Cellular and Molecular Basis

Question 1

What are the the two fluids that make up your body composition?

Answer 1

Intracellular Fluid (ICF)
Extracellular (ECF)

Question 2

What fraction of total body fluid does ICF make up? What fraction does does ECF make up?

Answer 2

ICF - 2/3

ECF - 1/3

Question 3

fluid found inside of cells

Answer 3

ICF

Question 4

fluid found outside of cells (fluid between cells ex: edema and fluid of blood predominantly plasma)

Answer 4

ECF

Question 5

What % of body weight does ECF and ICF make up?

Answer 5

55-65%

Question 6

What is the primary cation of ECF?

Answer 6

sodium

Question 7

What is the primary cation of ICF?

Answer 7

potassium

Question 8

when giving fluids, would you get NaCl or KCl? and why?

Answer 8

We must give sodium chloride when giving fluids bc sodium is the primary EC cation. Don’t give KCL bc could cause arrhythmia bc not use to having high K in ECF

Question 9

What is the primary anion of of ICF?

Answer 9

phosphate

Question 10

What is the primary anion of ECF?

Answer 10

chloride

Question 11

What is critical to maintain the ph of the body?

Answer 11

bicarbonate

Question 12

Which fluid contains the most protein? Are these proteins positively or negatively charged? Why?

Answer 12

ICF

Protein in ppl are negative charge and many drugs are positively charged so can match with protein to inactivate

Question 13

What are the electrolytes found in body fluid?

Answer 13

Anions(-) and cations(+)

Question 14

What is osmolar concentration?

Answer 14

Osmolar Concentration-# of particles found within a solution

Question 15

What is the osmolality formula made up of?

Answer 15

sodium, glucose and blood urea nitrogen(BUN)

Question 16

The osmolality of fluids affects ______ across cell and other semi-permeable membranes. However, biological membranes restrict _____.

Answer 16

water movement ;

particles like Na and K

Question 17

If you stick a cell in a hypertonic solution what will happen?

Answer 17

shrink

Question 18

If you stick a cell in a hypotonic solution what will happen?

Answer 18

swell/burst

Question 19

If you stick a cell in a isotonic solution what will happen?

Answer 19

nothing. stay the same

Question 20

Energy is transferred to coenzyme acceptors such as _____ for use in _______ to generate compounds with high-energy phosphate bonds (ATP, GTP, CoA)

Answer 20

NAD, NADP, FAD;

oxidative phosphorylation

Question 21

What is the ultimate source of energy for biological reactions?

Answer 21

high energy phosphate bonds like ATP, GTP, CoA

Question 22

Where does glycolysis occur and what does it produce? Is oxygen needed?

Answer 22

Glycolysis makes 2 ATP per glucose and occurs in the cytoplasm; doesn’t need mitochondria or oxygen for this process

Question 23

Where does the krebs citric acid cycle occur and what does it produce? Is oxygen needed?

Answer 23

in the mitochondria;
36 ATP/glucose;
yes oxygen is needed

Question 24

What is glycogenolysis?

Answer 24

the breakdown of the molecule glycogen into glucose, a simple sugar that the body uses to produce energy

Question 25

what is gluconeogenesis?

Answer 25

formation of glucose within the body from precursors other than carbohydrates especially by the liver and kidney using amino acids from proteins, glycerol from fats, or lactate produced by muscle during anaerobic glycolysis

Question 26

Where does B-oxidation occur and what happens?

Answer 26

Beta-oxidation is the catabolic process by which fatty acid molecules are broken down in the mitochondria to generate acetyl-CoA, which enters the citric acid cycle, and NADH and FADH2, which are co-enzymes used in the electron transport chain.

Question 27

Fatty acids are carried from cytosol into mitochondria by _____ where they are metabolized

Answer 27

fatty acyl carnitine

Question 28

______ in the blood or urine suggests that fat is being metabolized at a high rate. What does this mean?

Answer 28

ketones; too much acetyl-CoA is being produced so instead of entering krebs cycle it enters ketogenesis side note: A person may be trying to by diet or they may not have enough insulin (diabetes patient). when ketones are released--> 1. we are oxidizing lipids at a high rate 2. we don’t have sufficient carbs to use all those lipids for energy generation

Question 29

What are two liver function tests? What are these?

Answer 29

AST (Aspartate Aminotransferase) and ALT (Alanine Aminotransferase) Transaminases

Question 30

Getting energy from protein would be involved in what process?

Answer 30

gluconeogenesis

Question 31

What process cuts off that NH2 group that can later form ammonia(highly toxic) and can dissolve membranes?

Answer 31

deamination

Question 32

Where does the urea cycle occur? What happens?

Answer 32

Liver; | ammonia is created from deamination. NH4+ enters the urea cycle and turns into urea which is excreted through the urine

Question 33

DNA is formed from 2 chains of nucleotides which bind together in a helical form by H bonds. What are the 2 chains of nucleotides?

Answer 33

Adenine and thymine; cytosine and guanine

Question 34

The superstructure of chromosomes is held together with ____ and ______

Answer 34

histones and other proteins

Question 35

_____ are discontinuous sequences of DNA which code for the amino acid sequence of a single peptide chain

Answer 35

genes

Question 36

What is an example of a regulatory element?

Answer 36

promoter

Question 37

What is thymine replaced with when DNA changes to RNA?

Answer 37

uracil

Question 38

____ is formed from a single chain of nucleotides formed from DNA template

Answer 38

RNA

Question 39

List the three types of RNA. What does they do?

Answer 39

``` Messenger RNA (mRNA) transcribed from DNA (via pre-mRNA which requires processing)--convey genetic information from DNA to the ribosome, where they specify the amino acid sequence of the protein products of gene expression. Transfer RNA (tRNA) transports specific amino acids to the site of protein synthesis on ribosomes Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) uses mRNA to arrange amino acids in the proper order to form a protein ```

Question 40

Cystolic proteins are released directly into what?

Answer 40

cytosol

Question 41

Where are secreted proteins released?

Answer 41

endoplasmic reticulum

Question 42

Give a brief description of transcription and translation

Answer 42

Transcription-It is the transfer of genetic instructions in DNA to messenger RNA (mRNA). mRNA formed in transcription is transported out of the nucleus, into the cytoplasm, to the ribosome (the cell's protein synthesis factory). The process by which mRNA directs protein synthesis with the assistance of tRNA is called translation. Translation is the process of translating the sequence of a messenger RNA (mRNA) molecule to a sequence of amino acids during protein synthesis

Question 43

The ______ are the base for nucleic acid (DNA, RNA) formation.

Answer 43

nucleosides

Question 44

The _____ are phosphorylated nucleosides

Answer 44

nucleotides

Question 45

The waste product of nucleotide degradation is ____ (associated with ____).

Answer 45

uric acid; gout

Question 46

Cell membranes are _____ with variable amounts of ___ and _____

Answer 46

phospholipid bilayers; | cholesterol and protein

Question 47

Cell membranes are _____ with variable amounts of ___ and _____. They are very ____ active.

Answer 47

phospholipid bilayers; cholesterol and protein; metabolically

Question 48

What are the two kinds of proteins?

Answer 48

integral (penetrate into membrane) or peripheral (associate with membrane surface)

Question 49

Many proteins have _______, increases hydrophilicity and affects function

Answer 49

carbohydrates attached (glycoproteins)

Question 50

lysosomes are formed from what?

Answer 50

the golgi apparatus

Question 51

lysosomes contain multiple ______ for digestion of organic molecules

Answer 51

lytic enzymes

Question 52

What do cytoskeletal proteins do?

Answer 52

maintain cell shape, allow movement, facilitate cell polarity and cytosolic transport

Question 53

what are muscular motors? What do they form?

Answer 53

Proteins/organelles which allow movement made of proteins such as actin, myosin, dyenin, kinesin. They form cilia, flagella, and muscle contractile elements

Question 54

What are intercellular junctions?

Answer 54

Cell-cell junctions allow organ formation and cell interactions

Question 55

What are some different types of intercellular junctions?

Answer 55

1. Tight junctions (highest strength) 2. Desmosome and zona adherens (some strength but less than tight junctions) 3. Gap junctions allow small molecule passage 4. Hemidesmosome helps adhere to basal lamina

Question 56

What does the nucleus contain?

Answer 56

chromatin (condensed chromosomes) and nucleolus (RNA rich regions)

Question 57

The nuclear membrane is continuous with the _____.

Answer 57

Endoplasmic reticulum

Question 58

Protein secretion occurs via connection of ____ with golgi

Answer 58

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

Question 59

Which part of the ER is involved with steroid synthesis?

Answer 59

Smooth ER

Question 60

Which part of the ER is involved with secreted protein synthesis?

Answer 60

Rough ER

Question 61

Which part of the ER has ribosomes?

Answer 61

rough

Question 62

Normal somatic cells are _____. How many chromosomes?

Answer 62

diploid;46 chromosomes = 23 chromosome pairs per parent

Question 63

Which is a non-germ cell? What kind of cell division occurs?

Answer 63

Somatic; mitosis

Question 64

Briefly describe the phases of mitosis

Answer 64

G0 phase: Quiescent, non-proliferative, normal state for most cells (diploid, 23 chromosome pairs in humans, i.e., 46 total) G1 phase: Initial cell growth, mostly protein and lipid production S phase: DNA synthesis occurs to form tetraploid cells (twice as much DNA as normal, enough for 2 cells) G2 phase: Continued cell growth before division M phase: Mitosis, with cell division to 2 diploid cells

Question 65

What cell is a germ cell?

Answer 65

gamete

Question 66

briefly describe meiosis

Answer 66

Similar to mitosis through G2 phase but paired chromatids separate to form 4 haploid cells (23 chromosomes total) 2 stages – Miosis 1 and miosis 2. In meiosis I, homologous chromosomes separate, while in meiosis II, sister chromatids separate. Meiosis II produces 4 haploid daughter cells, whereas Meiosis I produces 2 diploid daughter cells.