Ch. 2 - Inflammation, Inflammatory Disorders, and Wound Healing Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Ch. 2 - Inflammation, Inflammatory Disorders, and Wound Healing Deck (281):
1

ANCA Associated Vasculitis involves the activation of {{c1::neutrophils}} by auto-antibodies leading to inflammation of the blood vessel wall.

neutrophils

2

Antiphospholipid Antibody Syndrome (APS) typically involves which 2 autoantibodies?

Anticardiolipin and Lupus Anticoagulant

3

which Ab can give you a false positive syphilis test?

Anticardiolipin

4

what Ab can give you a falsely elevated PTT?

lupus anticoag

5

Deficiency of which early complement proteins is associated with SLE?

C1q; C2; C4

6

What is the function of early complement proteins?


Early complement proteins are involved with opsonization of exposed nuclear material from apoptosis (poorly cleared apoptosis).

7

How does ESR change in inflammation?

Increase
Products of inflammation (e.g. acute phase reactants) coat RBCs and cause aggregation. This aggregation causes RBCs to fall at a faster rate within the test tube (i.e. increased rate of sedimentation).

8

How does the risk for B-cell (marginal zone) lymphoma change in Sjogren Syndrome?

Increased

9

what presents as unilateral enlargement of the parotid gland?

B cell marginal zone lymphoma in Sjogrens

10

How long after inflammation begins do macrophages predominate in the tissue?

Peak after 2-3 days

11

How long after inflammation do neutrophils undergo apoptosis?

Within 24 hrs

12

In leukocyte diapedesis during inflammation, (blank) on endothelium binds to (blank) on leukocytes.

PECAM-1
CD31

13

In leukocyte margination and rolling, (blank and blank) on endothelium binds to (blank) on leukocytes.

E-selectin and P-selectin bind to Sialyl Lewis X

14

In leukocyte margination and rolling, (blank) on endothelium binds to (blank) on leukocytes.

GlyCAM-1 and CD34 on endo
L-selectin

15

In leukocyte tight-binding during inflammation, (blank) on endothelium binds to (blank) on leukocytes.

ICAM CD54 on endo
CD11/18 integrins (LFA1/Mac1)

16

In leukocyte tight-binding during inflammation, (blank) on endothelium binds to (blank) on leukocytes.

VCAM CD106 on endo
VLA-4 integrin leuko

17

Polymorphisms in which cell surface protein on regulatory T cells are associated with autoimmunity (e.g. MS and T1DM)?

CD25

18

What ANA is indicative of diffuse Systemic Scleroderma?

Scl-70

19

What ANA is indicative of Drug-induced Lupus Erythematosus?

anti-histone

20

What ANA is indicative of limited Systemic Scleroderma (i.e. CREST Syndrome)?

anti-centrisome

21

What ANAs are indicative of Sjogren's Syndrome?

SS-A/Ro and SS-B/La

22

What ANAs are indicative of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)?

Anti-dsDNA or nonspecific ANA

23

What are the 2 complement components that function as anaphylatoxins?

C5a and C3a

24

What are the 4 major chemoattractants for Neutrophils?

"CILK"
- C5a
- IL-8
- LTB4
- Kinin

25

What do the letters mean in CREST?

CREST:
- Calcinosis & anti-Centromere antibodies
- Raynaud phenomenon
- Esophageal dysmotility
- Sclerodactyly
- Telangiectasia of the skin

26

What is a colourless nitroblue tetrazolium (NBT) test indicative of?

NADPH Oxidase defect

27

What is a Malar Butterfly Rash a common clinical feature of?

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

28

What is a possible primary cause of Sjogren Syndrome?

Sicca syndrome

29

What is the etiology of Autoimmune Polyendocrine Syndrome?

AIRE mutation

30

What is the etiology of DiGeorge Syndrome?

22q11 chromosomal deletion

31

What is the etiology of Hyper IgM Syndrome?

Mutation in CD40L on helper T cells or CD40 on B cells

32

What is the etiology of Scleroderma?

Fibroblast activation leading to collagen deposition

33

In scleroderma, endothelial dsyfunction leads to inflammation via....

increased adhesion molecules

34

In scleroderma, endothelial dsyfunction leads to vasoconstriction via....

inc. endothelin
dec. NO

35

In scleroderma, endothelial dsyfunction leads to secretion of which two growth factors?

TGF-beta and PDGF

36

What gene is mutated in Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome?

:WASP mutation

37

What is the etiology of X-linked (Bruton) Agammaglobulinemia?

Mutation in BTK, Bruton tyrosine kinase

38

What is the genetic inheritance of Chediak-Higashi Syndrome?

AR

39

What is the genetic inheritance of IPEX Syndrome?

XLR

40

what is IPEX syndrome?

IPEX = Immune dysregulation, Polyendocrinopathy, Enteropathy, X-linked

41

What is the genetic inheritance of Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency?

Autosomal recessive

42

What is the genetic inheritance of Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome?

XLR

43

What is the most common immunoglobulin deficiency?

IgA

44

IgA def is seen in what common and media-hyped GI disease?

celiac

45

What is the most common stimulus for chronic inflammation?

Persistent infection

46

What is the second activation signal in the activation of B-cells?

CD40L on CD4+ T cell to CD40R on B cells

47

Upon activation of the B cell, secretion by the Th cell of IL-4 leads to?

switching to IgE

48

Upon activation of the B cell, secretion by the Th cell of IL-5 leads ot?

switching to IgA

49

Upon activation of the B cell, secretion by the Th cell of IFNg leads to?

switch to IgG

50

What is the second activation signal in the activation of CD4+ helper T cells?

B7 on APCs to CD28 on CD4+ T cells
7 x 4 = 28

51

What is the second activation signal in the activation of CD8+ T cells?

IL-2 from Th1 cells

52

What is the treatment for iron poisoning?

Chelation via IV Deferoxamine or Oral Deferasirox; Dialysis

53

What nitroblue tetrazolium (NBT) test result is seen in Myeloperoxidase Deficiency?

Normal

54

What surface proteins on leukocytes binds to ICAM/VCAM on endothelium?

Integrins (LFA-1)

55

What type of collagen is found in scars?

type I

56

What type of collagen is seen in granulation tissue?

type III

57

What type of hypersensitivity is primarily involved in SLE?

Type III (antigen-antibody complex)

58

What type of hypersensitivity is seen in Sjogren Syndrome?

Type IV

59

Where along the capillary bed does extravasation predominantly occur?

Post-capillary venules

60

Where does vasodilation occur?

at the level of arterioles

61

Where are the stem cells of the bone marrow found?

Hematopoietic stem cells (CD34+)

62

Where are the stem cells of the skin found?

Basal layer of the skin

63

Where are the stem cells of the small and large bowels found?

Mucosal crypts

64

Where do T cells mature?

thymus

65

Anti-SSA and Anti-SSB abs in Sjogren are strongly associated with (blank) manifestions

extraglandular, like neuropathy

66

Which 2 anti-inflammatory cytokines are released by macrophages in the resolution and healing phase of inflammation?

IL-10; TGF-beta

67

Which adhesion molecules are upregulated on endothelium in inflammation by IL-1 and TNF?

ICAM; VCAM

68

Which arachidonic acid metabolite mediates the delayed response of mast cell degranulation?

Leukotrienes

69

Which autoantibodies are associated with CREST Syndrome?

Anti-centromere antibodies

70

Which autoantibodies are associated with Diffuse Scleroderma?

Anti-Scl-70 (Anti-DNA Topoisomerase I)

71

Which autoantibodies are seen in Mixed Connective Tissue Disease?

Anti-U1 RNP antibodies

72

Which bacteria is the most common cause of delayed would healing?

Staphylococcus aureus

73

Which cell surface protein on leukocytes binds to selectins on endothelium?

Sialyl Lewis X

74

Which cell surface protein on macrophages recognizes LPS on the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria?

CD14 (co-receptor for TLR4)

75

Which coagulation factor is referred to as Hageman Factor?

factor XII

76

Which complement deficiency is associated with increased risk for Neisseria infection?

C5-C9

77

Which complement deficiency is most commonly associated with SLE?

C2

78

Which complement deficiency results in Hereditary Angioedema?

C1 inhibitor deficiency

79

Which complement pathway is activated by C1 binding to IgG or IgM bound to antigen?

classical
iGM makes classic cars

80

Which complement pathway is activated by Mannose-binding Lectin (MBL) binding to mannose on microorganisms?

Mannose-binding lectin pathway

81

Which complement pathway is activated by microbial products directly?

Alternative

82

Which complement protein complex lyses microbes by creating a hole in the cell membrane?

MAC

83

Which complement protein functions as an opsonin?

C3b

84

Which complement protein is an opsonin for neutrophils?

C3b

85

Which complement protein is chemotactic for neutrophils?

C5a

86

Which complement proteins are known to activate Mast Cells?

C3a, C5a

87

Which cytokine from macrophages induces helper CD4+ T cells to differentiate into Th1 cells?

IL-12

88

Describe the four steps in forming a granuloma

1. Macrophage presents antigen to CD4+ T-cells via MHC II
2. IL-12 release from the macrophage.
3. CD4+ T cells become the Th1 subtype.
4. Th1 cells secrete IFN-gamma which converts macrophages into epithelioid histiocytes and giant cells.

89

what is the hallmark cell of a granuloma?

epithelioid histiocytes

90

Which cytokine from Th1 cells converts macrophages into epithelioid histiocytes and giant cells (i.e. forms granulomas)?

IFN-gamma

91

Which cytokine from Th2 cells promotes B-cell class switching to IgE?

IL-4 (and IL-13)

92

Which cytokine released by macrophages recruits additional neutrophils?

IL-8

93

Which cytokines released from macrophages in response to pyrogens increase cyclooxygenase activity?

IL-1; TNF

94

Which enzyme converts Arachidonic Acid into Prostaglandins?

COX

95

Which enzyme in phagocytes converts H2O2 into HOCl (bleach)?

Myeloperoxidase

96

Which enzyme in phagocytes converts O2 into superoxide?

NADPH Oxidase

97

Which enzyme in phagocytes converts superoxide radicals into H2O2?

Superoxide dismutase (SOD)

98

Which enzyme involved in scar formation removed type III collagen?

Collagenase

99

what is the required cofactor for collagenase?

zinc

100

Which enzyme releases Arachidonic Acid from the phospholipid cell membrane?

Phospholipase A2

101

Which enzymes converts Arachidonic Acid into Leukotrienes?

5-Lipoxygenase

102

Which HLA subtype has the strongest association to autoimmune disorders?

HLA-B27

103

Which immunoglobulin isotype functions as an opsonin?

IgG

104

HLA-B27 is strongly associated with what disease?

ankylosing spondylitis

105

Which immunoglobulin isotypes are expressed by naive B-cells?

IgM
IgD (yes, D)

106

Which inflammatory cytokines induce E-Selectin expression in endothelium?

TNF; IL-1

107

Which inflammatory cytokines upregulate ICAM and VCAM adhesion molecules on endothelium in inflammation?

IL-1; TNF

108

Which inflammatory mediator triggers P-selectin upregulation from Weibel-Palade bodies?

Histamine

109

Which inflammatory mediators upregulate Integrin (LFA-1) expression on adhering leukocytes?

C5a; LTB4

110

Which Leukotriene functions to attract and activate neutrophils?

LTB4

111

Which lymphocytes are primarily affected in Autoimmune Polyendocrine Syndrome?

T cells

112

Which prostaglandin is known to mediate pain and fever?

PGE2

113

Which race is more commonly affected by Keloid?

African-americans

114

Which Selectin protein in endothelium is induced by TNF and IL-1?

E-selectin

115

Which Selectin protein is released from Weibel-Palade bodies in Endothelium?

P-selectin}

116

how do you remember what Weibel Palade bodies release?

W and P
vWF
P-selectin

117

Which sex is more commonly affected by autoimmune disorders?

womenz; Estrogen seems to decrease the apoptosis of self-reactive B cells.

118

Which sex is more commonly affected by Scleroderma?

Women; esp of 30-50 years

119

Which sex is more commonly affected by Sjogren Syndrome?

Women

120

Which sex is more commonly affected by SLE?

Women; especially african americans

121

Which substance released from Mast Cell granules mediates the immediate response of mast cell degranulation?

Histamine

122

Which TLR on macrophages recognizes LPS on the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria?

TLR4 (alongside CD14)

123

Which type of collagen is made in excess in a hypertrophic scar?

Type I

124

Which type of collagen is made in excess in a Keloid?

Type III

125

Which type of granulomatous inflammation exhibits central necrosis?

Caseating

126

Which type of granulomatous inflammation is associated with Beryllium exposure?

Noncaseating

127

Which type of granulomatous inflammation is associated with cat-scratch disease?

Noncaseating

128

Which type of granulomatous inflammation is associated with Crohn Disease?

Noncaseating

129

Which type of granulomatous inflammation is associated with fungal infections?

Caseating

130

Which type of granulomatous inflammation is associated with Sarcoidosis?

Noncaseating

131

Which type of granulomatous inflammation is associated with tuberculosis?

Caseating

132

Which type of granulomatous inflammation lacks central necrosis?

Noncaseating

133

Which type of infection has an increased risk of manifesting in patients with Myeloperoxidase Deficiency?

Candida

134

Which type of inflammation arises in response to tissue necrosis?

Acute inflammation

135

Which type of inflammation is an immediate response and part of the innate immunity (i.e. limited specificity)?

Acute inflammation

136

Which type of inflammation is characterized by the presence of edema and neutrophils in tissue?

Acute

137

Which type of inflammation is characterized by the presence of lymphocytes and plasma cells in tissue?

Chronic

138

Which type of inflammation presents as a delayed response but with more specificity as part of adaptive immunity?

Chronic inflammation

139

Which type of lymphocyte is affected in Autoimmune Lymphoproliferative Syndrome (ALPS)?

T and B cells

140

Which water soluble vitamin deficiency can delay wound healing?

Vitamin C

141

what is the role of vitamin C in wound healing?

Vitamin C is a cofactor the hydroxylation of proline/lysine residues in collagen. Collagen is needed in fucking wound healing so.. yeah.

142

(blank) is a cutaneous complication of Chediak-Higashi Syndrome that results from defective transport of Melanin from melanocytes to keratinocytes.

albinism

143

what are 3 hematological complications of SLE that occur due to Type II hypersensitivity reactions via autoantibodies against cell surface proteins.

anemia
thrombocytopenia
leukopenia

144

what are the two Abs that are specific for SLE?

Anti dsDNA
Anti Sm

145

(blank) is an autoantibody seen in Antiphospholipid Antibody Syndrome that yields false-positive VDRL and RPR syphilis tests.

anticardiolipin

146

what are the three abs seen in Antiphospholipid Antibody syndrome?

anticardiolipin
anti beta2-glycoprotein I
lupus anticoagulant

147

what is an autoimmune disorder that involves autoantibodies directed against proteins bound to phopsholipids and is seen in 30% of SLE cases?

antiphospholipid Ab syndrome

148

(blank) is an autoimmune disorder that is characterized by a hypercoagulable state due to antiphospholipid antibodies, especially lupus anticoagulant.

Antiphospholipid Antibody Syndrome

149

Where do you normally get thrombosus in Antiphospholipid Antibody Syndrome?

DVTs
hepatic vein
placental
cerebral
(often a major complication in pregnancy)
ASK COLT ABOUT THE BLACK RESIDENT AT REGANTI'S OFFICE

150

(blank) is a musculoskeletal feature of SLE that typically involves ≥ joints.

ARTHRITIS

151

(blank) s an autoimmune disorder that results from a mutation in the FAS (CD95) apoptotic pathway.

Autoimmune Lymphoproliferative Syndrome (ALPS)

152

The mutation in the apoptotic pathway in ALPS can be in which three proteins?

FAS
FASL
Caspase 10

153

(blank) is an autoimmune disorder that results from a mutation in the Fas apoptotic pathway and involves an inability to induce anergy at the periphery.

Autoimmune Lymphoproliferative Syndrome (ALPS)

154

Is the peripheral or central tolerance broken in ALPS?

peripheral; affects both T and B cells

155

ALPS results in lymphoproliferation due to an impaired destruction of (b/t) cells

b cells

156

what is the transcription factor in medullary epithelial cells that is involved with the expression of self-antigens?

AIRE

157

(blank) is an autoimmune disorder due to a mutation in AIRE that presents with a triad of hypoparathyroidism, adrenal failure, and chronic candida infection of the skin or oral mucosa.

Autoimmune Polyendocrine Syndrome

158

What three particular infections are the hallmark of generalized immunoglobulin def?

1. bacterial
2. enterovirus (mucosal immun)
3. Giardia lamblia

159

what is the product of HMW kininogen that mediates vasodilation and icnreased vascular permeability as well as pain?

bradykinin

160

what is characterized by stellate-shaped, noncaseating granulomatous inflammation?

cat-scratch diz

161

what dz presents with giant granules in leukocytes d/t fusion of granules from the Golgi?

Chediak-Higashi

162

There is an impairment in formation what organelle in chediak-higashi?

phagolysosome

163

(blank) is an immunological disorder that is characterized by poor O2-dependent killing due to an NADPH Oxidase deficiency.

CGD

164

(blank) positive bugs cause recurrent infections and granulomas in CGD

catalase positive

165

which trace element acts as a cofactor for Lysyl Oxidase, an enzyme which cross links collagen?

copper

166

what is a type of Limited Scleroderma that involves anti-centromere antibodies?

CREST syndrome

167

what is the word for the rupture of a wound?

dehiscence

168

(diffuse proliferative GN, membranous GN) is a renal complication seen in SLE that is the most common and most severe form of renal injury.

diffuse proliferative GN

169

what is a primary immunodeficiency that involves developmental failure of the 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouches?

diGeorge

170

what dz presents with T-cell def and hypocalcemia?

diGeorge

171

what is the common erythematous, scaly rash typically seen on the arm or other areas exposed to sunlight in SLE?

discoid rash

172

what is a mediator of wound healing that stimulates cell growth via Tyrosine kinases.

EGF

173

(blank) is a cell surface protein expressed by CD8+ T cells that binds to Fas on target cells and causes apoptosis.

FASL

174

fever results from the release of what two mediators from activated macs?

IL-1
TNF

175

Fibroblast growth factor is weird because despite its name its two major functions are to...

increase angiogenesis and skeletal dev

176

what are the three components of granulation tissue?

1. fibroblasts
2. capillaries
3. myofibroblasts

177

what is th enzyme made by CD8+ T cells that enters target cells and triggers apoptosis.

granzyme

178

Hyper IgM syndrome is a primary immunodeficiency that presents with elevated IgM due to what two things?

mutated CD40L on T helpers and CD40 on B cells

179

t/f: there is no secondary signal activation for B cells in hyper IgM syndrome

true

180

Besides high IgM, what else is fucked up with the Ig's in hyper IgM syndrome?

lack of IgA, E, and G (no class switching)

181

what two adhesion molecules are upregulated during neutrophil adhesion?

VCAM and ICAM

182

which cytokine is secreted by Th1 cells that activates macrophages, promotes B-cell class switching from IgM to IgG and inhibis th2 cells?

IFNg

183

which cytokine released by Th2 blocks Th1 growth?

IL10

184

which cytokine released by Th2 blocks Th1 growth?

IL10

185

a

a

186

IL1 and TNF act on what cell in the hypothal to cause fever?

perivascular cells

187

What does the hypothal release to cause fever?

PGE2

188

What does the hypothal release to cause fever?

PGE2

189

IL5 causes chemotaxis of what cell type?

eosinophils

190

IPEX is d/t a mutation in what gene?

FOXP3

191

which enzyme cleaves high-molecular weight kininogen (HMWK) to Bradykinin.

kallikrein

192

which enzyme cleaves high-molecular weight kininogen (HMWK) to Bradykinin.

kallikrein

193

what is Keratoconjunctivitis sicca

complication of Sjogren, aka dry eyes

194

what is labile tissue?

tissue that has stem cells

195

What dz is characterized by delayed separation of the umbilical cord, increased circulating neutrophils and recurrent bacterial infections without pus formation?

leukocyte adhesion def

196

What dz is characterized by delayed separation of the umbilical cord, increased circulating neutrophils and recurrent bacterial infections without pus formation?

leukocyte adhesion def

197

(blank) is a type of endocarditis seen in SLE that is characterized by small, sterile deposits on both sides of the mitral valve.

Libman-Sacks endocarditis

198

t/: libman-sacks endocarditis is aseptic

true

199

which three leukotrienes cause vasoconstriction, bronchospasm and increased vascular permeability?

LTC4, D4, and E4

200

what is a common diagnostic feature of Sjogren Syndrome that involves lymphocytic infiltration of minor salivary glands?

lymphocytic sialadenitis

201

lysozyme kills in an O2 (dependent/independent) manner

independent

202

Major basic protein is found int the granules of what cell?

eosinophils

203

Major basic protein kills in an O2 (dependent/independent) manner

independent

204

what is the toxin in bee venom that causes a type I reaction?

mellitin

205

what is the toxin in bee venom that causes a type I reaction?

mellitin

206

mixed connective tissue dz has characteristics of what three dzs?

SLE
scleroderma
polymyositis

207

in mixed connective tissue disease, there is a lack of involvement of what two systems?

CNS
renal

208

what is the major cause of death in MCTD?

pHTN

209

MPO def is a problem in what pathway?

oxidative burst

210

MPO def leads to an inability to make (blank) from H2O2

HOCl

211

MPO def leads to an inability to make (blank) from H2O2

HOCl

212

What are the two complications of a baby born to a woman pos for Anti-SSA abs?

neonatal lupus
congenital heart block

213

why is there neutropenia in chediak higashi?

intramedullary death of neutrophils

214

what is upregulated by TLR activation?

NF-kB

215

what two things mediate pain?

PGE2
bradykinin

216

(blank) is a Type II Hypersensitivity disorder where the epithelium unzips and antibodies target the desmoglein protein in desmosomes, thereby forming blisters.

pemphigus vulgaris

217

what causes peripheral neuropathy in chediak-higashi?

defective protein trafficking leading to atrophy of nerve terminals

218

What are the three prostaglandins that mediate vasodilation and vascular permeability?

PGI2, PGD2, PGE2

219

what two cell types release platelet derived growth factor PDGF?

platelets
macs

220

What does PDGF stimulate?

vascular remodeling, smooth muscle migratino and fibroblast growth.

221

what are two types of serositis seen in SLE?

pleuritis
pericarditis

222

what is healing by primary intention?

cutaneous wound healing that involves wound edges being brought together.

223

what is healing by primary intention?

cutaneous wound healing that involves wound edges being brought together.

224

what are three drugs that commonly cause drug induced SLE?

procainamide
hydralazine
isoniazid

225

t/f: removal of the drug can stop lupus

true

226

describe renal and CNS involvment in drug induced lupus

RARE

227

the gain of function in the PTPN22 gene has what role in autoimmunity?

decreases signalling that would result in self tolerance

228

This Phenomenon is characterized by an excessively reduced blood flow in response to cold or emotional stress, thereby causing discoloration of the fingers, toes or other areas.

Raynaud's

229

This Phenomenon is characterized by an excessively reduced blood flow in response to cold or emotional stress, thereby causing discoloration of the fingers, toes or other areas.

Raynaud's

230

what problem do you have with your teeth in Sjogrens?

lotsa cavities

231

what is the word to describe healing via replacement with native tissue?

regeneration

232

what is the word to describe healing via formation of a fibrous scar?

repair

233

t/f: rheumatoid factor is present in Sjogrens as well as in RA

true

234

Scleroderma is caused by the activation of (blanks) that lay down collagen

fibroblasts

235

what is healing by second intention?

cutaneous wound healing that involves a lack of approximation of wound edges and filling with granulation tissue

236

what are the ell surface proteins upregulated on endothelium in Neutrophil margination that act as "speed bumps"?

selectins

237

SCID can result from what enzyme def?

Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) deficiency.

238

why does a lack of Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) lead to SCID?

ADA is necessary to deaminate adenosine and deoxyadenosine; buildup of both of them is toxic to lymphocytes.

239

SCID can develop from MHC (I/II) def

MHC II

240

t/f: SCID can develop from cytokine receptor defects

true

241

which glands are destroyed in sjogrens?

lacrimal and salivary

242

what cell destroys the glands in Sjogrens?

t cells

243

what is a type II hypersensitivity rxn?

Hypersensitivity involves the binding of antibodies to cell surface antigens causing damage through classical complement activation or cell cytotoxicity.

244

what is a type III hypersensitivity rxn?

Hypersensitivity involves local or circulating antibody-antigen complexes that cause damage by getting trapped in tissues and activating complement proteins.

245

what type of Hypersensitivity involves the binding of antibodies to cell surface surface receptors causing stimulation, blockage or destruction of that receptor.

type II

246

what type of Hypersensitivity involves the activation of T cells resulting in CD4+ mediated macrophage recruitment or CD8+ mediated cytotoxicity.

type IV

247

what is type I hypersensitivity?

Hypersensitivity involves IgE and mast cell-mediated liberation of Histamine causing local and systemic anaphylaxis.

248

what are the three manifestations of Wiskott-Aldrich?

Thrombocytopenia
eczema
recurrent infections

249

what are the three manifestations of Wiskott-Aldrich?

Thrombocytopenia
eczema
recurrent infections

250

what cells have TLRs?

dendritic cells and macs and lymphocytes

251

what activates TLRs?

PAMPs from microbes

252

what is the coreceptor for TLR?

CD14

253

LPS comes from gram (pos/neg) bacteria

neg

254

what enzyme produces PGs?

COX

255

what enzyme produces LTs?

5-lipoxygenase

256

Which leukotriene attracts and activates neutrophils?

LTB4

257

What are the three ways that mast cells are activated?

1. tissue trauma
2. C3a and C5a
3. cross linking of surface IgE by Ag

258

In acute inflammation, what is released immediately and what is released as a delayed response?

immediately: histamine
delayed; leukotrienes

259

Factor XII is activated upon exposure to..

subendothelial collagen

260

What affect does histamine have on endothelial cells?

contraction

261

P-selectin that is released from the Weibel Palade bodies is activated by...

histamine

262

E-selectin is induced by what two cytokines?

TNF
IL1

263

what is odd about the recurrent infections in LAD?

NO PUS FORMATION; b/c the lymphocytes can't diapedese!

264

What bugs cause recurrent infection in CGD?

PSEUDOMONAS CEPACIA
staph aureus
Serratia marcesens
Nocardia
Aspergillus
(CATALASE POSITIVE)

265

MPO def leads may lead to a propensity for what type of infections?

candida

266

How long do neutrophils disappear after the resolution of the inflamm stimulus?

24 hours

267

Is persistent pus formation 6 weeks after the start of an illness considered chronic inflamm?

NO; pus means acute, so it is called continued acute!

268

what dz presents with T-cell def, abnl of the heart and face, and hypocalcemia?

diGeorge

269

Is persistent pus formation 6 weeks after the start of an illness considered chronic inflamm?

NO; pus means acute, so it is called continued acute!

270

what two receptors make up the TCR complex?

TCR
CD3

271

B7 on APC binds CD(blank) on CD4 T cells for signal 2

CD28

272

CD40 on B cells binds CD(blank) on T cells for 2nd signal

CD40L

273

What is the second signal for CD8 T cells?

IL2 from Th1 cells

274

what is the clinical presentation of autoimmune polyendocrine syndrome?

1. hypoPTH
2. Adrenal insuff.
3. Candida infx

275

Tregs are positive for what three cellular markers?

CD4, CD25, and FOXP3

276

CD25 is aka (blank) receptor

IL2R

277

Fas is aka CD(blank)

Fas: CD95

278

CD25 mutations are asssociated with what two autoimmune dzs?

MS and DM type I

279

what can B cells do in the bone marrow during negative selection to increase self tolerance?

receptor editing

280

anti-SSA and SSB in SJogren are anit-(blank) abs

anti-ribonucleoprotein

281

what causes the wound to contract in healing by second intention?

myofibroblasts