,296,000
d. $90,000

A

A
___

a. $1,080,000
Correct. First, determine the utility costs per year:

Water = $1200 per month x 12 months = $14,400
Energy = $1500 per month x 12 months = $18,000
Internet/TV/phone = $300 x 12 months = $3,600
Next, determine the total utility cost per year:

$14,400 + $18,000 + $3,600 = $36,000 per year
Lastly, determine the cost over 30 years:

$36,000 x 30 = $1,080,000
__________

b. $36,000
Incorrect. This is the utility cost per year.

___________

c. $1,296,000
Incorrect. This is the answer you’d arrive at if you considered the cost for internet, TV, and phone as $300 per month each, not the total.

_____________

d. $90,000
Incorrect. The costs provided are per month - this is the answer you’d arrive at if you didn’t annualize the costs before considering them over a 30 year period.

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6
Q

An architect is preparing the agenda for a preconstruction conference.

What item should the architect include on the agenda?

a. Explain unique project design features
b. Establish procedures for RFIs
c. Outline expectations for consultant services during the construction phase

A

B
_______

a. Explain unique project design features
Incorrect. The preconstruction conference is for establishing administrative procedures during construction.

b. Establish procedures for RFIs
Correct. Important administrative procedures (such as those for requests for information, or RFIs) should be established at the preconstruction conference. It’s important for the whole project team to be on the same page about all administrative procedures before the project begins, and not to establish these procedures during the course of the project.

c. Outline expectations for consultant services during the construction phase
Incorrect. Consultant services for the construction phase should be discussed at the time the consultant is retained.

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7
Q

When does bidding occur for:

Design-Bid-Build
Multiple Prime Contractors
Design-Negotiate-Build
CM as Constructor
Design-Build
Bridged Design-Build
Integrated Project Delivery

A

Design-Bid-Build: Bidding occurs after 100% CDs

Multiple Prime Contractors: Bidding occurs after 100% CDs

Design-Negotiate-Build: Bidding occurs after 100% CDs

CM as Constructor: No biding occurs because only one CM is chosen. Pricing, specifically a GMP for this project, is done after 100% DD

Design-Build: No bidding occurs; the owner negotiates the price with the DB entity at the very start of the project

Bridged Design-Build: No bidding occurs; the owner negotiates a price with the DB entity after 100% SDs

Integrated Project Delivery: No bidding, because it’s a group coming together and self-organizing to form a new entity with a contractor already part of that

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8
Q

What documents are included in the bid package?

A
  1. Contract Documents (CDs) - the graphic illustrations of the work
  2. Project Manual - contains all written instructions for a bidding or negotiating and completion of a project. This includes the PROPOSED A101 owner-contractor agreement and A201 general conditions.

It also includes any supplementary conditions to the contract. Supplementary conditions offer a way to alter the terms of A201 without altering the document itself. This makes it easier to keep track of changes to a contract bc of the separate document

  1. A701 Instructions to the bidders - this explains what the owner and architect will consider a responsive bid (like the deadline, process for submitting RFIs, bond requirements, insurance requirements).
  2. A305 Contractors Qualifications Statements - a form where contractors provide info such as their staffing capabilities, financial capacity, past project history
  3. Bid Form - created by the owner and architect for the bidders to fill out so that it’s done so in a standardized way that makes it easier to compare bids with one another
  4. specifications - written explanation of items to be included in the project, as well as their performance requirements, tests to be performed, material handling requirements, installation requirements. They’re typically formatted in MasterSpec format, which is helpful bc it’s a universal organizational style.

____

***7. Addenda - They are not part of the initially submitted bidding documents, BUT if any are issued during the bidding process, they are appended to the bidding documents. Addenda may be issued as a response to a bidder’s RFI, or as an owner/architect initiated change to the bidding documents.

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9
Q

What’s the difference between CONSTRUCTION documents and CONTRACT documents?

A

Construction documents - referring to the drawings and specifications

________

Contract documents - include construction documents and any other documents that are part of the contract (like agreements between the owner, architect, contractor, and general conditions)

The contract documents consist of everything that’s a part of the contract between the owner and the contractor including:
The contract itself, like the A101
The general conditions A201
Supplemental conditions
Architect’s drawings
Specifications
Contract forms
Project manual

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10
Q

What is a specification?

What is the difference between a proprietary specification (or closed specification) vs. an open specification.

For the 3 types of OPEN specifications, describe the difference:
1. Descriptive Specification
2. Performance Specification
3. Reference Specification

A

What is a specification?

A specification is a written explanation of items to be included in the project, as well as their performance requirements, tests to be performed, material handling requirements, installation requirements. They’re typically formatted in MasterSpec format, which is helpful bc it’s a universal organizational style.
__________

What is the difference between a proprietary specification (or closed specification) vs. an open specification.

Closed specifications are when the owner or architect has a very specific type of item or material they are spec’ing, and substitutions or alternates are not permitted by the contractor when they are bidding on and building the project. Closed specs are not allowed on publicly funded projects bc they can be seen as providing favoritism in certain manufacturers. An example is if the owner or architect will only accept a very specific type of roof material or floor tile or stove, in which case the architect or owner needs to list the exact manufacturer and product name they require.

Open specifications are a way for allowing bidders to provide alternatives to what was spec’ed. It allows bidders to propose products that they’re most familiar with installing, and can obtain at the best price possible. Open specifications promote lower prices, while closed specifications ensure that the owner will receive an exact product in each bid

_______

For the 3 types of OPEN specifications, describe the difference:

  1. Descriptive Specification
    if the owner and architect don’t require an exact product, the architect can prepare a specification such as a standing seam metal roof with 16 inch panel width, painted black. And that description is the only part they care about, which one the contractor chooses doesn’t matter so long as it meets that description.
  2. Performance Specification
    This describes the performance criteria the product should meet. Often used for exterior wall components and roofing membranes where the performance is super important and aesthetics are secondary or not relevant bc the item will be hidden. Ie. the architect might specify that the roofing material must meet certain criteria such as wind uplift, deflection limits, and air leakage through joints.
  3. Reference Specification
    This type of spec provides criteria as established in a REFERENCE standard, such as the American National Standards Institute (ANSI), or The American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM), or Underwriters Laboratory (UL). Reference specs typically describe the performnce desired, such as wind uplift allowed should be Class 90 per UL 580. It’s important to note that the type of specification used will affect the bidding process.
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11
Q

Describe the difference between the process of analyzing publicly vs privately funded projects.

Consider:
Open vs closed bidding
Specific protocol followed for each
How is the winning bidder decided?

A

PUBLICLY FUNDED PROJECTS:

  • done via open bidding (aka anyone can submit a bid)
  • bids are all public record. When bids are received, they are stamped with a date and time. No late bids accepted. Bids are opened one by one at the same time and read aloud to ensure the bidding process is open and transparent.
  • the LOWEST RESPONSIVE / RESPONSIBLE BIDDER is awarded the project
  • **some jurisdiction may allow the client to make a VALUE-BASED SELECTION (VBS), which allows a client to consider criteria other than the price, such as a quality of workmanship, the proposed schedule, craftsmanship, financial health, past performance, staffing. Another way of thinking about VBS is when you select a contractor based on anything besides cost.

________

PRIVATELY FUNDED PROJECTS:

  • done via closed bidding (aka only invited bidders can bid)
  • bids are not required to be made available to the public, and there is no rigorous standard by which the bids must be opened, though late bids are also not considered.
  • Uses QUALIFICATION-BASED SELECTION (QBS) to choose the winning bidder out of the pre-qualified selection
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12
Q

During the bidding process, how do Requests for Information (RFIs) work?

What about substitution requests?

Or value engineering requests?

A

RFIs DURING BIDDING:
They are used when a contractor has questions about items in the bidding documents.

Answer responses to questions from one bidder goes out to ALL bidders so that everyone is working from the same information

If the response to an RFI requires the architect to issue an addendum, all bidders should receive the addenda. Sketches to clarify a condition are an example of what would get issued in an addenda

______

SUSTITUTION REQUESTS DURING BIDDING:

A lot of information is typically required for a substitution request to be consider, such as samples, test data, reasons why the specified product cannot be provided, and so on

All responses to substitution requests should be issued as addenda, regardless of whether the architect accepts or rejects the request

______

VALUE ENGINEERING DURING BIDDING:

Since bidding requirements are typically less structured in privately funded projects, owners often entertain value engineering options that are suggested by bidders. These are typically sent along to the architect for their review as substitution requests
It is important for the architect to review a life cycle cost analysis for items suggested as value engineering alternatives. Often a product with lower upfront cost will perform worse (not last as long, require more maintenance, have shorter warranty, etc) than the item that the architect originally specified in their basis of design

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13
Q

What’s a Project Authority Matrix and when should you introduce one to a project?

What does the Matrix look like for DBB?

A

A Project Authority Matrix outlines which party has authority over each item in a 1 page concise document. It’s good to send this out to the team so that it can be reviewed at the preconstruction conference.

For DBB the Authority Matrix says:
- Contractor responsible for work conformance, project schedule, submittals
- Owner responsible for schedule and work conformance
- Owner is only party listed who has authority to accept nonconforming work
- Architect responsible for the schedule and project budget up to the point when construction begins, after which these two crucial elements shift to eh contractor’s responsibility
- During construction, the architect is responsible for evaluating the work, advising the owner, reviewing pay apps and submittals, issuing a certificate of substantial completion, and any other outlined contracts
-Subcontractors only talk to contractor
-All communication with consultants goes through the architect
-The owner and contractor only talked to each other through or in conjunction with the architect

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14
Q

What are vs. are NOT the architects responsibilities during CA?

A

RESPONSIBILTIIES:
-Observe the work
-Review submittals to make sure they are consistent with the CDs

____

NOT RESPONSIBILTIIES:
-Means and methods, we don’t tell the contractor how to do what they do, that’s up to them
-We do not do inspections, we just observe the work (nomenclature is important)
-Not responsible for confirming quantities nor all dimensions (you can provide a dim if you’re asked for one but we’re not looking for shop drawings, we are looking and verifying all dimensions that are given to us in shop drawings.
-We are not responsible for site safety (falls only on contractor)
-Not responsible for maintaining project construction schedule (falls on contractor during construction)
- not responsible for the failure of the contractor to perform the work in accordance with the CDs

-Site visits are not meant to be exhaustive nor to catch all mistakes being made by the contractor bc this would put an enormous burden on the architect and it would be impossible for the architect to perform under this standard. Instead, the architect shall visit the site at intervals “appropriate to the state of construction or as otherwise required” where the architect specifies a maximum number of site visits they’ve accounted for in their fee

The architect’s role is to keep the owner informed about the progress and quality of the work completed and report to the owner known deviations from the contractor documents and schedule as well as defects and deficiencies in the work

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15
Q

What are the 3 main types of construction meetings and describe each?

A
  1. Preconstruction Conference

The purpose of the preconstruction conference is to make sure all the parties are clear on who’s doing what and when. The attendees include the owner, architect, contractor, perhaps some consultants, a CM if there is one, sometimes a representative from the AHJ.

This meeting is usually conducted by the architect, who is responsible for scheduling the location, addenda, and providing an agenda in advance. Any documents to be discussed should be shared in advance, including ones from the contractor?:
- submittal schedule
- schedule of values
- list of subcontractors and vendors

COMMON AGENDA ITEMS FOR THE PRECONSTRUCTION CONFERENCE:

  1. Administrative Procedures Processes - which include submittal and RFI procedures. It’s crucial that the contractor understands the contractual amount of time that the architect has to review submittals and RFIs. USUALLY 10 business days is included in the owner-architect agreement for submittals. USUALLY 3-5 business days is included in the owner-architect agreement for RFIs.
  2. Submittal Schedule - should be reviewed to ensure that the submittals allow appropriate review time, allow for revisions as necessary, and are not all submitted around the same time.

It’s common for subcontractors to be required to provide the contractor with all their projects submittals within 30 days of signing their contract. If the contractor hires a few subcontractors around the same time, they may be tempted to dump a huge number of submittals on the architect’s desk for their review. It would be more appropriate to space the submittals out in order of priority so that the architect can review each diligently and return them before the next ones become overdue

  1. G702 Applications for Payment
    -There are a number of steps that need to occur before payment goes from owner to contractor
    -The team should discuss when the draft payment application will be submitted, how long the architect has to review the application, which is typically 7 calendar days, and when it should be paid by the owner
    -The team should discuss a regular payment schedule of payment applications, which is typically monthly
  2. G703 Schedule of Values
    -Breaks down the scope of work into portions that the team can easily track progress against
    For ex. a 1 million dollar project budget might have a concrete foundation, and in the SOV it would allocate a portion of the million towards the concrete, say 100k
    It’s much easier to know how much to pay the contractor when the concrete is 25% complete (simply multiply 25% by $100k)
  3. Review the list of subcontractors and suppliers

6.Review sustainability requirements, such as LEED

  1. Review the architect’s schedule for site observations

Review any mockups are that may be required and their schedules
Review owner requirements for site signage
Review any early occupancy plans from the owner
Review team members roles and responsibilities using project authority matrix

__________

  1. Regular progress meetings

OAC meeting (Owner, architect, contractor) mtg
Regular process meetings, called owner-architect-contractor, or OAC meetings, happen throughout construction
At pre construction meeting you discuss how frequently the OAC meetings occur, typically weekly.

_______

  1. Pre-installation meetings
  • Meetings that take place between the project team at the construction site before a specific product or assembly is installed to make sure that everyone is on the same pace
  • The specifications should indicate which items require a pre-installation mtg
  • Before the contractor proceeds with the work, the architect writes the procedure for conducting pre-installation meetings into division 1 of the specifications, which typically notes that the contractor should schedule pre-installation meetings for each construction activity that affects other work, as well as for materials or systems that specifically require a pre-installation meeting per their individual specification sections
  • Pre installation meetings might only be between contractors and their subcontractors, but the owner and architect might choose to attend some of the more significant pre-installation meetings, such as an exterior wall
  • Regardless, the contractor should produce and distribute meeting minutes to the project team
  • Ex of a product that would require a pre-installation meeting could be carpet or flooring in general. Often they will start with a dry lay, then you come out and approve it
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16
Q

What is the gist of what A101 and A201 describe?

A

A101 is used to describe the project info, such as:
- a list of contract documents,
- critical start and end date,
- the contract sum,
- dispute resolution methods.

A201 contains the bulk of the clauses that will govern the project team’s actions during the construction phase, and it’s referenced in both A101 and B101

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17
Q

Why should the architect care about the A101 and A201 agreements that the architect is not partied to?

A

Even though the architect is not party to the owner-contractor agreement, they have a vested interest in it

The very first sentence in B101 describes the architect’s duties during CA and notes that the architect is responsible to provide administration of the contract between the owner and contractor, and in order to properly perform this task, you need to know what’s contained in that agreement and ideally be involved in its creation in order to address potential issues later on in construction

The architect should ensure that the Owner-Contractor Agreement is consistent with the CDs prepared by the architect, as well as with the B101, B101 typically incorporates by reference A201, the General Conditions

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18
Q

What in the B101 protects the architect?

A

It’s useful to note that B101 protects the architect from any oversight that might occur. It states in Section 3.6.1.1 that if the owner and contractor modify A201, those modifications won’t affect the architect’s services, unless B101 is also amended. It’s best not to rely on this clause but to rather be proactive in seeking any conflicting clauses between A101, B101, A201 and amending them before they become problematic.

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19
Q

What is the architect’s role when doing site visits?

A

Architects are responsible for:
-As noted in the A201, the purpose of site visits is to ensure that, in general, the work observed is being performed in a manner indicating that the work, when fully completed, will be in accordance with the contract documents.

This is an important clause because it implies that the architect is performing a limited, non-exhaustive review of the work and is not responsible for means and methods.

___

The architect is NOT responsible for:

-Means and methods, we don’t tell the contractor how to do what they do, that’s up to them
-We do not do inspections, we just observe the work (nomenclature is important)
-Not responsible for confirming quantities nor all dimensions (you can provide a dim if you’re asked for one but we’re not looking for shop drawings, we are looking and verifying all dimensions that are given to us in shop drawings.
-We are not responsible for site safety (falls only on contractor)
-Not responsible for maintaining project schedule (falls on contractor during construction)

20
Q

During construction, if conflicts occur an Initial Decision Maker (IDM) is used. Describe who is usually assigned this role, and what it entails.

A

In order to expedite conflict resolution, an Initial Decision Maker (IDM) is selected to give their impartial opinion on conflicts that arise during construction

Using the IDM is the first step in the conflict resolution before more binding measure occur

Per b101, the architect should act as the IDM, unless otherwise decided upon in the owner-contractor agreement.

The role of the IDM, outlined in A201, states that the IDM shall render a response to a claim within 10 days after receipt, and gives guidelines as to what types of responses they can provide.

B101 lists assisting another IDM as well as evaluating an extensive number of claims as IDM as additional services

21
Q

Before the owner-contractor agreement is signed, the contractor should provide to the team proof of what documents?

A

The contractor needs to provide proof of insurances, bonds, compliances with any required licensing laws, and perhaps, compliance with equal opportunity laws, if the project is publicly funded.

22
Q

What is the Notice to Proceed? Who issues it and when?

A

The Notice to Proceed is a formal letter, informing the contractor to begin work. A101 says that the date of commencement of the work may be established in a Notice to Proceed. Otherwise, it’s simply noted in the A101. It’s issued after the owner-contractor agreement is signed and the contractor provides proof of insurance, bonds, compliance with licensing laws, etc.

*The architect may submit the Notice to Proceed to the contractor at the owner’s direction, but it’s important for the architect to carefully craft the language so as not to insinuate that the architect is the one directing the work. They can say something like, “I have been directed by the owner of the project to “issue this Notice to Proceed.”

23
Q

An architect is assisting their client in determining which type of bidding process is most appropriate for their project. The client wishes to encourage competitive bidding and is seeking to hire the qualified bidder with the lowest price.

Which type of bidding should the architect recommend?

a. Invitation only
b. Qualification-based selection (QBS)
c. Value–based selection (VBS)
d. Open bidding

A

a. Invitation only
Incorrect. This would not allow for the most competition between bidders because only those who are invited to bid will do so.

b. Qualification-based selection (QBS)
Incorrect. QBS encourages the client to select a contractor based solely on their qualifications. This will not necessarily result in hiring the lowest bidding contractor who is qualified, which is what this particular client wishes to do.

c. Value–based selection (VBS)
Incorrect. VBS is often used by public clients who wish to consider other, more subjective criteria (other than price) when selecting a contractor. VBS uses a rigid structure to assign values to such criteria so that it is fair to all bidders.

d. Open bidding
Correct. With open bidding, any contractor who thinks that they are qualified can submit a bid for the work. The architect and client then review each contractor’s qualifications to ensure that they are well suited to perform the job. The client can then select the lowest bidder who is qualified to do the job.

24
Q

A 50,000-square-foot mixed-use project is proceeding under the standard suite of AIA documents. The documents assign the duty of initial decision maker (IDM) to the architect.

Why is there a provision for an IDM in the contract documents?

a. to prevent disputes that slow down the construction process and turn into claims
b. to allow the architect to ensure that the design intent is met
c. to allow the architect to decide which arguing party is correct
d. to decrease the strength of the contractor’s position during disputes with the owner

A

A
_______

a. to prevent disputes that slow down the construction process and turn into claims
Correct. The role of the IDM is to provide simple and quick resolutions between the owner and contractor as they arise in order to keep construction moving and avoid more expensive and time-consuming dispute resolution methods such as mediation or arbitration.

b. to allow the architect to ensure that the design intent is met
Incorrect. The IDM process is a way to resolve disagreements between the owner and the contractor and should not be used to protect the architect’s design intent.

c. to allow the architect to decide which arguing party is correct
Incorrect. The architect must endeavor to provide an evenhanded solution, even when their own interests or their client’s interests are involved.

d. to decrease the strength of the contractor’s position during disputes with the owner
Incorrect. All judgments by the IDM should be administered fairly. If the IDM is unable to deliver a fair judgment, the parties may have to move on to other dispute resolution methods such as mediation or arbitration.

25
An architect is working on a library project that is under construction. The contractor notices that a sum of money has been withheld by the owner from the current progress payment and asks about the purpose of the withholding. What is this withheld sum of money called? a. payment bond b. taxes c. permit fees d. retainage
D ____ a. payment bond Incorrect. A payment bond would not be withheld from a progress payment. A payment bond is a bond which the contractor and the contractor’s surety guarantee to the owner that the contractor will pay for the labor and materials furnished for use in the performance of the contract. Persons entitled to the benefits of the bond are defined as claimants in the bond. A payment bond is sometimes referred to as a labor and material payment bond. If required, bonds would be determined during the bidding process and outlined in the contract. b. taxes Incorrect. Taxes would not be withheld by the owner from a progress payment. The contractor needs to properly file taxes for their business each year, and the appropriate amount would need to be reserved for this in-house. c. permit fees Incorrect. Fees for permitting would not be withheld from a progress payment, and would not necessarily be included on an application for payment. The owner would typically pay these fees directly. d. retainage Correct. Retainage is some percentage of the value of the work completed that may be deducted from the amount of each progress payment. This amount provides additional assurance that the work can be completed for the unpaid contract amount, and thus protects the owner. The amount of retainage may vary by project type and may be governed by state law. The amount of retainage and details for any reduction or release of retainage funds must be spelled out in the contract.
26
Construction is beginning on a small 500-square-foot coffee shop in Seattle, Washington. A design-build firm has permitted drawings for the project and is acting as the construction manager and constructor for the project. Which one of the following factors would have a major impact on construction management services? a. A specified paint manufacturer has gone out of business b. The outlet covers for the kitchen are on backorder c. The electrical engineer is two weeks behind schedule
C _______ a. A specified paint manufacturer has gone out of business Incorrect. This is a typical scenario in which the construction manager would submit a substitution request to replace the paint. Because the construction manager is part of the design-build firm that designed the building, this process will likely be expedited, causing little to no impact on the construction services or schedule. b. The outlet covers for the kitchen are on backorder Incorrect. Because construction is just beginning on the project, reordering outlet covers should be a fairly simple task, as many vendors provide outlet covers and the covers will be installed late in the construction schedule. Furthermore, because the outlets are not customer-facing, the contractor can install temporary outlet covers if needed and then replace the outlets with the correct covers when they arrive, without harming the design intent of the space. c. The electrical engineer is two weeks behind schedule Correct. The order of operations when finishing a space is crucial to proper completion. The electrical engineer must perform their services before the closing of the walls, which is followed by mudding and taping the walls and adding wall and floor finishes. If the electrical engineer is two weeks behind schedule on such a small project, the construction timeline will be greatly affected.
27
An architect observes nonconforming fire-stopping at the construction site while on a routine site visit. The architect rejects the work. Based on AIA A201-2017, how should the costs to correct the work be handled? a. The architect issues a change order b. The contractor absorbs the cost c. The owner initially pays and then bills the contractor for reimbursement d. The contractor draws money from the contingency fund
B _____ a. The architect issues a change order Incorrect. The cost to correct nonconforming work shall be at the expense of the contractor. b. The contractor absorbs the cost Correct. According to AIA A201-2017 section 12.2.1, the contractor shall promptly correct work that fails to conform to the contract documents. The cost to do so shall be at the contractor's expense. c. The owner initially pays and then bills the contractor for reimbursement Incorrect. The cost to correct nonconforming work shall be at the expense of the contractor. d. The contractor draws money from the contingency fund Incorrect. The cost to correct nonconforming work shall be at the expense of the contractor. The contingency fund is for unknowns.
28
A revision is made to a contract that changes $1500 to $1200 in the following sentence: "Liquidated damages shall be $1200 per consecutive calendar day beyond Date of Substantial Completion" Which of the following parties may be negatively affected by the revisions to the liquidated damages amount? a. Owner b. Contractor c. AHJ d. Architect
A ____ a. Owner Correct. The original liquidated damages clause requires the contractor to pay $1,500 for every day beyond the date of substantial completion, and $2,000 for every day that they miss the date of final completion. The contractor has modified the clause from $1,500 to $1,200 per day beyond the date of substantial completion. This would to be to the owner's detriment. b. Contractor Incorrect. Based on the modifications to the liquidated damages clause, the contractor would be required to pay $300 less per day beyond the date of substantial completion. It would be to the contractor's benefit to pay a lower penalty per day if they deliver the project later than agreed. c. AHJ Incorrect. The AHJ is not legally bound to a completion date by the AIA A101 document; however, they are responsible for issuing a certificate of completion (CO) or a temporary certificate of completion (TCO). Both the CO and TCO will play a role in the delivery of the project to the owner. d. Architect Incorrect. Since the liquidated damages clause is meant to penalize the contractor for a late delivery of the project, the architect would not be involved in this clause.
29
A construction agreement is structured as a cost-plus contract. What is another name for a cost-plus contract? a. GMP b. Stipulated Sum c. Time and materials d. Unit price
C ____ a. GMP Incorrect. Guaranteed maximum price is a variation on cost-plus where the contractor takes on the risk of providing a maximum sum for the cost of the work. b. Stipulated Sum Incorrect. Stipulated sum is the same as lump sum and fixed fee. A stipulated sum contract is often used when the project is competitively bid. c. Time and materials Correct. Cost-plus means the owner pays the contractor to complete the work plus a fee for overhead and profit. Cost-plus is also known as time and materials (T and M). d. Unit price Incorrect. Unit pricing is when a contractor is paid per a specified unit. Unit pricing is used when there are unknown quantities. For example, a common use for unit pricing is earthwork.
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During the preconstruction phase for a privately funded hotel, the owner has received several statements of qualifications from prospective contractors. Which of the following criteria should the owner use to qualify the potential contractors? Check the three that apply. a. Public projects experience b. company's market value c. insurability d. required bond security e. change order history f. financial capacity
C, D, F ______ a. Public projects experience Incorrect. Since this is a privately funded job, this would have no bearing on the selection of the contractor. b. company's market value Incorrect. The company's market value would only need to be known if the company was being sold. c. insurability Correct. The insurability of the contractor is an important item to review while prequalifying bidders. Insurance information is provided by bidders in Exhibit C of AIA A305. d. required bond security Correct. The bond security will financially protect the owner if the contractor fails to uphold their end of the agreement. If the contractor can't secure the required bonding capacity, then the owner could potentially be at risk for completing the job. Bond security is addressed in Exhibit C of AIA A305. e. change order history Incorrect. Change orders are unique to a project, and they could come from the owner, architect, or contractor; this would not be relevant to the selection of the contractor. f. financial capacity Correct. Since the contractor will be paying for all of the materials up front, they will need to have a strong financial capacity in order to float themselves until the application for payment is approved and paid out. Financial capacity is the focus of Exhibit B of AIA A305.
31
An architect is working on a 15,000-square-foot office building, and the owner has requested a life cycle cost analysis. Which of the following are included in a life cycle cost analysis? Check the four that apply. a. Maintenance and service expenses b. Property value increase c. Rental income d. Utility costs e. System replacement expenses f. Initial costs
A, D, E, F _____ a. Maintenance and service expenses Correct. Typically, a life cycle cost analysis is comprised of initial costs, utility costs, maintenance and service costs, and system replacement costs, studied over a 30-year period. Maintenance and service costs include non-utility operating costs, and maintenance and repair costs. These are typically more difficult to estimate than other building expenditures, but there are published estimating tools available to use as a reference. b. Property value increase Incorrect. The anticipated property value of the building is typically not included in a life cycle cost analysis. c. Rental income Incorrect. Any money made from the building occupation is considered profit and is typically not included in the life cycle cost analysis. An owner could use profit to fund building operation, but funding sources are also not typically included in the analysis. d. Utility costs Correct. Typically, a life cycle cost analysis is comprised of initial costs, utility costs, maintenance and service costs, and system replacement costs, studied over a 30-year period. Utility costs include energy, water, TV/internet/phone, and any other utility that would be paid regularly throughout the life of the building. e. System replacement expenses Correct. Typically, a life cycle cost analysis is comprised of initial costs, utility costs, maintenance and service costs, and system replacement costs, studied over a 30-year period. System replacement costs include the number and timing of capital replacements of building systems, which depend on the estimated life of the systems and the length of the study period. f. Initial costs Correct. A life cycle cost analysis is the process of evaluating the economic performance of a building over its entire life, with the aim of balancing initial monetary investment with the long-term expense of owning and operating the building. Typically, a life cycle cost analysis is comprised of initial costs, utility costs, maintenance and service costs, and system replacement costs, studied over a 30-year period. By comparing the life cycle costs of various design configurations, this analysis can explore trade-offs between low initial costs and long-term cost savings, identify the most cost-effective system for a given use, and determine how long it will take for a specific system to pay back its cost. Typically, a life cycle cost analysis focuses on features and systems most likely to impact long-term costs. Initial costs include construction costs and fees, land acquisition, permits, design fees, etc.
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An architect is preparing a proposed agenda for a preconstruction conference with the owner and contractor. The chosen project delivery method is design-bid-build. Which of the following should be included in the agenda? Check the four that apply. a. Separate contracts by owner b. Finalization of owner-contractor agreement c. Payment application procedure d. Scheduling of site observations e. Value engineering f. Submittal schedule
A, C, D, F _______ a. Separate contracts by owner Correct. Typically, the owner will contract with additional parties other than the contractor to perform portions of the work (for example, an artistic mural, or furniture placement). It is important that the contractor is apprised of the scope of these contracts, their proposed schedules, etc. It is also important for the architect to understand who is performing various portions of the work. b. Finalization of owner-contractor agreement Incorrect. The pre-construction conference should be held once a contractor is selected and is contracted to perform the work. The owner-contractor agreement should be finalized prior to this meeting. c. Payment application procedure Correct. It is important that the owner and architect understand when the contractor plans on submitting payment applications, so that time can be allotted to review them. Ideally the payment applications will be submitted on a regular schedule (typically monthly, on the same date each month). d. Scheduling of site observations Correct. Regularly scheduled site observations should be discussed and planned at an interval that is consistent with the owner-architect agreement. e. Value engineering Incorrect. While value engineering is a valid topic for discussion, it is not part of a preconstruction meeting and likely warrants its own separate meeting. f. Submittal schedule Correct. It is important that all parties are in agreement on the submittal schedule, so that the architect can appropriately staff the project in accordance with the amount of submittals that are being submitted at various times in the project schedule.
33
An architect is helping a client to prepare an owner-contractor agreement using the AIA A101 Standard Form of Agreement Between Owner and Contractor. The selected delivery method is design-bid-build and the client would like to stipulate a guaranteed maximum price (GMP). The owner is open to the submittal of alternates. Where should alternates to be included within the GMP be indicated? a. the contract documents b. the contract sum c. miscellaneous provisions d. enumeration of contract documents e. insurance and bonds
B (contract sum) ____ The AIA A101 Standard Form of Agreement Between Owner and Contractor is structured so that any alternates included within the contract sum should be enumerated in Article 4, Section 4.2.1.
34
An owner has asked their architect what constitutes the official start of the construction work. According to AIA A201, which of the following could constitute the official start of the construction work? a. Land disturbance permit b. Notice to proceed c. Building permit d. Notice of commencement
B ___ a. Land disturbance permit Incorrect. This permit is required by the authority having jurisdiction (AHJ) for the contractor to begin working on the site work, but does not allow any work to begin on the buildings. Even if this permit is obtained, the contractor is not released to start the work until the owner issues a notice to proceed. b. Notice to proceed Correct. Construction typically starts with the notice to proceed, which is the owner's written authorization, usually given in letter format. This letter is typically sent by the owner as the architect does not have the authority to direct the work to proceed. c. Building permit Incorrect. This permit is required by the authority having jurisdiction (AHJ) for the contractor to begin working on the building, and is usually preceded by a land disturbance permit. Even if this permit is obtained, the contractor is not released to start the work until the owner issues a notice to proceed. d. Notice of commencement Incorrect. The notice of commencement is sometimes required at the state level in regard to filing a mechanic's lien. The state uses this date as the official start of the project. The mechanic's lien deadline is then measured off of this date.
35
An architect is working on a 25,000-square-foot mixed-use project with a cafe and coffee bar on the ground level and condominium apartments above. During the bidding phase, four bids are received from invited contractors. What is the next step for the architect to complete in order to review and evaluate the bids? a. Create a comparative spreadsheet b. Select a contractor and notify them c. Call each contractor for an interview d. Send letters thanking the contractors for their bids
A ____ a. Create a comparative spreadsheet Correct. This is the next step that should be taken. The architect can aid the owner in evaluating the bids by creating a comparison spreadsheet of the bids and comparing each cost breakdown by division. The bids can be compared line by line, and items that seem high and low can be discovered. b. Select a contractor and notify them Incorrect. The owner selects the contractor. The architect can advise, but should not make the decision. This is not the logical next step either, as the architect must review and compare the bids before a selection can be made. c. Call each contractor for an interview Incorrect. This would be done after the bids are compared, and the owner would be the one to interview the contractors and set the meetings. d. Send letters thanking the contractors for their bids Incorrect. This is not the next step that the architect should take in order to review and compare the bids. This is also not typical.
36
A project architect and client are engaged in contract negotiations. The project architect has suggested they use the AIA standard forms of agreement for the basis of design. The client is unfamiliar with these contracts and asks why those contracts should be used instead of other standard contracts. Which of the following is a reason to use standard AIA contracts? a. The forms are accepted as-is in all U.S. jurisdictions b. The forms give greater liability protection to the architect c. The forms are all-encompassing for each phase of design and construction d. The forms assist in coordination when using additional AIA forms of agreement
D ____ a. The forms are accepted as-is in all U.S. jurisdictions Incorrect. Many U.S. jurisdictions require specific language or terms which must be updated or added when using the AIA standard forms of agreement. b. The forms give greater liability protection to the architect Incorrect. This is a common misconception about the AIA standard forms of agreement. The forms were created to be unbiased toward any party and to spell out liabilities in a clear, consistent manner throughout the contracts. c. The forms are all-encompassing for each phase of design and construction Incorrect. Because technology is constantly changing and evolving, it is not reasonable to assume that the AIA standard forms of agreement will cover every phase or type of a design and construction project. These forms may be useful in building a foundation for all design and construction projects, but there is no guarantee they will cover every situation. d. The forms assist in coordination when using additional AIA forms of agreement Correct. By using AIA forms as the basis for design throughout a project, the contracts will reference each other and create a set of straightforward, coherent documents, thereby reducing risk for all parties involved on the project.
37
An owner has approached a contractor about taking on a project using the construction manager as constructor (CMc) method. What is the primary motivation for the owner to select this delivery method? a. Reducing risk b. Changing scope of work c. Decreasing cost d. Saving time
D _____ a. Reducing risk Incorrect. The primary concern motivating the selection of the CMc method would be saving time. The project schedule can be streamlined when the CMc acts as both the adviser and constructor. b. Changing scope of work Incorrect. The owner would have selected the cost-plus-fixed-fee method if scope were their primary concern. The cost-plus-fixed-fee method would allow for the project to proceed with an unknown scope of work due to such things as existing conditions. c. Decreasing cost Incorrect. The primary concern motivating the selection of the CMc method would be saving time. The project schedule can be streamlined when the CMc acts as both the adviser and constructor. d. Saving time Correct. The contractor would serve as an adviser on constructability and cost during the design phase, and then transition at a predetermined moment to the traditional role of design-bid-build contractor for the remainder of the project. This would allow for a seamless transition between the design adviser and the constructor, thereby saving time on the overall schedule.
38
A project must be fast-tracked in order to meet the client's aggressive schedule. The client is not experienced with construction projects. The quality of both design and construction are important to the client. What type of construction contract is best for this project? a. design build b. multiple prime contractors c. construction manager d. design bid build
C ____ a. design build Incorrect. While design-build can work well with a fast-tracked schedule, the quality of the design and construction can suffer because the architect works for the contractor, not the owner, and is therefore not able to act in the best interests of the owner. Design-build is popular for projects where value is prioritized. b. multiple prime contractors Incorrect. Multiple prime is a variation on design-bid-build but with multiple general contractors. Multiple prime can work well with fast-tracking, but the job of managing multiple contractors becomes the owner's responsibility, and since this client is inexperienced with construction projects, it is not advisable. c. construction manager Correct. The construction manager can help with coordinating and packaging multiple fast-track bids, allowing the fast-track project to go smoothly. d. design bid build Incorrect. Design-bid-build projects have a linear structure that is hard to coordinate with fast-tracking, unlike hybridized approaches.
39
Bidding has concluded on a small tenant improvement multi-family residential project. The owner has selected a contractor and is preparing the owner-contractor agreement. The owner is not familiar with these types of contracts and has asked their architect to help assist them in preparing the documents. The basis of the contract comes from a standard owner-contractor agreement found online. Which of the following clauses should the architect suggest be removed? a. "The architect will provide as-built drawings of the existing building" b. "This contract shall be used in conjunction with the General Conditions for Construction" c. "The owner shall make progress payments to the contractor as approved by the architect" d. "The contract time begins upon commencement of the Work"
A ____ a. "The architect will provide as-built drawings of the existing building" Correct. The term "as-built" is an example of "absolute language" that should be avoided in contracts. As-built drawings imply that the architect will provide documents that accurately reflect all of the existing conditions, both seen and unseen, which would be above and beyond the typical standard of care. The architect should remove language asking for "as-built" drawings, and instead rephrase it as "record drawings," which leaves room for unseen conditions and/or minor discrepancies in the documents. b. "This contract shall be used in conjunction with the General Conditions for Construction" Incorrect. This is typical language found in most contracts. Coordination between the various contracts on a project is crucial to minimize risk and confusion. c. "The owner shall make progress payments to the contractor as approved by the architect" Incorrect. This is a typical fee process in which the architect acts as a third party to verify that the amount of work being charged reflects the amount of work that has been completed. This helps act as a system of checks and balances between all parties involved in the work. d. "The contract time begins upon commencement of the Work" Incorrect. This is a typical phrase found in AIA documents and other contracts which stipulates when the contract time begins.
40
An employee has recently been promoted and is now responsible for responding to requests for proposal (RFPs) for their firm. Which of the following factors should be reviewed for risk when responding to a request for proposal (RFP)? Check the four that apply. a. AIA affiliation b. Location of the project c. Project type d. Scope of services e. Construction type f. The client
B, C, D, F ____ a. AIA affiliation Incorrect. This is not considered a major factor to review when responding to a request for proposal. b. Location of the project Correct. The architecture firm must consider location when responding to an RFP. Locations in another state or jurisdiction could present licensing issues, and could also raise fees or lower profits due to travel. c. Project type Correct. Part of an architect's ethical duty is to work on project types in which they are experienced. The project type will determine the program and building type, both of which are crucial elements to consider when responding to an RFP. d. Scope of services Correct. The scope of services tells the architect what services they will provide to complete the project. For a larger firm, it may be firm policy not to accept small, unique projects with limited scope due to a perceived lack of value. The firm should be familiar and experienced with the services needed to complete the project. e. Construction type Incorrect. This is not considered a major factor to review when responding to a request for proposal, as owners rarely specify the type of construction required. f. The client Correct. Clientele can present moderate risk on projects. If the architect or firm has previously worked with a client, that risk is lowered. If they have not, important questions to ask include: What is the client's history of claims? What is their experience with projects? What is their experience with construction? Etc.
41
Shortly after construction begins, a client feels the contractor is not managing the work appropriately. The client asks their architect to do more than conduct periodic observations of the construction as agreed to in the owner-architect agreement. The client would like the architect to increase their number of site visits in order to detect all nonconforming work. How should the architect respond? a. Additional site visits can be performed for an additional fee but this does not guarantee all nonconforming work will be detected b. For insurability reasons, the only site visits that the architect should perform are those that are outlined in the owner-architect agreement c. The additional site visits are not needed, as the architect is already obligated to ensure that the work is in compliance at each site visit d. All nonconforming work shall be addressed at substantial and final completion; therefore additional site observations are not needed
A _____ a. Additional site visits can be performed for an additional fee but this does not guarantee all nonconforming work will be detected Correct. The architect shall perform site visits at intervals appropriate to the stage of construction or as stated in the services agreement. Additional visits can be performed but should be billed as a unit cost to the owner. The architect should explain to the owner that increasing the number of site visits will NOT ensure the detection of all nonconforming work. This is because the architect cannot be at the site 100% of the time, controlling the work and observing everything that is happening. The architect is responsible for their job, not the job of the contractor or the construction manager. __________ b. For insurability reasons, the only site visits that the architect should perform are those that are outlined in the owner-architect agreement Incorrect. The architect can add additional site visits but must not increase their risk, which affects insurability, by agreeing to detect all nonconforming work. __________ c. The additional site visits are not needed, as the architect is already obligated to ensure that the work is in compliance at each site visit Incorrect. Ensuring that the work is in compliance with the plans and specifications is outside the architect's standard of care. The architect must make observations appropriate to the stage and circumstances of the construction, but they are not required to perform exhaustive inspections to ensure compliance. The contractor and/or construction managers are expected to perform their jobs to provide construction that is in compliance with the plans and specifications, regardless of whether or not the architect detects nonconforming work. _________ d. All nonconforming work shall be addressed at substantial and final completion; therefore additional site observations are not needed Incorrect. These inspections are limited to what is readily observable or what is shown in test reports. The architect is not responsible for the contractor's failure to complete the project in accordance with the plans and specifications.
42
An architect has prepared a field report which notes that the bathroom tile layout does not match the contract documents. The owner wishes to accept the nonconforming work, and the contractor has just notified the architect that they believe the project will be substantially complete in one week. What course of action should the architect take? a. Require that the nonconforming work is remediated prior to issuing a certificate of substantial completion b. Revise the contract documents to match the field condition prior to issuing the certificate of substantial completion c. Note the nonconforming work as an exception to the certificate of substantial completion d. Issue a letter to the contractor accepting the nonconforming work
C _____ a. Require that the nonconforming work is remediated prior to issuing a certificate of substantial completion Incorrect. The owner may accept nonconforming work, and such acceptance shall not prevent the work from being considered substantially complete. b. Revise the contract documents to match the field condition prior to issuing the certificate of substantial completion Incorrect. The architect should not accept nonconforming work, but the owner may accept it at their discretion. Revising the contract documents to match the nonconforming work could be construed as the architect's acceptance of the work. c. Note the nonconforming work as an exception to the certificate of substantial completion Correct. The architect should keep track of all nonconforming work. At the time of substantial completion, any nonconformnig work that was accepted by the owner should be noted as an exception to the certificate of substantial completion. This protects the architect from liability issues resulting from the nonconforming work in the future. d. Issue a letter to the contractor accepting the nonconforming work Incorrect. The architect should not accept nonconforming work, but the owner may accept it at their discretion. The architect should assist the owner in understanding any implications of accepting the nonconforming work, and should take particular note of whether or not the nonconforming work is a life-safety or quality-of-construction issue.
43
An architect is completing a field report after a site visit of a multi-building campus project. The architect is noting the progress of the masonry and through-wall flashing on the east building. How should the architect record the construction progress on the report? a. Masonry and through-wall flashing on the east building appears as though it will be complete by the end of the week b. Masonry and through-wall flashing is complete c. Masonry and through-wall flashing on the east building appears to be complete d. Masonry and through-wall flashing on the east building is complete
C _______ a. Masonry and through-wall flashing on the east building appears as though it will be complete by the end of the week Incorrect. Field reports should reflect the status of the construction at the time of the visit. b. Masonry and through-wall flashing is complete Incorrect. Since the architect is only reporting on the status of the masonry and through-wall flashing on the east building, this statement should address that. c. Masonry and through-wall flashing on the east building appears to be complete Correct. The architect should only state that the work appears to be complete, to avoid misrepresenting any incomplete work that could have been missed. d. Masonry and through-wall flashing on the east building is complete Incorrect. The architect should only record the observation that the masonry and through-wall flashing appears to be complete. This is to avoid misrepresentation in case the architect missed a portion of the work that is in fact not complete.
44
An architect is reviewing concrete cylinder test reports for a slab at a new six-story building. The test reports indicate that the concrete has achieved a strength of 5,500 psi after 21 days. The specifications require a strength of 5,950 psi after 28 days. How should the architect respond to the test report? a. Accept the test report as within allowable tolerances b. Take no action on the test report c. Reject the test report d. Request a report at 28 days
D _____ a. Accept the test report as within allowable tolerances Incorrect. First, the concrete is not fully cured, so it cannot be determined whether the concrete will meet the design strength until day 28. Second, only the structural engineer should make the determination of whether or not the concrete strength achieved at 28 days is within tolerance, if it has not met the design strength. b. Take no action on the test report Incorrect. Taking no action on the test report is not conducive to a collaborative environment between the design and construction team. The architect should request a report after the concrete has fully cured. c. Reject the test report Incorrect. The specifications require concrete strength to be measured at 28 days, so rejecting this 21-day report because the concrete does not yet meet the required strength would be premature. d. Request a report at 28 days Correct. The concrete is not fully cured at day 21, so the architect should request another report after the 28th day to review the concrete's strength.
45
True or false, mockups can become part of the finished project once they are done serving their mockup purpose.
True
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