Ch 2. Cells Involved in Immune Response Flashcards Preview

ACAAI Review 3rd Edition > Ch 2. Cells Involved in Immune Response > Flashcards

Flashcards in Ch 2. Cells Involved in Immune Response Deck (73):
1

NKT cells have what type of TCR?

V alpha 24/J alpha 18, V beta 11

2

Tfh subtype are induced by what cytokine?

IL-21

3

IL-21 is important for?

Tfh differentiation, production of antibody in germinal centers

4

CD marker for IL-2Ra

CD25

5

Transcription factors for Th1 differentiation?

T-bet, STAT 4

6

Transcription factors for Th2 differentiation?

GATA-3, STAT 6

7

Transcription factors for Th17 differentiation?

RORyT, STAT 3

8

Transcription factors for Tfh differentiation?

Bcl-6 (upregulates CXCR5, down regulates CCR7)

9

Transcription factors for Treg differentiation?

FoxP3, STAT 5

10

Th1 differentiation induced by?

IL-12

11

Th2 differentiation induced by?

IL-4

12

Th17 differentiation induced by?

IL-17

13

Th9 differentiation induced by?

TGF-B

14

Treg differentiation induced by?

TGF-B

15

Th1 produce what major cytokine?

IFN-y

16

Th2 produce what major cytokine?

IL-4, -5, -13

17

Th17 produce what major cytokine?

IL-17

18

Th9 produce what major cytokine?

IL-9

19

Tfh produce what major cytokine?

IL-21

20

Treg produce what major cytokine?

IL-10, TGF-B

21

Difference between nTreg and iTreg

nTreg are thymus derived and express FoxP3, CD4, CD25. iTreg are peripheral derived, no FoxP3

22

cytokine for NK development

IL-15

23

cytokine needed for proliferation of T cell progenitors

IL-7

24

CD marker for common gamma chain

CD 132

25

CCR 7 binds?

CCL 19, 21 (high conc in T cell parafollicular zone)

26

CXCR 5 binds?

CXCL 13 (high conc in B cell follicle)

27

Pro-B cell surface markers

CD 43, 19, 20

28

Pre-B cell surface markers

CD 43, 19, 20; pre-BCR (u heavy chain and surrogate light chain)

29

Immature naive B cell markers

CD 19, 20, IgM

30

Mature naive B Cell markers

CD 19, 20, IgM, IgD

31

double negative T cells in development express what markers?

CD3, preTCR (B-chain, pre-T alpha chain)

32

Double positive T cells express?

CD3, CD4, CD8, TCRab

33

Bim binds bax & bak and activates which caspase?

caspase 9

34

FasL (CD178) and Fas (CD95) binds and activates which caspase?

caspase 8

35

both caspase 8 and 9 converge on which caspase for apoptosis?

caspase 3

36

monocytes and macrophages express what CD marker?

CD14, a component of TLR4 and LPS receptor (note: CD33 on macrophages)

37

major cytokines secreted by macrophages

TNF-a, IL-1, IL-6, IL-12

38

mutation in XLP?

SH2D1A gene mutation (encodes SAP)

39

EBV infection in XLP can lead to?

HLH

40

marker for Langerhans cells

CD11c, Birbeck granules, CD1a and CD207

41

unlike other dendritic cells, pDCs express?

CD123 and NO CD11c!

42

FcER1 is expressed primarily on what cells?

mast cells and basophils

43

what is the function of PGE2

bronchodilation, suppress mast cells and eos, blocks 5-LO activation

44

function of LTC4, LTD4, LTE4

increase vasc permeability, bronchoconstriction, mucus secretion

45

location of MCt

respiratory, GI mucosa

46

location of MCtc

respiratory/GI submucosa, skin, eye, synovium, blood vessels

47

Which MC type has C5aR and responds to C5a, C3a, opiates and vancomycin and has a whorled appearance?

MCtc

48

composition of high affinity IgE receptor on mast cells and basophils?

one alpha, one beta, two gamma chains

49

How is the high affinity IgE receptor different on dendritic cells, monocytes, and eosinophils?

no beta chain (one alpha, two gamma chains)

50

CD marker for low affinity IgE receptor?

CD23

51

which allergen cleaves CD23 (low affinity IgE receptor?)

Der p 1

52

What percent reduction is needed in specific IgE for clinical efficacy of Xolair?

96%

53

What autoAb can be found in CIU?

IgG against alpha chain of high affinity receptor

54

What chain of the high affinity IgE receptor binds IgE?

alpha chain

55

Which cytokine is important for basophil expansion/differentiation

IL-3 (binds CD123 the IL-3 receptor)

56

eosinophils migrate to tissue in response to?

RANTES (CCL5), eotaxin 1, -2 (CCL11, CCL24)

57

Eosinophil levels are suppressed by?

fever, steroids

58

primary cause of eosinophilia in U.S.? worldwide?

drugs; parasites

59

mediators that attract neutrophils to tissue?

IL-8 (CXCL8), LTB4

60

antibodies to what antigen in HIT?

PF4 (platelet antigen)

61

antibodies to what antigen in ITP?

GPIIb/IIIa

62

antibodies to what antigen in TTP?

ADAMTS13

63

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

eczema, thrombocytopenia, infections

64

target antigen and immunoflourescense for pemphigus vulgaris

desmoglein 3, intercellular IgG,IgM

65

target antigen and immunoflourescense for bullous pemphigoid

BP230 (BPAg1), BP180 (BPAg2), linear IgG at BMZ

66

target antigen for dermatitis herpetiformis

transglutaminase, granular IgA in dermis

67

target antigen for linear IgA dermatosis

BP180 (BPAg2), linear IgA at BMZ

68

what mediators released from epithelial cells are important in Th2 polarization?

TSLP, IL-33

69

E-selectin and P-selection on endothelium bind to?

Sialyl-Lewis X on leukocytes

70

L-selectin on leukocytes bind to?

Sialyl-Lewis X on GlyCAM-1/MadCAM-1 on HEV

71

ICAM on endothelium bind to?

LFA-1 (CD11aCD18 integrin) on leukocytes

72

VCAM on endothelium bind to?

VLA-4 integrin

73

MadCAM-1 on gut endothelium bind to?

a4b7 integrin