Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

AH 64D -10 > Ch 2 (Systems) (Part 2) > Flashcards

Ch 2 (Systems) (Part 2) Flashcards

From page 2-61 to the end of the chapter.

1
Q

Failure of the primary HYD system will result in the loss of ___.

A

FMC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Only the primary side of the servos have ___ valves to allow the ___ to affect the FLT controls.

A

Electrohydraulic

FMC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Where is the PRI HYD pump located?

A

Left side of the XMSN AGB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The PRI HYD manifold ___, ___, and ___ the flow of HYD fluid, provides ___, dirty filter, and ___ ___ indications.

A

Stores, filters, regulates

pressure, low level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The PRI HYD system holds __ pints of HYD fluid. The reservoir holds approx. ___ pint.

A

6, 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the purpose of the PRI HYD air bleed valve?

A

Depletes pressurized air from the manifold reservoir for system repair or service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the purpose of the PRI HYD low level indicating switch?

A

It is actuated by the reservoir piston. It displays the PRI HYD LEVEL LOW caution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What do the PRI HYD manifold pressure and return filter do?

A

It operates on differential pressure in the filter. Only the return filter has a bypass valve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Name the major components of the PRI HYD. (7 total)

A 
Air Bleed Valve
Reservoir low level indicating valve
Manifold Pressure and Return Filters
Fluid level indicator
Pressure sensor switch
Pressure transducer
Servos
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the components that run off of the UTIL HYD?

A 
Rotor break
AWS turret
Ammo handling system
APU start motor
Tail wheel UNLOCK actuator
External stores elevation
EMER HYD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The UTIL HYD low level and aux isolation valves cut off hydraulic fluid to flow to what?

A

AWS turret
External stores
Ammo carrier drive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What UTIL HYD components loose hydraulic fluid when the shutoff valve closes?

A

Directional servo

Tail wheel UNLOCK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the UTIL HYD ACC ISO Valve?

A

It keeps the ACC full of HYD fluid while allowing UTIL HYD fluid through to other components.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What PSI does the Rotor Break operate at while in the following modes:

  • OFF
  • BRK
  • LOCK
A

30
337
3000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the components of IPAS Air?

A

Fuel boost and transfer pumps
Utility Controller
NIU
Ice detection probe

Window Defog
HYD reservoirs (Hight side)
ATS
Louvres (fire)
ECS (heat)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

During dual ENG operation, where will bleed air be provided from?

A

Both ENGs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Other than the ENGs, what can provide IPAS air?

A

The APU, AGPU, or alternate aircraft. With the alternate aircraft, there is a low and high pressure bleed air port.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What Cautions are associated with IPAS?

A

Bleed air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the function of the main transmission?

A

Combines the two engine nose gear box inputs via the input drive shafts and reduces RPM output to the main and tail rotors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The AGB on the Main XMSN is driven by what?

A

The APU driveshaft or the ENG driveshafts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Describe how the XMSN lubricates itself.

A

It has two independent oil systems that have their own sump, pump, filter, and heat exchanger.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What happens if there is a loss of either the XMSN sump or heat exchanger?

A

The diverter (float) valve will seal off that sump to prevent a total loss of oil.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Prolonged OGE hover (__-__ minutes) with outside temp above __F (__C) may cause the intermediate and tail rotor gearboxes to overheat.

A

20, 30

75, 24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What monitors the temperature of the IGB?

A

Four thermisters.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What monitors the temperature of the TGB?

A

Four thermisters.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The main rotor assembly allows the rotors to ___, ___, ___, and ___ independently. They are controlled by cyclic and collective controls through a ___ mounted about the static mast. This arrangement allows the static mast to absorb all ___ loads.

A

Flap, feather, lead, lag

Swashplate

Flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The ice detect probe aspirator is active when the FAT decreases to < ___C. The probe is deactivated when the FAT increases to >___C.

A

5, 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When in ___ mode, ANTI-ICE system buttons are not selectable when icing conditions are detected. Once they are activated, how are they turned off?

A

Auto, manually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The ENG INLET ANTI-ICE includes what three parts of the ENG?

A

The Engine, Engine Inlet Fairings, and Nose Gearbox Fairings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Can the PNVS/TADS anti-ice be turned on when on the ground? What condition must be met for this to work? How does the PNVS/TADS anti-ice system work?

A

Yes, GND Override, It is accomplised via thermostatically controlled heating elements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When the ECS is in the heated mode, will heated air continue to be provided while the ENGs are starting?

A

No, it will cease until the ATS drops out.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Are the heating and cooling functions of the ECS affected by whether or not the canopy is open or closed?

A

Yes, for cooling only. It will not work if the canopy is detected open.

33
Q

Operating the ECS with all gaspers closed can result in what?

A

The blower will overheat and shut down.

34
Q

What are the selectable ECS Temp ranges?

A

50F to 90F

35
Q

During most ECS failure modes, the EFAB and crew station blowers will continue to circulate air to each compartment, and the ___ ___ ___ will provide ambient air to the crewstations.

A

Air Particle Seperator

36
Q

Which component of the electrical system provides switched power?

A

The ELCs - the circuit breakers affect the functionality of the component they serve.

37
Q

What are the three sources of power for the A/C?

A

115Vac
28Vdc
24Vdc (Battery)

38
Q

The battery is capable of providing power to the EMER BATT BUS for ___ minutes provided the battery is at least ___% charged.

A

12, 80

39
Q

What bus does the battery charget run off of?

A

115Vac (Circuit Breaker Pannel #2)

40
Q

In the event of a battery or battery charger failure, what will happen with regards to battery charging?

A

It will cease until the fault has cleared.

41
Q

Is each generator capable of supplying all electrical power to the aircraft?

A

Yes

42
Q

What are the automatic shutdown criteria for the GCU to the Generator?

A

Overcurrent
Overvoltage
Underfrequency
Undervoltage

43
Q

If the generators are shut down due to underfrequency, what must the pilot do in order to turn the generators back on?

A

Reset the PLT GEN reset pannel when Nr is greater than 93%.

44
Q

What must you do if unqualified personnel are going to be in or around the PLT crewstation?

A

Remove the APU ECU PWR/START circuit breaker on ECU 2.

45
Q

What provides IPAS air to the aircraft when the APU is on?

A

The APU, DC power.

46
Q

How much fuel does the APU burn? What power is required for the APU to start?

A

175lbs per hour

  • Battery Power
  • Fuel (Aft fuel cell)
  • UTIL Hyd pressure >2600psi
47
Q

What criteria will cause the APU ECU to shut down the APU?

A 
Loss of thermocouple
Overtemp
Loss of RPM
Overspeed
Low oil pressure
Overcurrent
48
Q

What are the only lighting systems available under battery power?

A

Flood lights, Signal lights, searchlight, and utility lights

49
Q

In what type of terrain should the searchlight not be used?

A

High grass areas. The searchlight can get hot enough to cause things to combust.

50
Q

Searchlight motion is inhibited for ___ seconds after the ON/OFF/STOW switch is placed in the STOW position.

A

60

51
Q

Where must the FLOOD control must be less than the ____ of its range to allow SIGNAL RST.

A

Midpoint

52
Q

When will you see the word BIAS presented below the -W- (waterline) button on the FLT page?

A

When one has been applied.

53
Q

When the angle of bank exceeds ___ degrees, the entire symbol is shown ___ in color.

A

20*, white

54
Q

What is the maximum allowable error for the altimeter?

A

70 feet.

55
Q

If the HI and LO warning for the altimeter is set to ___, they are not presented to the crew.

A

0

56
Q

The “ALTITUDE LOW” warning will sound when the following conditions have been met:

  • When ALT is less than 10 ft AGL
  • When ALT is 11 - 999 ft AGL
  • When ALT is 1000 - 1428 ft AGL
A
  • Equal to
  • 10% below
  • 100 feet below
57
Q

When will time to a point not displayed on any symbology?

A

When GS is below 15 kts and time to the waypoint is greater than or equal to 10 hours

58
Q

What must be aligned for GS to be displayed?

A

INUs

59
Q

When a greater than ___% TQ split occurs between engines, the TQ flashes to indicate impending single engine operation.

TQ will become boxed at ___% or ___%

A

12

98, 108

60
Q

What are the primary fuels for the AH 64D?

A

JP-4, JP-5, JP-8

61
Q

How do you judge the level of oil in the transmission?

A

Looking at the #1 and #2 side sight-glasses. They should add up to being completely full.

62
Q

The SP is responsible for what three basic functions?

A
  • Commands all subsystem-initiated tests
  • Monitor system statuses and fault information
  • Processes information for display
63
Q

What is the purpose of the DPs?

A

Each controls 2 MPDs. It also controls the TEDAC, VCR, and IHADSS displays. It also processes the cursors, KU, and bezel buttons.

64
Q

How long will the A/C be in single-DP operations when a DP is resetting?

A

13-24 seconds.

65
Q

The WPs command position of ___ ___ ___ ___ directly with the DPs, provides system status and ___ information to the SPs, and processes that information for display.

A

weapons subsystem initiated tests

fault

66
Q

What function does the CIU provide?

A

Audible tones and warnings for all W/C/As.

67
Q

What is the purpose of the MDR?

A

Crash survivable data storage for mishap investigation and enhanced aircraft maintenance.

68
Q

How many MUX BUSSES are there in the A/C? What controls which one?

A

4
Channel 1 and 2 - Primary SP
Channel 3 - Primary WP
Channel 4 - FCR/RFI

69
Q

What components are tied to MUX Channel 1?

A

Communications, electrical, keyboard, and display systems.

70
Q

What components are tied to MUX Channel 2?

A

Nav/Flight control equipment, RWR, DTU.

In addition, there are remote terminals which allow for data transfer between the DPs, WPs, and SPs.

71
Q

What components are tied to MUX Channel 3?

A

Weapons and sight subsystem

72
Q

When will you receive a “DTU NOT ESTABLISHED” advisory?

A

When neither a DP is connected with the DTU or a DP has lost connection with the SP.

73
Q

What mission loads by default from the DTC?

A

Mission 1

74
Q

What files are downloaded to the DTC but are not reloaded?

A

Routes, Points, Targets

75
Q

If a crewmember manually selects SP1 or SP2 and the selected SP fails, what happens?

A

The unselected SP will NOT automatically become the primary.

76
Q

If the SP switch in the CPG station is not to AUTO, then the secondary SP cannot do what?

A

Provide internal health status updates to the primary SP.

77
Q

How long will the GEARBOX VIBRATION message display during run-up? What does this mean?

A

5 seconds, that the MSPU has booted completely.

78
Q

What does MSPU stand for and what does it do?

A

Modern Signal Processing Unit.

It monitors machinery health and rotor smoothing.

79
Q

When will the MSPU begin to automatically monitor systems?

A

Rotor RPM is above 90%.

AH 64D -10 (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions