Ch 61: ICP Flashcards

(429 cards)

1
Q

A nurse is caring for a patient who suffered a traumatic brain injury. Which of the following findings would the nurse identify as evidence of a secondary brain injury?

A. Skull fracture from a fall
B. Intracerebral hemorrhage at the time of impact
C. Edema noted 8 hours after trauma
D. Coup-contrecoup injury from blunt force trauma

A

C. Edema noted 8 hours after trauma

Rationale: Secondary injury occurs as a result of the primary injury and includes complications such as hypoxia, ischemia, edema, and increased ICP that develop hours to days later. Skull fractures and hemorrhages occurring at the time of trauma are classified as primary injuries.

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2
Q

A 35-year-old male presents to the ED following a high-speed motor vehicle collision. Imaging confirms a cerebral contusion. Over the next few hours, the patient becomes increasingly lethargic, and the nurse notes a significant increase in blood pressure and a decrease in heart rate.
Which intracranial complication is the nurse most concerned about?

A. Cerebral hypoperfusion and increased ICP
B. Increased cerebrospinal fluid production and increased ICP
C. Cerebral edema and increased ICP
D. Spinal cord shock and increased ICP

A

C. Cerebral edema and increased ICP

Rationale: Progressive neurological deterioration accompanied by signs of increased systolic blood pressure and bradycardia suggests increasing intracranial pressure due to cerebral edema, a hallmark of secondary brain injury.

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3
Q

Which of the following volume components occupies the largest percentage of the intracranial space in a healthy adult?

A. Cerebrospinal fluid
B. Venous blood
C. Arterial blood
D. Brain tissue

A

D. Brain tissue

Rationale: Brain tissue accounts for approximately 78% of the total intracranial volume, making it the largest of the three main components. Blood makes up about 12%, and CSF about 10%.

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4
Q

A nurse understands the significance of the Monro-Kellie doctrine in managing intracranial pressure. Which statement best explains this concept?

A. The brain can regenerate neurons in response to injury.
B. An increase in one intracranial component must be offset by a decrease in another.
C. CSF production increases automatically when cerebral blood flow decreases.
D. Brain tissue can expand without affecting ICP due to skull elasticity.

A

B. An increase in one intracranial component must be offset by a decrease in another.

Rationale: The Monro-Kellie doctrine states that the cranial vault is a fixed space; therefore, if the volume of one component (brain tissue, blood, CSF) increases, the volume of another must decrease to maintain normal ICP.

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5
Q

A patient with a traumatic brain injury is being monitored in the ICU. The provider is most concerned about controlling secondary brain injury. Which of the following interventions is a priority to prevent secondary brain injury?

A. Administering antiplatelet therapy
B. Monitoring capillary blood glucose
C. Preventing hypotension and hypoxia
D. Inserting a Foley catheter

A

C. Preventing hypotension and hypoxia

Rationale: Secondary brain injury is largely preventable and is commonly caused by systemic hypotension and hypoxia. Maintaining adequate perfusion and oxygenation is critical to minimizing brain tissue damage.

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6
Q

Which of the following best represents a modifiable factor that the nurse can intervene on to reduce secondary brain injury?

A. Cerebral ischemia
B. The mechanism of trauma
C. Initial skull fracture
D. Coup-contrecoup impact

A

A. Cerebral ischemia

Rationale: Ischemia is a secondary complication of brain injury and is a modifiable factor. Nurses and providers can take action to maintain oxygenation and perfusion to prevent ischemia and worsening neurological outcomes.

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7
Q

A 21-year-old patient is admitted after falling from a ladder. CT reveals diffuse axonal injury. Over the next 24 hours, the patient’s ICP increases despite elevation of the HOB and sedation. The nurse knows that the patient is at high risk for:

A. Cerebral aneurysm rupture
B. Obstructive hydrocephalus
C. Secondary brain injury
D. Brain herniation due to primary trauma

A

C. Secondary brain injury

Rationale: Increased ICP developing after the initial trauma is characteristic of secondary brain injury. The progression of edema, ischemia, and other physiologic responses to the initial insult can exacerbate neurologic damage.

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8
Q

A nurse is teaching a group of students about intracranial regulation. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of primary vs. secondary brain injury?

A. “Primary injury is more severe than secondary injury.”
B. “Secondary injury occurs immediately after the traumatic event.”
C. “Primary injury includes edema, ischemia, and increased ICP.”
D. “Secondary injury is the focus of management to prevent worsening outcomes.”

A

D. “Secondary injury is the focus of management to prevent worsening outcomes.”

Rationale: Secondary injury is preventable or modifiable and includes complications that develop after the initial injury, such as edema and ischemia. These are key targets of treatment to limit neurologic damage.

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9
Q

The nurse is reviewing a patient’s CT scan that shows no skull fracture or bleeding, but the patient later becomes confused and develops elevated ICP. What should the nurse suspect?

A. The patient’s primary injury is resolving.
B. The patient is experiencing a delayed primary injury.
C. The CT scan rules out any significant concern.
D. The patient is developing a secondary brain injury.

A

D. The patient is developing a secondary brain injury.

Rationale: Even if initial imaging is unremarkable, secondary injuries such as cerebral edema or ischemia can develop later and contribute to increased ICP and neurologic decline.

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10
Q

Which of the following are components of the intracranial vault according to the Monro-Kellie doctrine? (SATA)

A. Cerebrospinal fluid
B. Venous blood
C. Arterial blood
D. Brain tissue
E. Synovial fluid

A

A. Cerebrospinal fluid
B. Venous blood
C. Arterial blood
D. Brain tissue

Rationale: The three key components of the cranial space are brain tissue (78%), blood (arterial, venous, capillary — 12%), and CSF (10%). Synovial fluid is unrelated and not found in the cranial vault.

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11
Q

In managing a patient with elevated ICP, the nurse recalls that maintaining a balance between brain tissue, blood, and CSF is crucial. Which of the following interventions would help maintain this balance?

A. Administering osmotic diuretics as ordered
B. Encouraging the patient to cough vigorously
C. Keeping the head of bed flat at 0 degrees
D. Providing high levels of IV fluids to support perfusion

A

A. Administering osmotic diuretics as ordered

Rationale: Osmotic diuretics (e.g., mannitol) help decrease cerebral edema by drawing fluid out of the brain tissue, thereby reducing ICP and supporting the Monro-Kellie principle of maintaining volume balance.

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12
Q

primary injury

A

occurs at the initial time of injury

results in displacement, bruising, or damage to any cranial component

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13
Q

secondary injury

A

resulting in hypoxia, ischemia, hypotension, edema, or increased ICP that follows the primary injury

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14
Q

T/F

Primary injury can occur several hours to days after the initial injury.

A

false

secondary injury

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15
Q

The nurse is monitoring a patient with a ventriculostomy. The patient’s intracranial pressure (ICP) reading is 23 mm Hg. What is the nurse’s best response?

A. Document the finding as normal and continue to monitor
B. Lower the head of the bed to increase cerebral perfusion
C. Notify the provider of sustained elevated ICP
D. Encourage coughing to relieve pressure

A

C. Notify the provider of sustained elevated ICP

Rationale: Normal ICP ranges from 5–15 mm Hg. A sustained pressure >20 mm Hg is abnormal and may indicate increased risk for brain herniation or impaired cerebral perfusion. This finding warrants prompt medical intervention.

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16
Q

A patient with a traumatic brain injury has a sustained ICP of 22 mm Hg. The nurse knows that which physiologic factor could be contributing to this increased pressure?

A. Low CO2 levels
B. Normal intraabdominal pressure
C. Upright posture
D. High arterial CO2 level

A

D. High arterial CO2 level

Rationale: Elevated CO2 causes vasodilation of cerebral vessels, which increases cerebral blood flow and raises ICP. It is one of the major modifiable factors influencing ICP under normal conditions.

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17
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient with a closed head injury. Which factor, if increased, would most likely elevate intracranial pressure?

A. Hypoventilation leading to respiratory alkalosis
B. Decreased venous pressure
C. Valsalva maneuver
D. Head elevation at 30 degrees

A

C. Valsalva maneuver

Rationale: The Valsalva maneuver increases intrathoracic and intraabdominal pressure, impeding cerebral venous outflow and raising ICP. Head elevation and decreased venous pressure help reduce ICP.

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18
Q

In the ICU, a patient with a closed skull injury is undergoing ICP monitoring. The nurse documents an ICP of 12 mm Hg. What is the appropriate nursing action?

A. Document the finding as within normal limits
B. Prepare the patient for surgical decompression
C. Administer mannitol immediately
D. Lower the head of the bed to increase ICP

A

A. Document the finding as within normal limits

Rationale: Normal ICP ranges from 5–15 mm Hg. A value of 12 mm Hg is normal. No immediate intervention is required other than continued monitoring.

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19
Q

A nursing student asks why the Monro-Kellie doctrine doesn’t apply to all patients with head trauma. What is the best explanation?

A. The doctrine applies only to children
B. It is valid only when there is a skull fracture
C. It applies only when ICP is elevated
D. It only applies when the skull is closed

A

D. It only applies when the skull is closed

Rationale: The Monro-Kellie doctrine is based on the assumption of a closed skull. In cases of open skull fractures or craniectomy, the compensatory mechanisms described by the doctrine are not applicable.

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20
Q

A patient with a craniectomy is being evaluated for ICP changes. The nurse recognizes that the Monro-Kellie doctrine does not apply in this case. Which explanation is most accurate?

A. The open skull allows pressure to rise significantly
B. The open skull cannot displace CSF
C. The open skull disrupts the balance between blood and brain tissue
D. The open skull allows for pressure release, altering the intracranial volume relationship

A

D. The open skull allows for pressure release, altering the intracranial volume relationship

Rationale: When part of the skull is removed, the enclosed system is no longer intact, so the compensatory volume-displacement mechanisms of the Monro-Kellie doctrine no longer apply.

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21
Q

The nurse is teaching about factors that affect normal ICP. Which of the following would the nurse include?

A. Serum potassium levels
B. Body temperature
C. Liver enzyme activity
D. Hemoglobin saturation

A

B. Body temperature

Rationale: Temperature affects cerebral metabolism. Fever increases metabolic demands, leading to increased cerebral blood flow and potentially elevated ICP.

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22
Q

Which of the following are known to influence ICP under normal conditions? (SATA)

A. Posture
B. Sodium level
C. Blood CO2 level
D. Arterial pressure
E. Skin turgor

A

A. Posture
C. Blood CO2 level
D. Arterial pressure

Rationale: Posture, CO2 levels, and arterial pressure all influence ICP. Sodium levels and skin turgor do not directly influence ICP in a predictable or consistent way.

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23
Q

A patient has an epidural ICP monitoring device placed. The nurse notes an ICP reading of 26 mm Hg sustained over 15 minutes. What is the most accurate interpretation?

A. This is expected due to the stress response
B. The ICP is elevated and requires prompt intervention
C. This is an inaccurate reading because the device is in the epidural space
D. The patient should be placed in the Trendelenburg position

A

B. The ICP is elevated and requires prompt intervention

Rationale: Any sustained ICP >20 mm Hg is considered abnormal and can compromise cerebral perfusion, increasing the risk for herniation. The reading is valid regardless of monitoring site.

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24
Q

A nurse is monitoring the ICP of a patient with increased thoracic pressure from severe coughing episodes. Which physiologic response should the nurse anticipate?

A. Increase in ICP due to reduced cerebral venous outflow
B. Decrease in ICP due to improved venous return
C. Unchanged ICP due to thoracic pressure not affecting the brain
D. Decrease in cerebral blood flow with improved oxygen delivery

A

A. Increase in ICP due to reduced cerebral venous outflow

Rationale: Increased thoracic pressure from coughing impedes venous drainage from the brain, raising intracranial pressure as a result.

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25
When measuring ICP in a patient, which location allows for the most accurate and direct reading? A. Subdural space B. Subarachnoid space C. Ventricular space D. Epidural space
C. Ventricular space Rationale: The ventricular system provides the most direct and accurate measurement of ICP and allows for therapeutic CSF drainage, making it the gold standard for monitoring.
26
A patient with elevated ICP is placed in a supine position with the head flat. The nurse notes a rising ICP trend. What should be the priority intervention? A. Increase IV fluids to support perfusion B. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees C. Administer IV mannitol immediately D. Encourage the patient to bear down to relieve pressure
B. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees Rationale: Elevating the HOB promotes venous drainage and decreases ICP. It is a noninvasive first-line intervention. Bearing down increases intrathoracic pressure and would worsen ICP.
27
intracranial pressure (ICP)
The hydrostatic force measured in the brain CSF compartment
28
A nurse is explaining to a student how the body compensates for changes in intracranial volume. Which of the following is an example of a compensatory response involving CSF? A. Cerebral artery vasodilation B. Collapse of cerebral veins C. Displacement of CSF into spinal subarachnoid space D. Distention of the dura mater
C. Displacement of CSF into spinal subarachnoid space Rationale: One of the body’s first compensatory responses to increased intracranial volume is to reduce CSF volume by displacing it into the spinal subarachnoid space, or altering its production and absorption.
29
A patient with early signs of increased intracranial pressure is being closely monitored. The provider explains that at this point, the patient’s brain is still able to compensate. Which mechanism likely accounts for this? A. Rapid vasodilation of cerebral arteries B. Compression of brain tissue C. Increase in CSF production D. Complete collapse of the dura mater
B. Compression of brain tissue Rationale: In later stages of compensation, brain tissue volume adapts through distention of the dura and compression of brain tissue to maintain normal ICP, though this is limited and eventually leads to ischemia.
30
Which of the following changes would the nurse recognize as part of the second compensatory response to rising intracranial volume? A. Cerebral venous vasoconstriction B. Altered CSF production C. Displacement of CSF into the spinal cord D. Compression of brain tissue
A. Cerebral venous vasoconstriction Rationale: The second category of compensatory mechanisms involves changes in intracranial blood volume, including regional vasoconstriction or dilation and venous outflow alterations.
31
A patient is exhibiting signs of elevated ICP. The nurse understands that compensatory mechanisms are failing. What does this indicate? A. CSF is being reabsorbed effectively B. Venous sinuses are dilating to reduce pressure C. Brain tissue is expanding to increase perfusion D. Decompensation is occurring, leading to ischemia
D. Decompensation is occurring, leading to ischemia Rationale: When compensatory mechanisms are exhausted, ICP rises uncontrollably, leading to tissue compression and cerebral ischemia—a dangerous, decompensated state.
32
Which of the following are compensatory mechanisms the body uses to maintain normal ICP? (SATA) A. Collapse of cerebral veins B. Increased CSF production C. Vasodilation of cerebral arteries D. Compression of brain tissue E. Displacement of CSF to the spinal subarachnoid space
A. Collapse of cerebral veins D. Compression of brain tissue E. Displacement of CSF to the spinal subarachnoid space Rationale: Collapse of cerebral veins, compression of brain tissue, and CSF displacement are normal compensatory mechanisms. Increased CSF production and arterial vasodilation increase ICP rather than reduce it.
33
The nurse is caring for a patient with a stable ICP of 13 mm Hg. Which of the following findings indicates that the patient’s compensatory mechanisms are intact? A. Widening pulse pressure B. Stable neurologic exam C. New-onset bradycardia D. Decreased cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP)
B. Stable neurologic exam Rationale: A stable neurologic exam suggests cerebral perfusion is maintained, indicating that compensatory mechanisms (such as CSF displacement or venous outflow changes) are effectively managing the volume shift.
34
A nurse is teaching about compensatory adaptations in the brain. Which student response demonstrates an accurate understanding? A. “The brain tissue can expand without causing damage.” B. “Venous outflow can adapt to help manage increased volume.” C. “An early increase in volume will always result in an increase in ICP.” D. “The brain can permanently compensate for high ICP.”
B. “Venous outflow can adapt to help manage increased volume.” Rationale: One of the second-line compensatory mechanisms includes adjusting venous outflow to reduce cerebral blood volume and help maintain ICP.
35
When the volume increase within the skull exceeds the brain’s ability to compensate, what will the nurse most likely observe? A. Rapid increase in ICP and signs of herniation B. Improvement in LOC and motor function C. Decreased MAP and increased CPP D. Hyperabsorption of CSF by the ventricles
A. Rapid increase in ICP and signs of herniation Rationale: Once compensatory mechanisms are overwhelmed, ICP rises rapidly. This can lead to brain tissue compression and potentially fatal herniation syndromes.
36
A nurse is educating a patient on why cerebral blood flow (CBF) must be maintained. Which of the following statements best explains this concept? A. The brain stores large amounts of oxygen and glucose for emergencies. B. Cerebral blood flow regulates cerebrospinal fluid production. C. The brain depends on a constant supply of oxygen and glucose due to high metabolic demand. D. Cerebral blood flow is only important when intracranial pressure is elevated.
C. The brain depends on a constant supply of oxygen and glucose due to high metabolic demand. Rationale: The brain uses 20% of the body’s oxygen and 25% of its glucose, making continuous blood flow essential to prevent hypoxia and ischemia.
37
A patient in the neuro ICU has a MAP of 65 mm Hg and is showing signs of confusion and slowed response time. The provider suspects impaired cerebral blood flow. Which factor most likely contributes to the neurological decline? A. The brain’s glucose reserve has been depleted. B. Oxygen saturation is compensating for low perfusion. C. A MAP of 65 mm Hg is sufficient to support global CBF. D. Decreased CBF has led to cerebral hypoxia and altered function
D. Decreased CBF has led to cerebral hypoxia and altered function Rationale: The brain requires consistent blood flow to receive oxygen and glucose. A drop in cerebral perfusion compromises brain function, leading to symptoms like confusion and altered mental status.
38
A client undergoing cardiac surgery becomes hypotensive intraoperatively. The surgical team expresses concern about reduced cerebral blood flow. What should the nurse recognize as the primary reason this is a concern? A. Even brief interruptions in CBF can cause permanent brain damage. B. The brain has autoregulation to protect against blood pressure changes. C. The brain requires minimal oxygen to maintain function. D. Hypotension enhances oxygen diffusion into brain tissue.
A. Even brief interruptions in CBF can cause permanent brain damage. Rationale: The brain has minimal ability to store oxygen or glucose, so interruptions in CBF—even for a short time—can cause irreversible damage.
39
Which of the following statements about cerebral blood flow are true? (SATA) A. The global CBF is approximately 50 mL/min/100 g of brain tissue. B. The brain consumes 10% of the body’s oxygen. C. Adequate CBF is essential for delivering glucose to the brain. D. The brain can survive long periods without CBF. E. Maintaining CBF is critical due to the brain’s high metabolic demands.
A. The global CBF is approximately 50 mL/min/100 g of brain tissue. C. Adequate CBF is essential for delivering glucose to the brain. E. Maintaining CBF is critical due to the brain’s high metabolic demands. Rationale: Global CBF is about 50 mL/min/100 g of tissue. The brain uses 25% of the body’s glucose and 20% of its oxygen, making options A, C, and E correct. The brain cannot survive long without blood flow.
40
The nurse is assessing a patient with symptoms of dizziness, blurred vision, and confusion. Which of the following underlying problems would most likely impair cerebral blood flow and explain these findings? A. Elevated blood glucose B. Bradycardia with a MAP of 52 mm Hg C. Mild fever and leukocytosis D. Hyponatremia with a serum sodium of 133 mEq/L
B. Bradycardia with a MAP of 52 mm Hg Rationale: Cerebral perfusion is pressure-dependent. A MAP less than 60 mm Hg can critically reduce cerebral blood flow, leading to symptoms of cerebral hypoperfusion such as confusion and dizziness.
41
cerebral autoregulation
The automatic adjustment in the diameter of the cerebral blood vessels by the brain to maintain a constant blood flow with changes in arterial blood pressure
42
cerebral perfusion pressure
the pressure needed to ensure blood flow to the brain
43
A nurse is caring for a patient with a MAP of 60 mm Hg and reports blurred vision and lightheadedness. What is the most appropriate explanation for the patient’s symptoms? A. Elevated ICP is causing increased CPP. B. The MAP is below the lower limit of autoregulation, decreasing CBF. C. The patient’s CPP is within a normal range. D. The brain is compensating with cerebrovascular dilation to maintain CBF.
B. The MAP is below the lower limit of autoregulation, decreasing CBF. Rationale: A MAP <70 mm Hg is below the threshold of effective autoregulation, causing a drop in cerebral blood flow and symptoms of ischemia like blurred vision.
44
A patient in the ICU has a MAP of 90 mm Hg and an ICP of 25 mm Hg. Calculate the patient’s CPP and determine the clinical implication. A. CPP is 65 mm Hg, which is normal and supports brain perfusion. B. CPP is 55 mm Hg, which is adequate for brain perfusion. C. CPP is 65 mm Hg, which may not be sufficient in localized swelling. D. CPP is 75 mm Hg, and higher pressure will reduce risk of ischemia.
C. CPP is 65 mm Hg, which may not be sufficient in localized swelling. Rationale: CPP = MAP − ICP → 90 − 25 = 65 mm Hg. While this is technically within normal limits (60–100), in patients with localized injury or stroke, a higher CPP may be required to ensure adequate perfusion to damaged areas.
45
Which of the following statements about cerebral autoregulation is most accurate? A. It maintains constant ICP regardless of systemic blood pressure changes. B. It ensures consistent cerebral blood flow by adjusting vessel diameter. C. It activates only when MAP exceeds 150 mm Hg. D. It regulates the production of cerebrospinal fluid in response to MAP.
B. It ensures consistent cerebral blood flow by adjusting vessel diameter. Rationale: Autoregulation maintains consistent cerebral blood flow (CBF) despite changes in systemic pressure by adjusting cerebral vessel diameter.
46
Which of the following are true regarding cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP)? (SATA) A. CPP = MAP − ICP B. Normal CPP is 60–100 mm Hg C. CPP < 50 mm Hg may cause ischemia D. CPP < 30 mm Hg is survivable with oxygen therapy E. CPP reflects the impact of cerebrovascular resistance in all brain areas
A. CPP = MAP − ICP B. Normal CPP is 60–100 mm Hg C. CPP < 50 mm Hg may cause ischemia Rationale: Options A–C are correct based on standard definitions. Option D is false—CPP <30 mm Hg is incompatible with life. Option E is false because CPP may not reflect local perfusion due to swelling or compression.
47
A patient with traumatic brain injury has an ICP of 30 mm Hg and MAP of 80 mm Hg. Which action by the nurse is most critical? A. Prepare for emergency CSF drainage. B. Increase IV fluids to raise blood pressure. C. Assess for pupil reactivity and LOC. D. Monitor serum sodium to reduce brain edema.
A. Prepare for emergency CSF drainage. Rationale: CPP = 80 − 30 = 50 mm Hg, indicating risk for cerebral ischemia. Immediate interventions to lower ICP (e.g., draining CSF) are priority to prevent neuron death.
48
Which MAP value represents the upper limit of cerebral autoregulation? A. 100 mm Hg B. 120 mm Hg C. 150 mm Hg D. 160 mm Hg
C. 150 mm Hg Rationale: The upper limit of autoregulation is a MAP of 150 mm Hg. Beyond this, vessels can no longer constrict to protect brain tissue, increasing risk of hyperperfusion and damage.
49
A nurse is caring for a patient with stroke who has mild cerebral edema. Why might the provider allow the blood pressure to remain slightly elevated? A. To enhance CPP and perfusion to affected brain tissue B. To prevent seizures associated with hypotension C. To reduce the risk of herniation by increasing ICP D. To promote reabsorption of cerebral spinal fluid
A. To enhance CPP and perfusion to affected brain tissue Rationale: In localized injury like stroke, raising MAP helps elevate CPP in areas of compromised perfusion and prevent further ischemic injury.
50
A post-op craniectomy patient has a MAP of 95 mm Hg and an ICP of 35 mm Hg. What is the patient’s CPP and interpretation? A. CPP is 65 mm Hg, which is optimal B. CPP is 60 mm Hg, which supports perfusion C. CPP is 55 mm Hg, requiring increased MAP D. CPP is 50 mm Hg, which may lead to ischemia
D. CPP is 50 mm Hg, which may lead to ischemia Rationale: CPP = 95 − 35 = 60 mm Hg, which is borderline low. In a patient with brain trauma, local swelling may mean even 60 mm Hg is insufficient, putting them at risk for ischemia.
51
Which of the following conditions would most likely impair cerebral autoregulation? A. MAP of 85 mm Hg with ICP of 10 mm Hg B. MAP of 160 mm Hg with normal ICP C. MAP of 90 mm Hg and stable blood gases D. MAP of 100 mm Hg with PaCO2 of 40 mm Hg
B. MAP of 160 mm Hg with normal ICP Rationale: A MAP >150 mm Hg exceeds the upper limit of autoregulation. Beyond this, vessels are maximally constricted, losing their ability to regulate CBF.
52
What occurs when cerebral autoregulation fails? (SATA) A. Cerebral blood flow becomes pressure-dependent B. CPP falls to dangerous levels C. Brain vessels adjust to maintain perfusion D. Local ischemia may occur E. Metabolic demands of the brain decrease
A. Cerebral blood flow becomes pressure-dependent B. CPP falls to dangerous levels D. Local ischemia may occur Rationale: When autoregulation fails, CBF varies directly with MAP (A), CPP can fall dangerously (B), and local ischemia (D) can result. Options C and E are false—vessels can no longer adjust, and brain metabolic needs remain high.
53
The ICU nurse is monitoring a patient post-aneurysm rupture. The provider orders to maintain CPP above 70 mm Hg. Which intervention supports this goal? A. Keep MAP at 55 mm Hg B. Lower head of bed to reduce ICP C. Administer mannitol to increase MAP D. Maintain normothermia to reduce metabolic demand
B. Lower head of bed to reduce ICP Rationale: Lowering the head of bed can reduce ICP, which increases CPP when MAP remains constant (CPP = MAP − ICP). Maintaining a CPP >70 mm Hg ensures adequate perfusion.
54
A patient presents with syncope and blurred vision. VS: MAP 65 mm Hg, ICP 10 mm Hg. Which interpretation is most accurate? A. ICP is too high, leading to reduced CPP. B. Autoregulation is intact and compensating. C. CPP is 55 mm Hg, which is below the threshold for adequate perfusion. D. Symptoms are unrelated to cerebral blood flow.
C. CPP is 55 mm Hg, which is below the threshold for adequate perfusion. Rationale: CPP = 65 − 10 = 55 mm Hg. This is below the normal limit (60 mm Hg), indicating cerebral hypoperfusion and ischemic symptoms.
55
Which of the following best explains the relationship between cerebrovascular resistance and CPP? A. Increased resistance impairs brain perfusion. B. High resistance enhances blood flow. C. Cerebrovascular resistance is not linked to CPP. D. Resistance is controlled by CSF volume.
A. Increased resistance impairs brain perfusion. Rationale: As cerebrovascular resistance increases (due to arteriolar constriction or swelling), blood flow is reduced even if CPP appears normal.
56
A patient with increased ICP is at risk for cerebral ischemia. Why must the nurse maintain adequate MAP? A. To prevent hemorrhage in compressed brain tissue B. To avoid hyperemia from increased cerebral pressure C. To support CPP and maintain oxygen delivery D. To enhance autoregulation and CSF production
C. To support CPP and maintain oxygen delivery Rationale: Maintaining MAP ensures adequate CPP when ICP is elevated, supporting cerebral oxygenation and perfusion.
57
A patient with ICP of 22 mm Hg and MAP of 70 mm Hg is showing decreased LOC. The provider orders to increase CPP. Which action should the nurse anticipate? A. Lower MAP with antihypertensives B. Raise HOB to 90° C. Give IV fluids to dilute CSF D. Administer vasopressors to increase MAP
D. Administer vasopressors to increase MAP Rationale: CPP = 70 − 22 = 48 mm Hg. Vasopressors will raise MAP, which increases CPP and improves perfusion. Other options either reduce MAP or are not clinically appropriate for increasing CPP.
58
A patient presents with a PaCO₂ of 50 mm Hg. Which physiological response is expected in the cerebral vasculature? A. Vasoconstriction leading to decreased CBF B. Vasodilation leading to increased CBF C. No change in vessel tone D. Decreased intracranial pressure due to vasoconstriction
B. Vasodilation leading to increased CBF Rationale: An elevated PaCO₂ causes cerebral vasodilation, decreasing cerebrovascular resistance and increasing CBF.
59
Which PaCO₂ level is most likely to cause cerebral vasoconstriction? A. 30 mm Hg B. 40 mm Hg C. 50 mm Hg D. 60 mm Hg
A. 30 mm Hg Rationale: A PaCO₂ of 30 mm Hg is below the normal range, leading to cerebral vasoconstriction, increased resistance, and decreased CBF.
60
Which factors can lead to increased cerebral blood flow? Select all that apply. (SATA) A. Elevated PaCO₂ B. Decreased PaO₂ below 50 mm Hg C. Alkalosis D. Acidosis E. Hyperventilation
A. Elevated PaCO₂ B. Decreased PaO₂ below 50 mm Hg D. Acidosis Rationale: Elevated PaCO₂ and decreased PaO₂ below 50 mm Hg cause vasodilation, increasing CBF. Acidosis (increased hydrogen ion concentration) also leads to vasodilation. Alkalosis and hyperventilation (which lowers PaCO₂) cause vasoconstriction, decreasing CBF.
61
A patient is experiencing hypoxia with a PaO₂ of 45 mm Hg. What is the expected cerebral response? A. Vasoconstriction to reduce CBF B. No change in vessel tone C. Vasodilation to increase CBF D. Decreased intracranial pressure
C. Vasodilation to increase CBF Rationale: A PaO₂ below 50 mm Hg triggers cerebral vasodilation to increase CBF and improve oxygen delivery.
62
In a state of acidosis, how does the cerebral vasculature respond? A. Vasodilation to increase CBF B. Vasoconstriction to decrease CBF C. No change in vessel tone D. Increased cerebrovascular resistance
A. Vasodilation to increase CBF Rationale: Acidosis leads to vasodilation in cerebral vessels, decreasing resistance and increasing CBF to meet metabolic demands.
63
Which condition is most likely to impair cerebral autoregulation? A. Stable PaCO₂ and PaO₂ levels B. Hyperventilation-induced hypocapnia C. Normotension D. Mild alkalosis
B. Hyperventilation-induced hypocapnia Rationale: Hypocapnia from hyperventilation causes cerebral vasoconstriction, which can impair autoregulation and decrease CBF.
64
A patient with a traumatic brain injury is hyperventilated to a PaCO₂ of 28 mm Hg. What is the primary goal of this intervention? A. Increase intracranial pressure B. Decrease cerebral blood flow C. Enhance oxygen delivery D. Induce cerebral vasodilation
B. Decrease cerebral blood flow Rationale: Hyperventilation lowers PaCO₂, causing cerebral vasoconstriction, which decreases CBF and subsequently lowers intracranial pressure.
65
Which combination of arterial blood gas values is most likely to result in cerebral vasodilation? A. PaCO₂ 30 mm Hg, PaO₂ 80 mm Hg, pH 7.45 B. PaCO₂ 50 mm Hg, PaO₂ 60 mm Hg, pH 7.35 C. PaCO₂ 40 mm Hg, PaO₂ 90 mm Hg, pH 7.40 D. PaCO₂ 35 mm Hg, PaO₂ 100 mm Hg, pH 7.50
B. PaCO₂ 50 mm Hg, PaO₂ 60 mm Hg, pH 7.35 Rationale: Elevated PaCO₂ and lower PaO₂ levels promote cerebral vasodilation to increase CBF.
66
Which conditions can lead to loss of cerebral autoregulation? Select all that apply. (SATA) A. Severe hypoxia B. Traumatic brain injury C. Hypercapnia D. Hypocapnia E. Systemic infections
A. Severe hypoxia B. Traumatic brain injury C. Hypercapnia E. Systemic infections Rationale: Severe hypoxia, traumatic brain injury, hypercapnia, and systemic infections can disrupt the mechanisms of cerebral autoregulation. Hypocapnia typically causes vasoconstriction but does not directly lead to loss of autoregulation.
67
A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis is experiencing metabolic acidosis. How does this affect cerebral blood flow? A. Decreases due to vasoconstriction B. Increases due to vasodilation C. Remains unchanged D. Fluctuates unpredictably
B. Increases due to vasodilation Rationale: Metabolic acidosis increases hydrogen ion concentration, leading to cerebral vasodilation and increased CBF.
68
During a cardiac arrest, what happens to cerebral blood flow? A. Increases due to compensatory mechanisms B. Remains stable due to autoregulation C. Increases due to systemic vasoconstriction D. Decreases due to loss of perfusion pressure
D. Decreases due to loss of perfusion pressure Rationale: Cardiac arrest leads to a cessation of effective circulation, resulting in decreased cerebral perfusion pressure and CBF.
69
Which statement best describes the effect of hypercapnia on cerebral vessels? A. Causes vasoconstriction, decreasing CBF B. Has no effect on cerebral vessels C. Leads to decreased intracranial pressure D. Causes vasodilation, increasing CBF
D. Causes vasodilation, increasing CBF Rationale: Hypercapnia (elevated PaCO₂) causes cerebral vasodilation, increasing CBF and potentially raising intracranial pressure.
70
A 34-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after a high-speed motor vehicle accident. A CT scan reveals a large epidural hematoma. The patient becomes increasingly lethargic and is now showing signs of decorticate posturing. Which priority intervention should the nurse anticipate? A. Administer mannitol to decrease intracranial pressure B. Initiate a lumbar puncture to relieve pressure C. Prepare for plasmapheresis to reduce edema D. Monitor for Cushing’s triad before notifying the provider
A. Administer mannitol to decrease intracranial pressure Rationale: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure by drawing fluid from the brain tissue into the vascular space. A lumbar puncture is contraindicated in increased ICP due to risk of brain herniation. Plasmapheresis is not indicated here. Cushing’s triad indicates late signs of brain herniation, so waiting for this would delay care.
71
A patient with suspected increased ICP is being monitored. Which finding is most concerning and requires immediate intervention? A. Temperature of 101.2°F (38.4°C) B. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg C. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min D. Unilateral fixed and dilated pupil
D. Unilateral fixed and dilated pupil Rationale: A unilateral fixed and dilated pupil indicates increased ICP with possible herniation, which is a neurologic emergency. Other values are concerning but not immediately life-threatening.
72
Which of the following are common causes of increased intracranial pressure? (SATA) A. Brain abscess B. Cerebral edema C. Liver failure D. Brain tumor E. Hypokalemia
A. Brain abscess B. Cerebral edema D. Brain tumor Rationale: Brain abscess, cerebral edema, and brain tumors are all known causes of increased ICP. Liver failure and hypokalemia are not direct causes.
73
Which mechanism contributes to a sustained increase in ICP following traumatic brain injury? A. Hypernatremia reduces CSF reabsorption and increases cerebral edema B. Systemic hypotension improves cerebral perfusion and increases cerebral edema C. Cerebral acidosis impairs autoregulation and increases cerebral edema D. Hypocapnia leads to cerebral vasodilation and increases cerebral edema
C. Cerebral acidosis impairs autoregulation and increases cerebral edema Rationale: Cerebral acidosis leads to impaired autoregulation and worsens cerebral edema, contributing to sustained ICP elevation. Hypocapnia causes vasoconstriction, not vasodilation.
74
A patient with a brain tumor is exhibiting signs of confusion, nausea, and new-onset vomiting. What is the most appropriate initial nursing action? A. Place the patient in a supine position B. Prepare for immediate surgical tumor resection C. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees D. Administer an opioid analgesic
C. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees Rationale: Elevating the HOB to 30 degrees promotes venous drainage and decreases ICP. Supine position can worsen ICP. Surgery and opioids may be appropriate later but are not the first nursing priority.
75
Which best describes the danger of brain herniation due to increased ICP? A. It may cause irreversible nephron damage B. It leads to spinal cord transection C. It causes obstruction of cerebrospinal fluid in the spinal column D. It results in compression of the medulla and cessation of respiratory function
D. It results in compression of the medulla and cessation of respiratory function Rationale: Brain herniation compresses the medulla, which contains the respiratory center. If unrelieved, this can result in respiratory arrest and death.
76
The nurse is monitoring a patient for increased ICP. Which assessment finding suggests a worsening condition? A. Bradycardia, widened pulse pressure, and irregular respirations B. Tachycardia, hypotension, and tachypnea C. Pupils equal and reactive, but sluggish to light D. Alert and oriented to name only
A. Bradycardia, widened pulse pressure, and irregular respirations Rationale: This describes Cushing’s triad, a classic late sign of increased ICP and impending herniation.
77
A patient with increased ICP is at risk for brainstem herniation. Which cranial nerve finding is most indicative of herniation? A. Loss of gag reflex B. Bilateral pupil constriction C. Facial droop D. Nystagmus
A. Loss of gag reflex Rationale: The gag reflex is controlled by cranial nerves IX and X, which emerge from the brainstem. Loss of this reflex may indicate brainstem dysfunction or herniation.
78
A patient with head trauma develops increasing ICP. Which pathophysiologic mechanism contributes to the ongoing increase in pressure? A. Increased PaO2 causes vasodilation B. Accumulation of lactic acid causes cerebral vasoconstriction C. Cerebral edema and hypercapnia cause further acidosis and vasodilation D. Elevated blood glucose triggers osmotic diuresis
C. Cerebral edema and hypercapnia cause further acidosis and vasodilation Rationale: Hypercapnia and lactic acid both contribute to acidosis, leading to vasodilation and further increasing ICP.
79
Which intervention is appropriate for a patient with increased ICP and signs of brain herniation? A. Delay care until EEG results are received B. Trendelenburg positioning C. Increase fluid intake to improve brain perfusion D. Hyperoxygenate and prepare for mechanical ventilation
D. Hyperoxygenate and prepare for mechanical ventilation Rationale: Hyperoxygenation can reduce ICP by preventing hypoxia. Mechanical ventilation may be necessary if respiratory effort is compromised. Trendelenburg increases ICP and should be avoided.
80
A patient with a large contusion and rising ICP becomes unresponsive. The nurse observes Cheyne-Stokes respirations and unilateral pupillary dilation. What does this most likely indicate? A. Hyperglycemia B. Respiratory infection C. Hypovolemic shock D. Brainstem compression
D. Brainstem compression Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes respirations and pupillary changes are classic signs of brainstem involvement, suggesting worsening herniation and increased ICP.
81
What are appropriate nursing interventions to reduce ICP in a patient with cerebral edema? (SATA) A. Elevate HOB to 30 degrees B. Keep neck in a neutral position C. Suction frequently and vigorously D. Cluster care to minimize disturbances E. Administer IV fluids rapidly
A. Elevate HOB to 30 degrees B. Keep neck in a neutral position D. Cluster care to minimize disturbances Rationale: Elevating HOB and neutral neck positioning promote venous drainage. Clustering care reduces stimulation. Vigorous suctioning and rapid fluids can raise ICP.
82
What is the major risk associated with brainstem compression from increased ICP? A. Respiratory arrest B. Memory loss C. Aphasia D. Blindness
A. Respiratory arrest Rationale: The respiratory center is in the medulla. Compression leads to respiratory failure and death if not reversed quickly.
83
cerebral edema
increased accumulation of fluid in the extravascualr spaces of brain tissue
84
A patient with a brain tumor is at high risk for vasogenic cerebral edema. What is the primary pathophysiologic mechanism causing this type of edema? A. Hypoxic damage to endothelial cells B. Disruption of the blood-brain barrier allowing fluid to shift into extracellular space C. Failure of sodium-potassium pumps causing intracellular swelling D. CSF buildup in the ventricles leading to increased intracranial pressure
B. Disruption of the blood-brain barrier allowing fluid to shift into extracellular space Rationale: Vasogenic edema is caused by a breakdown in the blood-brain barrier, typically due to tumors or trauma, allowing plasma proteins and fluid to leak into the extracellular space, increasing brain volume and ICP.
85
A patient presents with a sudden onset of confusion and right-sided weakness after a large ischemic stroke. A CT scan shows extensive cerebral edema. Which type of cerebral edema is most likely responsible for this patient’s condition? A. Cytotoxic edema B. Vasogenic edema C. Interstitial edema D. Osmotic edema
A. Cytotoxic edema Rationale: Cytotoxic edema is common after ischemia or hypoxia. It results from failure of the sodium-potassium pump in brain cells, leading to intracellular swelling and increased brain volume.
86
Which clinical scenario most accurately reflects interstitial cerebral edema? A. Traumatic brain injury with disruption of the BBB B. Hypoxic brain injury with sodium-potassium pump failure C. Obstructive hydrocephalus causing CSF leakage into brain parenchyma D. Brain tumor releasing cytokines into brain tissue
C. Obstructive hydrocephalus causing CSF leakage into brain parenchyma Rationale: Interstitial edema occurs primarily with hydrocephalus, where CSF flows across the ependymal lining into surrounding brain tissue, increasing brain volume and ICP.
87
A nurse is caring for a patient with cerebral edema. Which assessment finding would be most concerning and indicative of worsening ICP? A. Glasgow Coma Scale of 13 B. Intermittent headache C. Bilateral pupil reactivity D. Vomiting without nausea
D. Vomiting without nausea Rationale: Vomiting without nausea (projectile vomiting) is a classic sign of increased ICP, commonly associated with worsening cerebral edema.
88
Which of the following conditions are potential causes of vasogenic cerebral edema? (SATA) A. Brain tumor B. Head trauma C. Stroke D. Hypoxia E. Meningitis
A. Brain tumor B. Head trauma E. Meningitis Rationale: Vasogenic edema is caused by BBB disruption, commonly seen with tumors, trauma, and infections like meningitis. Stroke and hypoxia more often result in cytotoxic edema.
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A patient has cerebral edema due to traumatic brain injury. Which intervention is most likely to reduce ICP effectively? A. Positioning the patient flat in bed B. Providing continuous deep suctioning C. Increasing the patient’s fluid intake D. Administering hypertonic saline solution
D. Administering hypertonic saline solution Rationale: Hypertonic saline draws fluid from swollen brain cells into the intravascular space, reducing cerebral edema and ICP. Flat positioning and increased fluids can worsen ICP; deep suctioning may increase ICP due to stimulation.
90
A nurse is caring for a patient with vasogenic cerebral edema. The nurse knows that this type of edema occurs as a result of which of the following conditions? A. Increased accumulation of fluid within the brain cells B. Disruption of the blood-brain barrier C. Hypoxia of brain tissue D. Decreased blood flow to the brain
B. Disruption of the blood-brain barrier Rationale: Vasogenic cerebral edema is caused by the disruption of the blood-brain barrier, which allows large molecules (like proteins and blood products) to enter brain tissue, leading to edema.
91
A patient with vasogenic cerebral edema presents with severe headache, altered consciousness, and focal neurologic deficits. The nurse understands that which of the following mechanisms most likely contributes to the patient’s symptoms? A. The osmotic gradient causes fluid to move from the brain into the bloodstream B. Decreased oxygen supply to brain tissue causes ischemia C. Blood-brain barrier disruption allows blood products and proteins to enter the brain D. Increased cerebral blood flow causes swelling in the brain tissue
C. Blood-brain barrier disruption allows blood products and proteins to enter the brain Rationale: In vasogenic cerebral edema, the disruption of the blood-brain barrier allows large molecules, including proteins and blood products, to enter the brain, resulting in swelling and increased ICP.
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A nurse is monitoring a patient with vasogenic cerebral edema. Which of the following symptoms should prompt the nurse to further assess for progression of the condition? A. Sudden improvement in level of consciousness B. Mild headache with occasional nausea C. A change in mental status, from confusion to coma D. Peripheral edema and edema in extremities
C. A change in mental status, from confusion to coma Rationale: A rapid decline in mental status, including confusion progressing to coma, is indicative of worsening cerebral edema and increased ICP.
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When caring for a patient with vasogenic cerebral edema, the nurse should be aware that which of the following factors may influence the extent of edema? A. Systemic blood pressure and the site of the brain injury B. Age and gender of the patient C. Blood glucose levels and kidney function D. Oxygen saturation levels and body temperature
A. Systemic blood pressure and the site of the brain injury Rationale: Systemic blood pressure and the site of the brain injury influence the extent of vasogenic edema because the blood-brain barrier’s disruption can vary based on these factors.
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A patient with vasogenic cerebral edema is experiencing symptoms ranging from headache to decreased consciousness. The nurse understands that these symptoms are the result of which primary mechanism? A. Decreased blood supply to the brain tissue B. Osmotic changes leading to fluid accumulation in brain tissue C. Increased intracranial pressure causing brainstem compression D. Inflammation of brain tissue leading to neuronal injury
B. Osmotic changes leading to fluid accumulation in brain tissue Rationale: In vasogenic cerebral edema, osmotic changes occur as large molecules enter brain tissue, creating an osmotic gradient that draws fluid into the extracellular space, leading to increased ICP.
95
A nurse is assessing a patient with vasogenic cerebral edema. The nurse is concerned when the patient reports which of the following symptoms? A. Occasional headache B. Dizziness when standing up C. Sudden onset of severe headache with altered mental status D. Slight confusion that resolves with rest
C. Sudden onset of severe headache with altered mental status Rationale: A sudden onset of severe headache combined with altered mental status, such as confusion, is indicative of worsening cerebral edema and requires immediate attention.
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Which of the following assessments should the nurse prioritize for a patient with vasogenic cerebral edema, as the condition may progress rapidly? A. Temperature and heart rate B. Respiratory status and oxygen levels C. Blood glucose levels and urinary output D. Neurologic status, including level of consciousness
D. Neurologic status, including level of consciousness Rationale: Changes in neurologic status, including level of consciousness, are critical to monitor in patients with vasogenic cerebral edema as it can rapidly progress from confusion to coma and death.
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A nurse is explaining the pathophysiology of vasogenic cerebral edema to a student. Which statement by the student indicates that further teaching is needed? A. “Vasogenic edema results in the movement of fluid from the bloodstream into the brain tissue.” B. “The blood-brain barrier is disrupted, allowing larger molecules to enter the brain.” C. “Fluid accumulation in the brain increases extracellular volume and ICP.” D. “Vasogenic edema occurs mainly in the gray matter of the brain.”
D. “Vasogenic edema occurs mainly in the gray matter of the brain.” Rationale: Vasogenic edema occurs primarily in the white matter, not the gray matter. This reflects a misunderstanding that needs correction.
98
A nurse caring for a patient with vasogenic cerebral edema is concerned about a rapid increase in intracranial pressure (ICP). The nurse should anticipate which of the following interventions to manage increased ICP? A. Administering corticosteroids to reduce inflammation B. Increasing the patient’s fluid intake to reduce osmolality C. Administering sodium bicarbonate to correct acidosis D. Performing craniectomy to allow for brain expansion
A. Administering corticosteroids to reduce inflammation Rationale: Corticosteroids are commonly used to reduce cerebral edema by decreasing inflammation and stabilizing the blood-brain barrier, which helps reduce ICP.
99
A patient presents with cytotoxic cerebral edema following a traumatic brain injury. Which of the following is the primary cause of the edema in this patient? A) Disruption of the blood-brain barrier B) Fluid and protein shifts into the cells C) Increased interstitial fluid in the brain tissue D) Disruption of cerebral vasculature integrity
B) Fluid and protein shifts into the cells Rationale: Cytotoxic cerebral edema results from the disruption of cell membranes in brain tissue, causing fluid and protein to shift from the extracellular space into the cells, leading to cellular swelling. The blood-brain barrier remains intact in this type of edema, differentiating it from vasogenic edema.
100
A nurse is caring for a patient with cytotoxic cerebral edema. Which of the following pathophysiological events is most directly associated with this type of edema? A) Disruption of blood-brain barrier and leakage of large molecules into the brain B) Impaired cellular function due to swelling and fluid shift into the cells C) Increased extracellular fluid in the brain causing raised intracranial pressure D) Trauma-induced disruption of blood vessels in the brain
B) Impaired cellular function due to swelling and fluid shift into the cells Rationale: Cytotoxic cerebral edema occurs due to fluid and protein shifts into the brain cells, resulting in cellular swelling. This swelling impairs cellular function and causes tissue damage, unlike vasogenic edema, which involves the leakage of large molecules due to blood-brain barrier disruption.
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A patient with cytotoxic cerebral edema is experiencing increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following assessments is most indicative of the progression of cerebral edema? A) Dizziness and a mild headache B) Worsening of focal neurological deficits, such as hemiparesis C) A headache progressing to coma D) Sudden onset of confusion and a change in mental status
D) Sudden onset of confusion and a change in mental status Rationale: Cytotoxic cerebral edema causes swelling of brain cells, which may lead to a gradual or sudden decline in neurological function. Symptoms often include confusion, changes in mental status, and possibly loss of consciousness as the swelling increases. Severe cases may progress to coma or death, but subtle changes in mental status are an early sign.
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A patient with cytotoxic cerebral edema presents with a decreased level of consciousness (LOC). Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize? A) Monitoring the patient’s oxygenation and ensuring adequate ventilation B) Administering intravenous fluids to prevent dehydration C) Administering antihypertensive medications to reduce cerebral blood pressure D) Encouraging deep breathing exercises to increase oxygen supply
A) Monitoring the patient’s oxygenation and ensuring adequate ventilation Rationale: Oxygenation is critical in managing cytotoxic cerebral edema, as hypoxia or anoxia exacerbates brain injury. Ensuring adequate oxygenation helps prevent further cellular damage and reduces the risk of worsening edema. Hyperventilation or elevated CO2 levels could worsen edema, so managing oxygenation is crucial.
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A patient with cytotoxic cerebral edema is being treated for cerebral hypoxia following a traumatic brain injury. Which of the following lab findings is most likely to occur in this patient? A) Decreased serum sodium levels B) Elevated blood glucose levels C) Increased serum potassium levels D) Decreased white blood cell count
A) Decreased serum sodium levels Rationale: Cytotoxic cerebral edema can occur in the setting of hypoxia and anoxia. A common result is the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion, which leads to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia (decreased serum sodium levels). This electrolyte imbalance occurs due to the kidneys’ retention of water in response to elevated ADH levels.
104
The nurse is caring for a patient with cytotoxic cerebral edema secondary to traumatic brain injury. Which of the following interventions should the nurse anticipate to help reduce cerebral edema? A) Administration of corticosteroids B) Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) to improve oxygenation C) Hypertonic saline to decrease intracranial pressure D) Dehydration therapy to reduce brain swelling
C) Hypertonic saline to decrease intracranial pressure Rationale: Hypertonic saline is commonly used to reduce intracranial pressure in patients with cerebral edema by drawing fluid out of brain cells into the bloodstream. Corticosteroids are more effective for vasogenic edema, not cytotoxic edema. Dehydration therapy is not an appropriate method for managing cerebral edema and could lead to further complications.
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hydrocephalus
a buildup of fluid in the brain
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A patient is diagnosed with interstitial cerebral edema secondary to hydrocephalus. Which of the following findings is most characteristic of this condition? A) Decreased ventricular size B) Ventricular enlargement C) Increase in cerebral blood flow D) Hyperperfusion of brain tissue
B) Ventricular enlargement Rationale: Interstitial cerebral edema occurs due to the buildup of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the brain, commonly seen in hydrocephalus. This condition leads to ventricular enlargement, which is a hallmark sign of hydrocephalus. It is caused by an excess production of CSF, obstruction in its flow, or an inability to reabsorb it.
107
A nurse is caring for a patient with hydrocephalus and interstitial cerebral edema. Which of the following is the primary cause of this condition? A) Disruption of the blood-brain barrier B) Impaired cellular membrane integrity C) Obstruction of CSF flow, leading to fluid buildup D) Leakage of large molecules into the brain tissue
C) Obstruction of CSF flow, leading to fluid buildup Rationale: Interstitial cerebral edema is often caused by hydrocephalus, which results from either an overproduction of CSF, obstruction of CSF flow, or an impaired ability to reabsorb CSF. The obstruction leads to a buildup of CSF in the ventricles, causing ventricular enlargement and increased pressure on brain tissue.
108
A patient with hydrocephalus presents with increasing ventricular enlargement. Which of the following assessments is most likely to confirm the presence of interstitial cerebral edema? A) Increased intracranial pressure (ICP) B) Decreased consciousness and focal neurological deficits C) Swelling of brain tissue in the interstitial spaces D) Absence of ventricular enlargement
A) Increased intracranial pressure (ICP) Rationale: As hydrocephalus leads to a buildup of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and enlargement of the ventricles, it causes an increase in intracranial pressure (ICP). This pressure can compress brain tissue, leading to interstitial cerebral edema and associated neurological symptoms such as decreased consciousness and possible focal deficits.
109
A nurse is caring for a patient with hydrocephalus. Which of the following interventions would be most appropriate to manage interstitial cerebral edema? A) Administration of corticosteroids to reduce inflammation B) Shunt placement to drain excess cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) C) Hypertonic saline to decrease intracranial pressure D) Diuretics to reduce brain swelling
B) Shunt placement to drain excess cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) Rationale: In hydrocephalus, the most appropriate intervention to manage interstitial cerebral edema is to address the buildup of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) by placing a shunt. The shunt diverts excess CSF away from the ventricles and into other areas of the body, helping to reduce ventricular enlargement and intracranial pressure.
110
A nurse is assessing a patient who has become acutely unconscious. Which of the following should be the nurse’s first action to rule out increased intracranial pressure (ICP)? A) Perform a neurological assessment, including cranial nerve reflexes B) Measure the patient’s blood pressure and heart rate C) Administer an intravenous (IV) fluid bolus to increase blood volume D) Immediately call the healthcare provider for a CT scan
A) Perform a neurological assessment, including cranial nerve reflexes Rationale: Any patient who becomes acutely unconscious should be suspected of having increased ICP. The first priority is to perform a thorough neurological assessment, including checking cranial nerve reflexes, as this will help determine the severity of brain involvement and guide further actions, including the need for imaging studies like CT scans.
111
A patient with suspected increased intracranial pressure (ICP) presents with acute unconsciousness. Which of the following is the most important sign that would indicate increased ICP? A) Elevated blood pressure B) Decreased level of consciousness C) Increased heart rate D) Widened pulse pressure
B) Decreased level of consciousness Rationale: Decreased level of consciousness (LOC) is one of the most important clinical manifestations of increased ICP. As ICP increases, it can compress the brainstem, leading to a decreased LOC. Early recognition of this change can lead to prompt intervention and prevent further brain injury.
112
A nurse is caring for a patient with acute unconsciousness and suspected increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse be most concerned about? A) Decreased blood pressure and abnormal eye movements B) Sudden onset of a headache and abnormal eye movements C) Pupillary changes and abnormal eye movements D) Absence of a cough reflex and abnormal eye movements
C) Pupillary changes and abnormal eye movements Rationale: Pupillary changes and abnormal eye movements are significant clinical manifestations of increased ICP. These changes may indicate brainstem involvement or pressure on the cranial nerves, which can rapidly worsen if not addressed. Immediate intervention is necessary to assess the degree of brain dysfunction.
113
A nurse is caring for a patient who has developed acute unconsciousness. What is the most likely cause of this condition if the patient is suspected of having increased intracranial pressure (ICP)? A) Increased blood volume due to fluid overload B) Decreased oxygen levels in the brain tissue C) Disruption in the integrity of the blood-brain barrier D) Pressure on brain tissue from a mass effect, edema, or hemorrhage
D) Pressure on brain tissue from a mass effect, edema, or hemorrhage Rationale: Increased ICP is most commonly caused by pressure on brain tissue due to factors such as a mass (e.g., tumor, hematoma), edema, or hemorrhage. These conditions cause brain tissue compression, which increases ICP and can lead to acute unconsciousness, a key clinical manifestation of increased ICP.
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unconsciousness
an abnormal state of complete or partial awareness of self or environment
115
A nurse is assessing a client with a traumatic brain injury. Which of the following findings is the earliest and most reliable indication of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)? A. Change in level of consciousness B. Fixed and dilated pupils C. Bradycardia D. Projectile vomiting
A. Change in level of consciousness Rationale: The most sensitive and earliest indicator of neurologic deterioration or increased ICP is a change in LOC. This occurs due to decreased cerebral perfusion and impaired function of the cerebral cortex or RAS. Pupillary changes, bradycardia, and vomiting are later signs of increased ICP.
116
A 45-year-old male is brought to the ED after being found unconscious at home. His wife reports he had been increasingly confused over the past few days. On admission, the patient does not respond to verbal commands but withdraws from painful stimuli. Pupils are equal and reactive. What is the priority nursing action? A. Monitor urine output and electrolyte balance B. Notify the provider immediately and prepare for potential intubation C. Administer IV mannitol D. Assess for neck stiffness and Brudzinski’s sign
B. Notify the provider immediately and prepare for potential intubation Rationale: A declining LOC with reduced response to painful stimuli indicates potential progression toward coma. Airway protection becomes a priority as the patient may lose gag and swallow reflexes. While monitoring urine and administering mannitol may be appropriate later, airway is the immediate concern.
117
Which structure is responsible for maintaining wakefulness, and when disrupted, can contribute to altered levels of consciousness? A. Cerebellum B. Hippocampus C. Reticular activating system D. Corpus callosum
C. Reticular activating system Rationale: The RAS, located in the brainstem, is crucial for maintaining arousal and wakefulness. Impairment of the RAS leads to varying degrees of unconsciousness, depending on the extent of damage.
118
The nurse is caring for a patient with increased ICP. The patient is now unresponsive to voice but moans with pain. Which of the following findings would require immediate action? A. Inability to follow simple commands B. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 10 C. Loss of pupillary reflex D. Restlessness and agitation
C. Loss of pupillary reflex Rationale: Loss of pupillary reflexes may indicate brainstem involvement and impending herniation, which is a neurological emergency. Other symptoms indicate progression of increased ICP but are not as immediately life-threatening as brainstem dysfunction.
119
Which of the following are subtle signs of decreasing level of consciousness in a patient with suspected increased ICP? Select all that apply. A. Decreased level of attention B. Flattened affect C. Sudden hemiplegia D. Disorientation to time E. Inability to cough
A. Decreased level of attention B. Flattened affect D. Disorientation to time Rationale: Subtle signs of declining LOC include changes in affect, orientation, and attention. Sudden hemiplegia and inability to cough are more advanced neurologic signs seen in late or severe brain injury.
120
A patient in the ICU is unresponsive and does not react to painful stimuli. Which additional finding would confirm that the patient is in a deep coma? A. Absent corneal reflex B. Positive Babinski reflex C. Decerebrate posturing D. Bilateral slow-reacting pupils
A. Absent corneal reflex Rationale: In deep coma, the patient loses reflexes such as the corneal and pupillary reflexes. The absence of the corneal reflex is a grave sign indicating severe dysfunction of the brainstem.
121
A nurse is caring for a patient admitted after a head injury. The patient was alert on admission but now is disoriented and drowsy. Which action should the nurse take first? A. Increase IV fluids to maintain cerebral perfusion B. Prepare the patient for lumbar puncture C. Reassess the GCS score in 2 hours D. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees
D. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees Rationale: A change in LOC following a head injury suggests rising ICP. Elevating the head promotes venous drainage and reduces ICP. A lumbar puncture is contraindicated if ICP is suspected to be elevated due to risk of herniation.
122
Which EEG finding would correlate with a patient in a coma? A. Normal alpha waves B. Increased theta wave activity C. Suppressed or absent neuronal activity D. Increased beta wave activity
C. Suppressed or absent neuronal activity Rationale: In coma, EEG typically shows suppressed or absent activity, indicating minimal or absent cortical brain function. This confirms severe neurological impairment.
123
A nurse is monitoring a patient post-craniotomy. The patient is now showing a flat affect and is not responding to orientation questions. What is the most appropriate nursing interpretation? A. The patient is likely post-ictal after a seizure B. These findings are expected postoperatively C. These may be early indicators of increased ICP D. The patient is experiencing postoperative delirium
C. These may be early indicators of increased ICP Rationale: Flat affect and decreased orientation are subtle yet important signs of increasing ICP. Prompt recognition and intervention are essential to prevent further neurologic deterioration.
124
Which of the following findings are characteristic of a patient in a comatose state? Select all that apply. A. Unresponsive to verbal and painful stimuli B. Present gag and swallow reflex C. Absent corneal and pupillary reflexes D. Continent of urine and feces E. Suppressed EEG activity
A. Unresponsive to verbal and painful stimuli C. Absent corneal and pupillary reflexes E. Suppressed EEG activity Rationale: In coma, the patient does not respond to pain, has absent brainstem reflexes (corneal, pupillary), and shows severely reduced neuronal activity on EEG. They are typically incontinent and have no protective reflexes like swallowing or gagging.
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Cushing triad
systolic hypertension with a widening pulse pressure, bradycardia with a full and bounding pulse, irregular respirations
126
A nurse is caring for a client with a traumatic brain injury. During the assessment, the nurse notes the following: BP 180/90 mm Hg, HR 48 bpm with bounding pulses, and irregular respirations. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing interpretation of these findings? A. The client is exhibiting signs of shock B. The client is showing normal autonomic nervous system response C. The client is showing signs of Cushing triad D. The client has entered the postictal phase
C. The client is showing signs of Cushing triad Rationale: Cushing triad is a classic, late sign of increased ICP and indicates brainstem compression and impending death. It is characterized by systolic hypertension with widening pulse pressure, bradycardia with a full bounding pulse, and irregular respirations. These are compensatory responses triggered by the brainstem in response to increased ICP. Shock would typically present with hypotension and tachycardia. This is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention.
127
A client with increased ICP is found to have a sudden increase in temperature to 39.5°C (103.1°F). What is the most likely cause of this change? A. The presence of systemic infection B. Direct hypothalamic dysfunction due to pressure C. Metabolic acidosis from anaerobic metabolism D. A neurogenic fever from spinal cord injury
B. Direct hypothalamic dysfunction due to pressure Rationale: The hypothalamus regulates temperature. When ICP increases and compresses the hypothalamus, it can disrupt temperature regulation, causing hyperthermia. While infection could also cause fever, a sudden high temperature in the absence of infection in a neurologic client suggests central (neurogenic) fever due to hypothalamic involvement.
128
The nurse is assessing a patient with suspected increased ICP. Which of the following vital sign changes would support this diagnosis? (SATA) A. BP 200/100 with pulse pressure of 100 mm Hg B. HR 48 bpm and bounding C. Irregular respiratory pattern D. Temperature of 97.0°F (36.1°C) E. Apnea followed by deep, rapid breathing F. HR 120 bpm and thready pulse
A. BP 200/100 with pulse pressure of 100 mm Hg B. HR 48 bpm and bounding C. Irregular respiratory pattern E. Apnea followed by deep, rapid breathing Rationale: * A: Wide pulse pressure is part of Cushing triad. * B: Bradycardia with a bounding pulse is classic. * C: Irregular respirations occur due to brainstem involvement. * E: Cheyne-Stokes respirations or other irregular patterns often appear. * D: A low temperature is not commonly associated unless hypothalamus is involved in a different way. * F: Tachycardia and thready pulse are more typical of shock, not increased ICP.
129
Which part of the brain is most directly responsible for the irregular respiratory pattern seen in Cushing triad? A. Cerebellum B. Thalamus C. Hippocampus D. Medulla oblongata
D. Medulla oblongata Rationale: The medulla is the primary respiratory control center. As ICP increases and pressure is exerted on the brainstem, particularly the medulla, respiratory rate and rhythm become irregular, signaling a dangerous progression of ICP.
130
A 24-year-old patient with head trauma is being monitored in the ICU. The nurse notes that the patient’s blood pressure has steadily increased over the last hour, the pulse has dropped, and respirations have become erratic. What is the priority nursing action? A. Increase IV fluid rate B. Prepare for intubation C. Notify the HCP immediately D. Administer acetaminophen for fever
C. Notify the HCP immediately Rationale: These signs indicate Cushing triad, a medical emergency signaling brainstem compression and the possibility of herniation. While preparing for intubation may be needed soon, the first priority is rapid notification of the provider so life-saving interventions to reduce ICP can be implemented.
131
What does a widening pulse pressure specifically indicate in a patient with increasing ICP? A. Increased blood loss B. Impaired perfusion to the cerebrum C. Loss of thermoregulation D. Compensation to maintain cerebral perfusion pressure
D. Compensation to maintain cerebral perfusion pressure Rationale: As ICP increases, the body attempts to maintain cerebral perfusion by increasing systolic blood pressure, while the diastolic may remain the same or drop slightly, resulting in a widening pulse pressure. This is part of Cushing’s triad and is a compensatory mechanism to maintain adequate CPP (MAP - ICP).
132
A nurse is monitoring a patient with a known brain tumor. The nurse notes sudden bradycardia, hypertension, and Cheyne-Stokes respirations. What conclusion can the nurse make? A. The patient is experiencing increased ICP with possible brainstem compression B. The patient is experiencing hypovolemic shock C. The tumor is resolving and cerebral blood flow is improving D. The patient is demonstrating signs of a stroke in evolution
A. The patient is experiencing increased ICP with possible brainstem compression Rationale: These vital sign changes are hallmarks of Cushing triad, which suggests a severe increase in ICP. This scenario is an urgent, life-threatening neurologic event that requires immediate intervention to prevent herniation and death. This is not consistent with stroke alone or hypovolemia.
133
A nurse is assessing a patient with suspected increased ICP. Which ocular finding requires immediate notification of the provider? A. Bilateral pinpoint pupils B. Fixed and dilated pupil on the right side C. Reactive pupils with slight asymmetry D. Bilateral sluggish pupillary response
B. Fixed and dilated pupil on the right side Rationale: A fixed, unilateral, dilated pupil is a neurologic emergency indicating uncal herniation with CN III compression. It signifies brain herniation, requiring immediate intervention. Options A, C, and D may suggest increased ICP but are not as immediately life-threatening as a unilateral fixed and dilated pupil.
134
The nurse notes that a patient’s right eyelid is drooping and the right pupil is dilated and nonreactive to light. Which cranial nerve is most likely being compressed? A. Cranial Nerve II B. Cranial Nerve III C. Cranial Nerve IV D. Cranial Nerve VI
B. Cranial Nerve III Rationale: Compression of CN III (oculomotor nerve) causes ipsilateral pupil dilation, ptosis (drooping eyelid), and an inability to move the eye upward. CN II is responsible for vision, CN IV controls downward movement, and CN VI affects lateral movement.
135
A patient with a brain tumor is being monitored for signs of increased ICP. The nurse notices unequal pupils and ptosis on the left side. What is the most appropriate interpretation of these findings? A. Early sign of optic nerve irritation B. Result of a migraine aura C. Normal variation in eye anatomy D. Compression of the oculomotor nerve
D. Compression of the oculomotor nerve Rationale: Unilateral ptosis and unequal pupil size (anisocoria) are hallmark signs of CN III compression, often due to shifting brain tissue from a mass effect like a tumor. This is a serious finding that indicates increased ICP and possible herniation.
136
Which clinical finding would most suggest that a patient is experiencing uncal herniation? A. Unilateral dilated pupil B. Bilaterally sluggish pupils C. Bilateral pinpoint pupils D. Constricted pupils with reactive light response
A. Unilateral dilated pupil Rationale: Uncal herniation compresses CN III on one side, leading to a unilateral dilated, nonreactive pupil. Central herniation typically results in bilateral sluggish pupils, and pinpoint pupils are more consistent with pontine damage.
137
A nurse observes a fixed, dilated pupil in a patient recently admitted with head trauma. What is the priority action? A. Notify the provider immediately B. Perform a Glasgow Coma Scale assessment C. Document the findings and continue monitoring D. Ask the patient about visual disturbances
A. Notify the provider immediately Rationale: A fixed, dilated pupil is a neurological emergency indicating potential brain herniation. Immediate action is required to prevent irreversible brain damage or death. This finding is not one to simply monitor or assess further before notifying the provider.
138
Which of the following are clinical signs of cranial nerve involvement due to increased ICP? Select all that apply: A. Blurred vision B. Ptosis C. Pinpoint pupils D. Diplopia E. Nystagmus
A. Blurred vision B. Ptosis D. Diplopia Rationale: Blurred vision, ptosis, and diplopia are all associated with compression of CNs II, III, IV, or VI. Pinpoint pupils are not characteristic of CN compression from increased ICP, and nystagmus is not mentioned as a typical manifestation in this context.
139
Which statement best describes the significance of papilledema in a patient with suspected increased ICP? A. It confirms optic nerve damage B. It suggests an acute brain hemorrhage C. It indicates irreversible brain herniation D. It is a nonspecific sign of sustained increased ICP
D. It is a nonspecific sign of sustained increased ICP Rationale: Papilledema, or optic disc swelling, is a nonspecific indicator of persistent elevated ICP. It doesn’t necessarily indicate acute herniation or damage but supports the need for further investigation of ICP status.
140
A patient with suspected increased ICP shows sluggish pupillary response to light bilaterally. What might this finding indicate? A. Central herniation B. Uncal herniation C. Seizure activity D. Visual cortex damage
A. Central herniation Rationale: Central herniation may present with bilateral sluggish pupil responses due to symmetric pressure on the brainstem. In contrast, uncal herniation typically presents with unilateral dilation.
141
The ICU nurse is caring for a patient with increased ICP and notes new onset of blurred vision and diplopia. What is the priority nursing intervention? A. Ask the patient when the symptoms started B. Decrease environmental stimulation C. Reassess in 30 minutes for progression D. Report to the healthcare provider immediately
D. Report to the healthcare provider immediately Rationale: Sudden visual changes such as blurred vision and diplopia suggest worsening ICP with possible cranial nerve involvement. These are early neurologic changes that could progress to herniation, and they require prompt medical evaluation.
142
papilledema
an edematous optic disc seen on retinal examination
143
ipsilateral
same side
144
contralateral
opposite side
145
decorticate
flexor
146
decerebrate
extension
147
A patient with increased ICP begins to exhibit decerebrate posturing. What is the most accurate interpretation of this finding? A. It indicates damage to the cerebral cortex B. It suggests a functional brainstem with minimal cortical input C. It indicates disruption of motor fibers in the midbrain and brainstem D. It is an early compensatory mechanism for increased ICP
C. It indicates disruption of motor fibers in the midbrain and brainstem Rationale: Decerebrate posturing is a sign of more serious brain injury and results from disruption of motor pathways in the midbrain and brainstem. It is a worse sign than decorticate posturing, which originates from cortical damage.
148
Which of the following best describes decorticate posturing in a patient with increased ICP? A. Extension of arms and legs, arms hyperpronated B. Flexion of arms with internal rotation, legs extended C. Flaccid extremities with no response to stimuli D. Flexion of both arms and legs with pronation
B. Flexion of arms with internal rotation, legs extended Rationale: Decorticate posturing is characterized by arm flexion, internal rotation, and leg extension. It suggests damage to the corticospinal tract above the brainstem, specifically within the cerebral cortex.
149
A nurse observes a patient with a brain injury who responds to a painful stimulus by extending both arms rigidly and plantar flexing the feet. What is the priority interpretation of this finding? A. Progression of brain injury indicating brainstem involvement B. Normal reaction to noxious stimuli C. Residual motor deficit from previous stroke D. Voluntary motor reaction due to waking from unconsciousness
A. Progression of brain injury indicating brainstem involvement Rationale: The described posture is decerebrate, which is associated with more severe injury and involvement of the brainstem. It is not normal and indicates worsening neurologic status.
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Which of the following are consistent with decerebrate posturing? Select all that apply: A. Hyperextension of the legs B. Internal rotation and adduction of the arms C. Arms stiffly extended D. Flexion of the elbows and wrists E. Plantar flexion of the feet F. Hyperpronation of the arms
A. Hyperextension of the legs C. Arms stiffly extended E. Plantar flexion of the feet F. Hyperpronation of the arms Rationale: Decerebrate posture involves rigid extension of the arms (C), hyperextension of the legs (A), plantar flexion of the feet (E), and hyperpronation of the arms (F). Internal rotation and flexion of the arms (B and D) describe decorticate posturing, not decerebrate.
151
A patient with increased ICP shows hemiplegia on the right side. Where is the lesion most likely located? A. Right cerebral hemisphere B. Left cerebral hemisphere C. Brainstem D. Cerebellum
B. Left cerebral hemisphere Rationale: Motor deficits are typically contralateral to the lesion. So, right-sided hemiplegia indicates a lesion in the left cerebral hemisphere. The cerebellum primarily controls coordination, and brainstem involvement would likely cause more global or bilateral deficits.
152
Which motor response is most favorable when a painful stimulus is applied to a patient with increased ICP? A. Withdrawal from the stimulus B. Decerebrate posturing C. Decorticate posturing D. No response
A. Withdrawal from the stimulus Rationale: Withdrawal to pain suggests higher-level motor control and some degree of cortical integrity. Decorticate and decerebrate posturing indicate progressively worse neurologic function, with decerebrate being more severe. No response is the most concerning.
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A nurse is performing a neuro check on a patient with a subdural hematoma. Upon applying painful stimulus, the patient grimaces and pulls away. What should the nurse document? A. Localizes to pain B. Withdraws to pain C. Decorticate response D. Flaccid response
B. Withdraws to pain Rationale: Pulling away from painful stimulus is a withdrawal response, indicating that the spinal cord and some cortical pathways are intact. Localization would involve purposeful movement toward the source of pain, not just pulling away.
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In the ICU, a patient with rising ICP transitions from decorticate to decerebrate posturing. What should the nurse prioritize? A. Administer analgesics B. Increase room stimulation to enhance wakefulness C. Encourage range-of-motion exercises D. Notify the provider immediately
D. Notify the provider immediately Rationale: Transition from decorticate to decerebrate posturing indicates neurological deterioration and brainstem involvement, which is life-threatening. Immediate notification is necessary to initiate urgent interventions.
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Which of the following best distinguishes decorticate from decerebrate posturing? A. Arm extension in decorticate, arm flexion in decerebrate B. Decerebrate is less severe than decorticate C. Leg movement differs significantly D. Arm flexion in decorticate, arm extension in decerebrate
D. Arm flexion in decorticate, arm extension in decerebrate Rationale: The key difference is in arm positioning: decorticate posture involves arm flexion, while decerebrate posture involves arm extension and pronation. Decerebrate posturing is a sign of more severe brain injury.
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A nurse is assessing a patient who reports daily headaches that are worse in the morning and improve as the day progresses. The patient also notes the pain worsens with coughing and straining. What is the nurse’s best interpretation of this symptom pattern? A. It indicates migraine headaches triggered by light exposure B. It suggests normal postural headache due to dehydration C. It may be a sign of increased intracranial pressure D. It is likely due to poor sleep hygiene and stress
C. It may be a sign of increased intracranial pressure Rationale: Morning or nocturnal headaches that worsen with activities like coughing or straining are classic signs of increased ICP, potentially from a mass or obstructed CSF flow. The brain tissue doesn’t feel pain, but compression of surrounding structures (e.g., blood vessels or cranial nerves) can lead to this type of headache.
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A 56-year-old patient is admitted for evaluation of a worsening headache. The patient reports the pain is worst upon waking and becomes more tolerable by noon. The patient denies visual disturbances but states the pain increases with sneezing or bending forward. Based on this data, what should the nurse prioritize? A. Refer the patient for a sleep study to evaluate for sleep apnea B. Document the pain as a common tension-type headache C. Encourage fluids and recommend OTC analgesics D. Notify the provider; findings suggest a possible increase in ICP
D. Notify the provider; findings suggest a possible increase in ICP Rationale: This headache presentation—worse in the morning, aggravated by Valsalva-like maneuvers (e.g., sneezing, bending)—is concerning for increased ICP, possibly from a mass or lesion. Early identification and neuroimaging are crucial to prevent further complications.
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Which statement by a patient would most concern the nurse in a neurological assessment? A. “My headache wakes me up at night and is worst when I first get out of bed.” B. “I get a headache after a long shift at work.” C. “I’ve had a dull ache in my temples every evening for the last week.” D. “I get sharp pain around my eyes when I’m in bright light.”
A. “My headache wakes me up at night and is worst when I first get out of bed.” Rationale: A headache that occurs at night or early morning is a red flag for increased ICP, especially when it disrupts sleep and worsens with postural changes. This may indicate a space-occupying lesion or other ICP-related pathology.
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Which of the following factors may exacerbate headache pain associated with increased intracranial pressure? Select all that apply: A. Coughing B. Straining during bowel movement C. Morning time D. Agitation or movement E. Quiet rest in a dark room
A. Coughing B. Straining during bowel movement C. Morning time D. Agitation or movement Rationale: Headaches associated with increased ICP are worsened by activities that raise intrathoracic pressure, like coughing (A) and straining (B). These increase cerebral venous pressure and ICP. Morning time (C) is often when ICP is highest due to recumbent positioning overnight. Agitation or movement (D) may also exacerbate symptoms. Quiet rest (E) may relieve, not worsen, the headache.
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unexpected vomiting
vomiting, not preceded by nausea
161
A nurse is caring for a patient with a suspected increase in intracranial pressure. Which clinical manifestation is most concerning and warrants immediate provider notification? A. Nausea followed by emesis after eating B. Vomiting preceded by abdominal cramps C. Projectile vomiting not preceded by nausea D. Vomiting after consuming high-fat foods
C. Projectile vomiting not preceded by nausea Rationale: Projectile vomiting without preceding nausea is a classic and nonspecific indicator of increased ICP. It occurs due to direct stimulation of the vomiting center in the brainstem from elevated pressure. This is a neurologic emergency, especially when paired with other signs like headache or altered LOC.
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A 70-year-old patient recovering from a fall presents with a sudden episode of projectile vomiting. The nurse notes the patient was not nauseated beforehand. The patient is alert but complains of a mild headache. What is the nurse’s best action? A. Reassure the patient and monitor for recurrence B. Administer antiemetic as ordered and reorient C. Ask about dietary intake to rule out food poisoning D. Notify the provider of possible increased ICP
D. Notify the provider of possible increased ICP Rationale: Projectile vomiting without nausea, particularly in the setting of head trauma and headache, raises a strong concern for elevated intracranial pressure. This symptom must be reported immediately to allow for urgent evaluation (e.g., neuroimaging, ICP monitoring). Anti-nausea meds won’t treat the underlying cause.
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The nurse is reviewing symptoms that may indicate increased intracranial pressure in a neurologic patient. Which of the following vomiting characteristics should the nurse consider as red flags? Select all that apply: A. Vomiting without warning or nausea B. Projectile vomiting C. Vomiting associated with abdominal pain D. Vomiting that occurs after Valsalva maneuver E. Vomiting after consuming spoiled food
A. Vomiting without warning or nausea B. Projectile vomiting Rationale: Unexpected (A) and projectile vomiting (B) are both hallmark, nonspecific indicators of increased ICP. These symptoms result from pressure on the vomiting center in the medulla and are not related to GI illness or food intake. Options C, D, and E are more suggestive of gastrointestinal or situational causes.
164
A patient with a history of a brain tumor reports waking up in the morning and having an episode of vomiting without feeling nauseated. Which explanation best describes this occurrence? A. The tumor is likely causing GI irritation B. This is expected as part of chemotherapy side effects C. Increased ICP is likely stimulating the vomiting center D. This represents viral gastroenteritis with atypical presentation
C. Increased ICP is likely stimulating the vomiting center Rationale: In patients with space-occupying lesions, such as tumors, the development of sudden vomiting without nausea is strongly linked to increased ICP, which affects the brainstem vomiting center directly. This symptom must not be dismissed or attributed solely to chemotherapy or GI causes.
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Which of the following patient statements would most concern the nurse assessing for neurologic complications? A. “I woke up and threw up suddenly—no nausea at all before it.” B. “I vomited three times after eating greasy food.” C. “I threw up this morning, but I had a stomachache all night.” D. “I felt nauseated all day and finally vomited after dinner.”
A. “I woke up and threw up suddenly—no nausea at all before it.” Rationale: Vomiting without prior nausea—especially if sudden or projectile—is a neurologic red flag suggestive of increased intracranial pressure. This finding is especially important when evaluating for conditions like tumors, hydrocephalus, or hemorrhages.
166
A patient presents with altered mental status and a history of hepatic encephalopathy. Which of the following laboratory findings would most likely contribute to the development of cerebral edema in this patient? A) Elevated serum sodium B) Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) C) Decreased liver enzymes D) Elevated serum ammonia
D) Elevated serum ammonia Rationale: Elevated serum ammonia is a hallmark of hepatic encephalopathy and contributes to cerebral edema by increasing astrocyte swelling due to ammonia’s neurotoxic effects.
167
A nurse is caring for a patient with a traumatic brain injury (TBI) who has developed cerebral edema. Which of the following types of cerebral edema is most commonly associated with TBI? A) Vasogenic edema B) Cytotoxic edema C) Interstitial edema D) Osmotic edema
A) Vasogenic edema Rationale: Vasogenic edema, resulting from the breakdown of the blood-brain barrier, is commonly associated with TBI, leading to fluid accumulation in the extracellular space.
168
A patient with a history of lead poisoning is admitted with signs of increased intracranial pressure. Which type of cerebral edema is most likely responsible for the patient’s symptoms? A) Cytotoxic edema B) Vasogenic edema C) Interstitial edema D) Hydrostatic edema
A) Cytotoxic edema Rationale: Lead poisoning can cause cytotoxic edema due to direct neuronal injury and disruption of cellular metabolism, leading to intracellular fluid accumulation.
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A patient is diagnosed with a brain abscess. Which type of cerebral edema is most likely to develop in this condition? A) Cytotoxic edema B) Vasogenic edema C) Interstitial edema D) Osmotic edema
B) Vasogenic edema Rationale: Infections like brain abscesses often lead to vasogenic edema due to increased permeability of the blood-brain barrier, allowing fluid to leak into the extracellular space.
170
A patient presents with symptoms of high-altitude cerebral edema (HACE). Which of the following best explains the pathophysiology behind HACE? A) Rapid increase in intracranial pressure due to hemorrhage B) Cytotoxic edema from neuronal injury C) Vasogenic edema from increased capillary permeability D) Interstitial edema from obstructed cerebrospinal fluid flow
C) Vasogenic edema from increased capillary permeability Rationale: HACE is primarily caused by vasogenic edema resulting from increased capillary permeability at high altitudes, leading to fluid leakage into the brain’s extracellular space.
171
A patient with acute liver failure is at risk for developing cerebral edema. What is the primary mechanism behind this complication? A) Accumulation of neurotoxins like ammonia B) Increased production of cerebrospinal fluid C) Elevated serum sodium levels D) Decreased intracranial pressure
A) Accumulation of neurotoxins like ammonia Rationale: In acute liver failure, the accumulation of neurotoxins, particularly ammonia, leads to astrocyte swelling and cerebral edema.
172
A patient with a history of meningitis is exhibiting signs of increased intracranial pressure. Which type of cerebral edema is most likely present? A) Cytotoxic edema B) Vasogenic edema C) Interstitial edema D) Osmotic edema
B) Vasogenic edema Rationale: Meningitis can disrupt the blood-brain barrier, leading to vasogenic edema characterized by fluid leakage into the extracellular space.
173
A patient with a large ischemic stroke is developing cerebral edema. Which type of edema is initially present in this condition? A) Vasogenic edema B) Cytotoxic edema C) Interstitial edema D) Osmotic edema
B) Cytotoxic edema Rationale: In the early stages of ischemic stroke, cytotoxic edema occurs due to energy failure and subsequent intracellular fluid accumulation.
174
A patient with a subdural hematoma is at risk for developing cerebral edema. What is the primary cause of edema in this scenario? A) Increased cerebrospinal fluid production B) Obstruction of venous outflow C) Neuronal hyperactivity D) Disruption of the blood-brain barrier
D) Disruption of the blood-brain barrier Rationale: Subdural hematomas can disrupt the blood-brain barrier, leading to vasogenic edema from fluid leakage into the extracellular space.
175
A patient with uremia is exhibiting neurological symptoms suggestive of cerebral edema. What is the underlying mechanism in this case? A) Cytotoxic edema due to toxin accumulation B) Vasogenic edema from inflammation C) Interstitial edema from hydrocephalus D) Osmotic edema from hyponatremia
A) Cytotoxic edema due to toxin accumulation Rationale: Uremia leads to the accumulation of toxins that can cause direct neuronal injury, resulting in cytotoxic edema.
176
A patient with cerebral venous sinus thrombosis is developing signs of increased intracranial pressure. Which type of cerebral edema is most likely responsible? A) Cytotoxic edema B) Vasogenic edema C) Interstitial edema D) Osmotic edema
B) Vasogenic edema Rationale: Cerebral venous sinus thrombosis can lead to increased venous pressure and disruption of the blood-brain barrier, resulting in vasogenic edema.
177
A nurse is monitoring a patient with elevated ICP. Which complication is most concerning if not managed promptly? A. Optic nerve damage B. Persistent nausea C. Hypothalamic temperature fluctuations D. Cerebral herniation
D. Cerebral herniation Rationale: Cerebral herniation is a life-threatening complication of uncontrolled ICP and represents a shift of brain tissue from its normal location. This can cause compression of vital structures, especially the brainstem, and often results in irreversible damage or death.
178
tentorium
a tent-like cover over the cerebellum
179
Which structure forms a rigid dural fold that separates the cerebellum from the cerebral hemispheres and contributes to herniation syndromes? A. Falx cerebri B. Corpus callosum C. Tentorium cerebelli D. Choroid plexus
C. Tentorium cerebelli Rationale: The tentorium cerebelli is a fold of dura mater that forms a tent-like separation between the cerebrum and cerebellum. It’s clinically important because it creates compartments within the skull, and herniation through this structure (e.g., uncal or central herniation) can compress the brainstem and be fatal.
180
A patient with a traumatic brain injury is showing signs of increasing ICP. The provider explains the patient may be experiencing central herniation. What is the best explanation for this condition? A. Brain tissue shifts laterally under the falx cerebri B. Cerebellar tonsils herniate upward into the cerebrum C. The optic nerve becomes compressed against the temporal bone D. Cerebral tissue is displaced downward through the foramen magnum
D. Cerebral tissue is displaced downward through the foramen magnum Rationale: Central (tentorial) herniation involves downward movement of cerebral structures through the tentorial notch, compressing the brainstem. This is a critical emergency because the brainstem houses vital autonomic centers, including respiratory and cardiovascular regulation.
181
The nurse is teaching a group of students about types of cerebral herniation. Which of the following statements are accurate? Select all that apply: A. Cingulate herniation occurs under the falx cerebri B. Tentorial herniation compresses the cerebellum directly C. Uncal herniation involves downward movement of the temporal lobe D. Central herniation is associated with compression of the brainstem E. Cerebral herniation can impair cerebral perfusion
A. Cingulate herniation occurs under the falx cerebri C. Uncal herniation involves downward movement of the temporal lobe D. Central herniation is associated with compression of the brainstem E. Cerebral herniation can impair cerebral perfusion Rationale: * A: Cingulate herniation involves tissue shifting under the falx cerebri. * C: Uncal herniation occurs laterally and downward, pushing the medial temporal lobe. * D: Central herniation is also known as tentorial herniation and compresses the brainstem. * E: All forms of herniation compromise cerebral blood flow and lead to hypoxia or ischemia. B is incorrect—tentorial herniation compresses brainstem structures, not the cerebellum directly.
182
Which patient finding would most strongly suggest early cingulate herniation? A. Loss of pupillary response on one side B. Lateral shift of cerebral tissue seen on imaging C. Sudden bradycardia and respiratory arrest D. Loss of corneal and gag reflexes
B. Lateral shift of cerebral tissue seen on imaging Rationale: Cingulate herniation occurs when brain tissue is pushed laterally under the falx cerebri. This can often be seen as a midline shift on CT or MRI and may initially present without profound clinical signs. As it progresses, neurological deterioration can occur.
183
A patient with a brain mass shows signs of uncal herniation. Which symptom is most likely to be present? A. Fixed and dilated pupil on the ipsilateral side B. Bilateral pinpoint pupils C. Bilateral flaccid paralysis D. Aphasia with left gaze deviation
A. Fixed and dilated pupil on the ipsilateral side Rationale: In uncal herniation, the medial temporal lobe compresses CN III, leading to ipsilateral pupil dilation that becomes fixed. This is a classic early sign and a neurologic emergency indicating brainstem involvement.
184
Which of the following complications may directly result from cerebral herniation? Select all that apply: A. Respiratory arrest B. Bradycardia C. Brainstem compression D. Increased spinal reflexes E. Irreversible coma
A. Respiratory arrest B. Bradycardia C. Brainstem compression E. Irreversible coma Rationale: Cerebral herniation can cause brainstem compression, leading to loss of autonomic function (A, B), and often progresses to irreversible coma or death (E). D is incorrect—spinal reflexes may diminish or be lost depending on the location of compression.
185
Which structure separates the right and left hemispheres of the cerebrum and is involved in cingulate herniation? A. Corpus callosum B. Tentorium cerebelli C. Falx cerebri D. Foramen magnum
C. Falx cerebri Rationale: The falx cerebri is a vertical fold of dura mater between the right and left cerebral hemispheres. In cingulate herniation, brain tissue is pushed beneath this midline structure, which may disrupt perfusion and worsen ICP.
186
The nurse suspects uncal herniation in a neurologic patient. Which cranial nerve is most at risk of compression? A. CN II (Optic) B. CN III (Oculomotor) C. CN V (Trigeminal) D. CN VIII (Vestibulocochlear)
B. CN III (Oculomotor) Rationale: The oculomotor nerve (CN III) is often compressed during uncal herniation, leading to a fixed, dilated pupil on the same side of the lesion. This occurs as the medial temporal lobe presses downward on the brainstem, impinging CN III fibers.
187
A nurse is monitoring a patient at risk for increased ICP. Which change is most indicative of cerebral perfusion impairment? A. Pupillary light reflex is brisk B. Blood pressure is 180/100 mm Hg with bounding pulses C. Glasgow Coma Scale increases from 12 to 14 D. The patient is restless, agitated, and confused
D. The patient is restless, agitated, and confused Rationale: Early signs of impaired cerebral perfusion include subtle changes in behavior, restlessness, or altered mental status, as the brain becomes hypoxic. This is an early clue to decreased perfusion due to rising ICP and precedes more severe signs like herniation or coma.
188
A patient is suspected of having increased intracranial pressure. Which diagnostic test is contraindicated due to the risk of herniation? A. CT scan B. MRI C. Lumbar puncture D. Transcranial Doppler
C. Lumbar puncture Rationale: A lumbar puncture is contraindicated in patients with suspected increased ICP because it can cause a sudden release of pressure below the skull, increasing the risk of brain herniation through the foramen magnum—a fatal complication.
189
The nurse is reviewing the diagnostic plan for a patient with increased ICP. Which of the following tests may be appropriate to help identify the cause and monitor treatment response? Select all that apply: A. CT scan B. EEG C. Infrascanner D. Serum sodium level E. Positron emission tomography (PET)
A. CT scan B. EEG C. Infrascanner E. Positron emission tomography (PET) Rationale: * CT scan (A): Standard imaging to evaluate structural causes of increased ICP. * EEG (B): Useful for evaluating cerebral function or detecting seizure activity. * Infrascanner (C): Handheld device to identify life-threatening intracranial bleeding. * PET scan (E): Detects metabolic changes in the brain and blood flow. D (serum sodium) is not a direct diagnostic tool for ICP, though important in management.
190
Which non-invasive diagnostic tool uses light absorption differences to detect intracranial hematomas? A. PET scan B. Infrascanner C. LICOX catheter D. Cerebral angiography
B. Infrascanner Rationale: The Infrascanner uses near-infrared light to detect intracranial bleeding by identifying areas where light absorption is altered by pooled blood from a hematoma.
191
A physician is considering a diagnostic study to monitor cerebrovascular resistance in a patient with head trauma. Which test is most appropriate? A. Transcranial Doppler B. EEG C. LICOX system D. Lumbar puncture
A. Transcranial Doppler Rationale: Transcranial Doppler ultrasonography is used to monitor cerebral blood flow velocity and resistance, which is particularly useful in patients with traumatic brain injury or stroke.
192
A 30-year-old patient presents with head trauma. The provider wants to assess brain tissue oxygenation levels. Which monitoring device is most appropriate? A. Infrascanner B. CT scan C. Evoked potentials D. LICOX catheter
D. LICOX catheter Rationale: The LICOX catheter directly measures brain tissue oxygenation (PbtO2) and temperature. It’s an invasive monitoring tool used in ICU settings for patients at risk for brain hypoxia due to increased ICP.
193
A nurse is reviewing the results of a patient’s diagnostic imaging after an episode of sudden headache and confusion. Which findings and tools would support a diagnosis of intracranial hemorrhage or increased ICP? Select all that apply: A. PET scan showing hypermetabolism in brainstem B. Infrascanner detection of abnormal light absorption C. MRI revealing mass effect and midline shift D. LICOX catheter revealing PbtO2 of 12 mm Hg E. Transcranial Doppler revealing reduced cerebral blood flow velocity
B. Infrascanner detection of abnormal light absorption C. MRI revealing mass effect and midline shift D. LICOX catheter revealing PbtO2 of 12 mm Hg E. Transcranial Doppler revealing reduced cerebral blood flow velocity Rationale: * B: Infrascanner detects light absorption changes from bleeding. * C: MRI can show midline shift and mass lesions, which are ICP indicators. * D: Low PbtO2 (<20 mm Hg) suggests inadequate brain oxygenation. * E: Decreased CBF velocity on Doppler = elevated ICP or poor perfusion. A (PET scan hypermetabolism in brainstem) is nonspecific and less useful here.
194
Which diagnostic study evaluates functional electrical activity of the brain and can detect seizures in a patient with altered mental status? A. CT scan B. EEG C. PET scan D. LICOX system
B. EEG Rationale: An electroencephalogram (EEG) records brain electrical activity and is useful for detecting seizure activity, especially in patients with altered consciousness or unexplained changes in neurologic status.
195
Which diagnostic study provides metabolic and blood flow data to evaluate cerebral function in patients with neurologic injury? A. PET scan B. MRI C. EEG D. Transcranial Doppler
A. PET scan Rationale: A PET scan provides functional imaging, including glucose metabolism and blood flow, helping clinicians assess areas of hypometabolism or ischemia in patients with neurologic concerns.
196
A patient has an elevated ICP with worsening neurologic status. The neurosurgeon orders a diagnostic test to visualize the brain’s vascular system to check for aneurysm or AV malformation. Which test is best? A. Evoked potential testing B. Transcranial Doppler C. Cerebral angiography D. EEG
C. Cerebral angiography Rationale: Cerebral angiography is the gold standard to visualize intracranial vessels, detect aneurysms, AV malformations, or assess vascular occlusion in stroke or trauma.
197
Which statements about ICP diagnostic tools are correct? Select all that apply: A. Lumbar puncture can reduce ICP in emergency cases B. Transcranial Doppler is non-invasive C. Infrascanner is useful in pre-hospital or field triage D. PET scan shows anatomical structures only E. LICOX catheter monitors oxygen and temperature in brain tissue
B. Transcranial Doppler is non-invasive C. Infrascanner is useful in pre-hospital or field triage E. LICOX catheter monitors oxygen and temperature in brain tissue Rationale: * B: Transcranial Doppler is non-invasive and monitors blood flow velocity. * C: The Infrascanner is portable and useful in field trauma settings. * E: LICOX catheter gives continuous oxygenation (PbtO2) and temperature readings. A is incorrect—LP is contraindicated with increased ICP. D is incorrect—PET shows function, not just anatomy.
198
Which finding from a transcranial Doppler study is most concerning in a patient with head trauma? A. Normal velocity of 60 cm/sec B. Decreased cerebral blood flow velocity C. Slightly increased flow velocity during systole D. Absent pulsatility in the middle cerebral artery
B. Decreased cerebral blood flow velocity Rationale: Decreased velocity suggests increased cerebrovascular resistance, a hallmark of elevated ICP and impending perfusion impairment, requiring urgent intervention.
199
Which of the following statements made by a student nurse requires correction? A. “A CT scan is used to identify masses and bleeding in the brain.” B. “PET scans help evaluate cerebral metabolism.” C. “The LICOX system is used to monitor brain oxygenation levels.” D. “A lumbar puncture is safe to perform to confirm elevated ICP.”
D. “A lumbar puncture is safe to perform to confirm elevated ICP.” Rationale: This is incorrect and dangerous. A lumbar puncture is contraindicated in patients with increased ICP due to the risk of cerebral herniation following a sudden drop in pressure below the skull.
200
A patient is admitted to the ICU after a severe traumatic brain injury. The patient has a GCS score of 7 and a CT scan showing cerebral edema. Based on the current guidelines, which intervention is most appropriate? A. Begin hourly neurologic assessments only B. Prepare for immediate lumbar puncture C. Administer IV mannitol and observe D. Initiate intracranial pressure monitoring
D. Initiate intracranial pressure monitoring Rationale: ICP monitoring is indicated for patients with a GCS score ≤8 and abnormal CT/MRI findings (e.g., bleeding or edema). This combination suggests a high risk for increased ICP and the need for direct pressure monitoring to guide treatment.
201
Which of the following patients would most likely be considered candidates for ICP monitoring? Select all that apply: A. A patient with a GCS score of 7 and an MRI showing a contusion B. A patient with a GCS of 14 and a stable ischemic stroke C. A patient with bacterial meningitis and a fluctuating LOC D. A patient with a TBI, GCS 8, and no CT abnormalities E. A patient with a brain tumor and signs of increased ICP
A. A patient with a GCS score of 7 and an MRI showing a contusion C. A patient with bacterial meningitis and a fluctuating LOC E. A patient with a brain tumor and signs of increased ICP Rationale: * A: GCS ≤8 and contusion = classic indication. * C: Meningitis with LOC changes = risk for increased ICP; monitoring helps guide care. * E: Brain tumors can cause mass effect and increased ICP. B is stable and does not meet ICP monitoring criteria. D might be monitored depending on risk factors, but normal CT reduces the urgency.
202
The nurse is caring for a patient with suspected increased ICP following a hemorrhagic stroke. The provider decides to insert an ICP monitor. What is the primary goal of ICP monitoring in this case? A. To confirm the location of the hemorrhage B. To administer medications directly into the brain C. To guide therapy and reduce risk of secondary brain injury D. To replace the need for serial CT scans
C. To guide therapy and reduce risk of secondary brain injury Rationale: The main goal of ICP monitoring is to track pressure trends and guide treatment decisions, such as adjusting fluids, osmotic therapy, or sedation, to optimize cerebral perfusion and prevent secondary injury.
203
A 58-year-old patient presents with a large ischemic stroke and is now drowsy with a GCS score of 8. MRI reveals extensive edema with midline shift. Which of the following nursing actions is most urgent? A. Prepare for intracranial pressure monitoring B. Obtain consent for mechanical ventilation C. Administer IV morphine for pain relief D. Position the patient supine with legs elevated
A. Prepare for intracranial pressure monitoring Rationale: This patient has both a low GCS and significant cerebral edema, meeting criteria for ICP monitoring. It helps detect and manage dangerous pressure elevations before irreversible brain damage occurs.
204
Which patient would not be an appropriate candidate for routine ICP monitoring? A. A patient with a brain abscess and deteriorating LOC B. A patient with a mild concussion and GCS 15 C. A patient with a large subdural hematoma and GCS 6 D. A patient with a brain tumor and vomiting with headache
B. A patient with a mild concussion and GCS 15 Rationale: ICP monitoring is not indicated in patients with mild neurologic injuries (GCS >13) and no structural brain abnormalities. This patient is stable and does not show signs of increased ICP or deterioration.
205
A nurse is explaining the criteria for intracranial pressure monitoring to a new graduate. Which of the following statements should the nurse include? Select all that apply: A. “A GCS score of 9 or higher requires ICP monitoring.” B. “Patients with traumatic brain injury and cerebral contusions are high-risk.” C. “ICP monitoring is often needed if CT imaging shows cerebral edema.” D. “ICP monitoring is contraindicated in stroke patients.” E. “A sudden change in LOC can indicate the need for ICP monitoring.”
B. “Patients with traumatic brain injury and cerebral contusions are high-risk.” C. “ICP monitoring is often needed if CT imaging shows cerebral edema.” E. “A sudden change in LOC can indicate the need for ICP monitoring.” Rationale: * B: TBI with contusion = high risk. * C: Cerebral edema on imaging is a red flag for ICP. * E: Sudden LOC changes suggest brain swelling or bleeding—triggers for monitoring. A is incorrect—a GCS ≤8, not 9+, is the usual cutoff. D is false—stroke patients, especially those with hemorrhagic stroke, often require monitoring.
206
ventriculstomy
a specialized catheter is inserted into the lateral ventricle and coupled to an external transducer
207
air pouch/pneumatic technology
an air-filled pouch to measure ICP
208
The gold standard for monitoring intracranial pressure (ICP) is: A. Fiberoptic catheter B. Pneumatic air pouch system C. Ventriculostomy D. Epidural catheter
C. Ventriculostomy Rationale: The ventriculostomy is the gold standard for ICP monitoring. It provides direct measurement of pressure and allows for CSF sampling and drug administration.
209
When using a ventriculostomy to monitor ICP, which of the following is a crucial step in ensuring accurate readings? A. Leveling the transducer with the tragus of the ear B. Positioning the transducer at the level of the heart C. Keeping the catheter tip above the foramen of Monro D. Maintaining the catheter height 5 cm above the foramen of Monro
A. Leveling the transducer with the tragus of the ear Rationale: The transducer must be level with the foramen of Monro, which is referenced using the tragus of the ear. This ensures that the ICP measurement is accurate and consistent, regardless of the patient’s positioning.
210
What is one potential complication that may affect ICP monitoring accuracy? A. Infection at the insertion site B. Blood pressure fluctuations C. Decreased cerebral blood flow D. Excessive fluid intake
A. Infection at the insertion site Rationale: Infection is a serious complication associated with ICP monitoring, especially with ventriculostomy, which can result in meningitis or other systemic infections. It is critical to monitor the insertion site and use aseptic technique.
211
Which of the following could cause inaccurate ICP readings when using a ventriculostomy? Select all that apply: A. CSF leaks around the monitoring device B. Kinks in the ICP tubing C. Incorrect height of the drainage system relative to the reference point D. Patient in a prone position E. Use of a fiberoptic catheter
A. CSF leaks around the monitoring device B. Kinks in the ICP tubing C. Incorrect height of the drainage system relative to the reference point Rationale: * A: CSF leaks compromise the pressure readings and the system’s integrity. * B: Kinks in the tubing block or distort the pressure waveforms. * C: The height of the drainage system must be correctly positioned to the reference point (foramen of Monro). D and E are not direct causes of inaccurate readings, though prone positioning may affect the positioning of the catheter or transducer. Fiberoptic catheters have their own characteristics but do not cause inaccurate readings due to positioning.
212
A patient with a ventriculostomy is having an ICP reading of 20 mm Hg. The nurse checks the waveform and notices that P2 is significantly above P1. What action should the nurse take? A. Increase the height of the transducer B. Report the abnormal waveform and monitor the patient for signs of deterioration C. Perform a lumbar puncture to relieve pressure D. Administer IV fluids to increase cerebral perfusion pressure
B. Report the abnormal waveform and monitor the patient for signs of deterioration Rationale: A P2 elevation above P1 indicates poor ventricular compliance, which suggests increased ICP. This requires immediate attention, and the nurse should report the abnormal waveform to the healthcare provider and carefully monitor the patient for signs of deterioration.
213
When a ventriculostomy is used, the nurse knows that which of the following can improve the accuracy of ICP measurements? A. Keeping the drainage system below the patient’s head B. Closing the CSF drain for at least 6 minutes before taking a reading C. Flushing the catheter with saline before every reading D. Ensuring the patient remains supine during ICP measurement
B. Closing the CSF drain for at least 6 minutes before taking a reading Rationale: To obtain accurate ICP readings, the CSF drain should be closed for at least 6 minutes to ensure that there is no influence from draining before taking the pressure reading.
214
Which of the following is a benefit of using a fiberoptic catheter to measure ICP? A. It is less invasive than a ventriculostomy B. It provides direct measurement of brain pressure without needing a transducer C. It allows for intraventricular drug administration D. It is the most accurate method for CSF drainage
B. It provides direct measurement of brain pressure without needing a transducer Rationale: The fiberoptic catheter uses a sensor transducer located at the catheter tip to directly measure brain pressure. Unlike the ventriculostomy, it does not require a separate external transducer.
215
The nurse is assessing a patient with a ventriculostomy for increased ICP. Which of the following would most likely cause an inaccurate ICP reading? A. Air bubbles in the tubing B. Fluid overload C. Fever D. Increased cardiac output
A. Air bubbles in the tubing Rationale: Air bubbles in the ICP monitoring system can dampen the waveform, leading to false readings. It is crucial to check the system for air bubbles and remove them to ensure accurate readings.
216
What is the normal range for mean ICP? A. 5-10 mm Hg B. 15-20 mm Hg C. 20-25 mm Hg D. 25-30 mm Hg
A. 5-10 mm Hg Rationale: Normal ICP typically ranges between 5-10 mm Hg. Values above this range indicate increased ICP, which can lead to poor cerebral perfusion and other complications.
217
The nurse is assessing a patient with a ventriculostomy and notices a sudden increase in ICP readings with an abnormal waveform. What is the immediate priority action? A. Increase the sedation to reduce patient movement B. Position the patient with the head elevated to 30 degrees C. Administer IV diuretics D. Report the findings to the healthcare provider and prepare for intervention
D. Report the findings to the healthcare provider and prepare for intervention Rationale: A sudden increase in ICP with an abnormal waveform requires immediate notification to the healthcare provider, as this indicates deteriorating neurological status and may require urgent intervention.
218
Which of the following are potential complications of ICP monitoring? Select all that apply: A. Meningitis B. CSF leak C. Seizures D. Pneumothorax E. Catheter obstruction
A. Meningitis B. CSF leak E. Catheter obstruction Rationale: * A: Infection (e.g., meningitis) is a common complication of ICP monitoring. * B: CSF leaks can lead to inaccurate readings or infections. * E: Catheter obstruction from clots or tissue can distort readings. C and D are not typical complications directly associated with ICP monitoring.
219
Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent infection when managing a patient with a ventriculostomy? A. Change the dressing every 24 hours B. Use aseptic technique when handling the insertion site C. Flush the catheter with saline every 12 hours D. Routinely administer antibiotics
B. Use aseptic technique when handling the insertion site Rationale: The nurse should use aseptic technique to avoid introducing infection. Regular dressing changes and careful handling reduce the risk of meningitis or other complications. Flushing and antibiotics are not routine practices unless infection is suspected.
220
The nurse is caring for a patient with a ventriculostomy. Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding CSF drainage? A. The CSF drainage device must be closed for at least 6 minutes before taking a reading B. The drainage system must always be kept higher than the patient’s head C. The CSF should be allowed to drain continuously to lower ICP D. The CSF drainage bag must be changed every 48 hours
A. The CSF drainage device must be closed for at least 6 minutes before taking a reading Rationale: Closing the drainage device for at least 6 minutes ensures that the measurement reflects true ICP without the influence of draining CSF.
221
Which of the following are methods used to measure ICP? Select all that apply: A. Fiberoptic catheter B. Ventriculostomy C. Lumbar puncture D. Pneumatic air pouch system E. EEG monitoring
A. Fiberoptic catheter B. Ventriculostomy D. Pneumatic air pouch system
222
Which of the following interventions is most likely to prevent an infection in a patient with an ICP monitoring device? A. Keep the patient NPO (nothing by mouth) for 24 hours after device insertion B. Administer prophylactic antibiotics before the insertion of the device C. Use aseptic technique during the insertion and maintenance of the device D. Keep the patient in a side-lying position to avoid pressure on the catheter
C. Use aseptic technique during the insertion and maintenance of the device Rationale: Using aseptic technique during both insertion and maintenance of the ICP device significantly reduces the risk of infection. Proper hand hygiene, sterile dressings, and avoiding unnecessary manipulation of the device are essential.
223
A nurse is caring for a patient with increased ICP who is monitored with a ventriculostomy. The nurse notices a CSF leak around the insertion site. What is the most appropriate action? A. Increase the sedation to prevent movement B. Replace the drainage system immediately C. Notify the healthcare provider for further assessment and management D. Flush the catheter with saline to clear the obstruction
C. Notify the healthcare provider for further assessment and management Rationale: A CSF leak could result in inaccurate ICP readings and increased infection risk. It’s essential to notify the healthcare provider to evaluate the situation and determine whether the device needs to be adjusted or replaced.
224
A patient with a ventriculostomy has an ICP reading of 22 mm Hg. The nurse observes that the waveform is abnormal, with P2 rising significantly above P1. What should the nurse do first? A. Increase the head of the bed to 45 degrees B. Administer a dose of mannitol C. Report the abnormal reading to the healthcare provider immediately D. Close the drainage device for 6 minutes and recheck the ICP
C. Report the abnormal reading to the healthcare provider immediately Rationale: Abnormal ICP waveforms with P2 rising above P1 indicate that the patient is experiencing increased ICP and may be at risk for neurological deterioration. This requires immediate reporting to the healthcare provider for possible intervention.
225
The nurse is caring for a patient who has been receiving ICP monitoring for 4 days using a ventriculostomy. Which of the following is the best practice to minimize the risk of infection during this time? A. Change the insertion site dressing every 72 hours B. Ensure the drainage system is closed for at least 6 minutes before taking readings C. Flush the catheter with normal saline every 12 hours to maintain patency D. Keep the insertion site covered with a sterile dressing and monitor for redness or drainage
D. Keep the insertion site covered with a sterile dressing and monitor for redness or drainage Rationale: To prevent infection, the insertion site should be covered with a sterile dressing. The nurse should monitor for signs of infection such as redness, drainage, or increased warmth around the site. Changing the dressing should occur every 24 hours, not every 72 hours, to ensure proper hygiene.
226
A patient with increased ICP is undergoing CSF drainage via a ventricular catheter. The nurse is instructed to start intermittent drainage when the ICP exceeds 20 mm Hg. What is the most important action for the nurse to take during the drainage process? A. Open the drainage system and allow CSF to drain for 2 to 3 minutes, then close it B. Continuously monitor the volume of CSF drained and keep the system open C. Keep the drainage system open to allow continuous CSF drainage D. Ensure the drainage is started only if the ICP is above 30 mm Hg
A. Open the drainage system and allow CSF to drain for 2 to 3 minutes, then close it Rationale: Intermittent drainage requires the nurse to open the system for 2 to 3 minutes to allow CSF to drain, then close the system to maintain the integrity of ICP monitoring. Continuous drainage would require monitoring the volume of CSF drained.
227
A nurse is caring for a patient receiving continuous CSF drainage through a ventriculostomy. Which of the following is the most important consideration when managing continuous drainage? A. Ensure that the patient remains in a prone position to minimize ICP B. Monitor the volume of CSF drainage to avoid excessive removal C. Open the system only when ICP exceeds 30 mm Hg D. Maintain the system open to prevent backflow of CSF
B. Monitor the volume of CSF drainage to avoid excessive removal Rationale: When using continuous CSF drainage, it is essential to monitor the volume of CSF removed to prevent over-drainage, which could lead to complications like ventricular collapse or herniation. Normal CSF production is around 20 to 30 mL/hr, so it is important to keep this in mind.
228
A patient with a ventriculostomy is at risk of rapid decompression following CSF drainage. Which of the following complications is the most likely result of rapid decompression? A. Cerebral herniation or subdural hematoma formation B. Increased ICP due to inadequate CSF drainage C. Severe bradycardia and cardiac arrest D. Hypotension from excessive fluid loss
A. Cerebral herniation or subdural hematoma formation Rationale: Rapid decompression of ICP can cause cerebral herniation or subdural hematoma formation, both of which are serious complications. Proper monitoring and controlled drainage are critical to avoid these risks.
229
A nurse is preparing to drain CSF from a patient with a ventriculostomy. What action should the nurse take to ensure accurate ICP readings during CSF drainage? A. Open the system to drain CSF for 10 minutes to reduce ICP B. Keep the drainage system closed until the ICP reaches 40 mm Hg C. Ensure that the system is intact and leveled at the foramen of Monro D. Position the transducer above the patient’s ear to avoid inaccurate readings
C. Ensure that the system is intact and leveled at the foramen of Monro Rationale: For accurate ICP readings, it is essential to level the system at the foramen of Monro (the reference point) and ensure the system remains intact to prevent errors in ICP measurements.
230
A patient with a ventriculostomy has had intermittent CSF drainage. The nurse is assessing the patient and notices that the stopcock is open. What is the best action for the nurse to take? A. Close the stopcock immediately and monitor for any changes in ICP B. Increase the frequency of CSF drainage to prevent excessive ICP C. Replace the catheter to ensure an accurate ICP measurement D. Reposition the patient to ensure the drainage system is level
A. Close the stopcock immediately and monitor for any changes in ICP Rationale: The stopcock should be closed after intermittent drainage to maintain the integrity of the ICP monitoring system. The nurse should monitor the ICP for any changes to ensure proper pressure management.
231
A patient has a ventriculostomy for CSF drainage to manage increased ICP. The nurse notes that the CSF drainage is clear, but there is a slight leak around the insertion site. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take? A. Immediately replace the catheter to prevent infection B. Report the issue to the healthcare provider for assessment and possible intervention C. Flush the catheter with normal saline to clear any obstruction D. Increase the drainage rate to compensate for the leakage
B. Report the issue to the healthcare provider for assessment and possible intervention Rationale: CSF leakage around the insertion site should be reported immediately to the healthcare provider. This could indicate a problem with the catheter or the insertion site that may need adjustment or further intervention to prevent complications.
232
Which of the following complications is most likely to occur if too much CSF is removed from patient with a ventriculostomy? A. Ventricular collapse B. Increased ICP C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage D. Hemorrhagic shock
A. Ventricular collapse Rationale: Removing too much CSF can cause ventricular collapse, as the brain can lose the cushioning effect provided by the CSF. This can lead to further neurological complications and increased ICP if not corrected.
233
A nurse is caring for a patient with a ventriculostomy for CSF drainage. What should the nurse do before repositioning the patient to prevent inaccurate ICP readings? A. Ensure the drainage system is level with the tragus of the ear B. Increase the drainage system pressure to prevent backflow C. Disconnect the catheter temporarily to allow for patient movement D. Administer a dose of osmotic diuretics to control ICP
A. Ensure the drainage system is level with the tragus of the ear Rationale: The system must be leveled at the tragus of the ear (the reference point) to ensure accurate ICP readings when repositioning the patient. Proper positioning is essential to prevent changes in ICP measurements.
234
What is the most important consideration when performing a dressing change on a patient with a ventriculostomy? A. Ensure that the patient is NPO for at least 12 hours before the change B. Use aseptic technique to prevent infection C. Remove the old dressing slowly to avoid increasing ICP D. Flush the catheter with saline before changing the dressing
B. Use aseptic technique to prevent infection Rationale: Using aseptic technique during dressing changes is critical to prevent infection. Infection is a significant complication with ICP monitoring and should always be carefully avoided through proper technique.
235
The nurse notices that the CSF drainage volume is significantly higher than normal, and the patient is experiencing signs of hypovolemia. What is the first action the nurse should take? A. Increase the fluid intake to compensate for the fluid loss B. Notify the healthcare provider for further instructions and assessment C. Change the drainage system to prevent further fluid loss D. Stop the CSF drainage immediately to prevent more fluid loss
B. Notify the healthcare provider for further instructions and assessment Rationale: The nurse should notify the healthcare provider immediately when there is excessive CSF drainage. This could indicate a problem with the system or a need for a change in treatment, such as stopping or adjusting drainage.
236
A nurse is preparing to care for a patient with a ventriculostomy for CSF drainage. Which of the following is the most important to prevent ventricular collapse? A. Ensure that the drainage system remains open during patient repositioning B. Monitor the patient’s vital signs for signs of shock C. Maintain a controlled and safe amount of CSF drainage D. Keep the patient immobile at all times
C. Maintain a controlled and safe amount of CSF drainage Rationale: To avoid ventricular collapse, it is crucial to maintain controlled and safe amounts of CSF drainage. The nurse should monitor and adjust the drainage system as needed to prevent excessive CSF loss, which can lead to complications.
237
Which of the following should be included in the care plan for a patient with a ventriculostomy and intermittent CSF drainage? A. Increase the ICP to prevent complications from drainage B. Perform routine sterile dressing changes to prevent infection C. Keep the drainage system open continuously to prevent buildup of ICP D. Decrease the frequency of CSF drainage to reduce the risk of infection
B. Perform routine sterile dressing changes to prevent infection Rationale: Routine sterile dressing changes are essential to prevent infection at the insertion site of the ventriculostomy. Keeping the system intact and sterile is critical
238
A nurse is caring for a patient with a Neurovent catheter to monitor cerebral oxygenation. The nurse observes that the PbtO2 reading is 15 mm Hg. What is the nurse’s most appropriate action? A. Increase the patient’s oxygen supply and notify the healthcare provider B. Document the reading as normal and continue monitoring C. Decrease the oxygen flow to prevent cerebral hyperoxia D. Remove the catheter and prepare for a new placement
A. Increase the patient’s oxygen supply and notify the healthcare provider Rationale: A PbtO2 reading of 15 mm Hg is below the normal range (20–40 mm Hg), indicating ischemia or regional tissue hypoxia. The nurse should increase oxygen supply and notify the healthcare provider for further intervention.
239
A nurse is caring for a patient with a LICOX catheter that measures brain oxygenation. The nurse observes the PbtO2 reading at 35 mm Hg. What does this value indicate? A. Normal brain oxygenation B. Cerebral ischemia or hypoxia C. Hyperoxia D. Low oxygen demand in the brain
A. Normal brain oxygenation Rationale: The normal range for PbtO2 is 20–40 mm Hg. A reading of 35 mm Hg falls within the normal range, indicating adequate brain oxygenation.
240
A patient’s jugular venous bulb catheter shows a SjvO2 of 48%. What does this finding indicate? A. Normal cerebral oxygenation B. Hypoxia and inadequate cerebral oxygenation C. Improved cerebral perfusion D. Hyperoxia and efficient brain oxygen extraction
B. Hypoxia and inadequate cerebral oxygenation Rationale: The normal SjvO2 range is 60% to 75%. A value of 48% indicates impaired cerebral oxygenation and potential hypoxia in the brain.
241
The nurse is monitoring a patient with cerebral oxygenation monitoring using a Neurovent catheter. The PbtO2 value is 18 mm Hg. Which action is most important for the nurse to take? A. Document the reading as normal and continue monitoring B. Administer high-flow oxygen and notify the healthcare provider C. Adjust the catheter to ensure proper placement D. Reposition the patient to improve circulation
B. Administer high-flow oxygen and notify the healthcare provider Rationale: A PbtO2 value of 18 mm Hg is lower than the normal range (20–40 mm Hg), indicating ischemia or hypoxia. The nurse should administer high-flow oxygen and notify the healthcare provider to address the issue.
242
What is the normal range for jugular venous oxygen saturation (SjvO2) when using a jugular venous bulb catheter? A. 10% to 30% B. 40% to 50% C. 60% to 75% D. 80% to 90%
C. 60% to 75% Rationale: The normal SjvO2 range is 60% to 75%, which indicates adequate cerebral oxygenation and proper oxygen extraction by the brain.
243
The nurse is caring for a patient with cerebral oxygenation monitoring who has a LICOX catheter in place. The nurse notices the brain temperature is consistently at 35°C. What does this temperature indicate? A. The brain temperature is too high, and cooling is needed B. The brain temperature is within the normal range for optimal outcomes C. The brain temperature is too low, and rewarming is needed D. The temperature is abnormal and suggests an infection
B. The brain temperature is within the normal range for optimal outcomes Rationale: A brain temperature of 35°C (96.8°F) is generally considered optimal for improving outcomes in patients with brain injuries or intracranial pressure issues.
244
A nurse is caring for a patient with a jugular venous bulb catheter for cerebral oxygenation monitoring. The nurse notes a SjvO2 of 45%. What is the nurse’s most appropriate action? A. Document the reading and continue to monitor the patient B. Reposition the catheter to improve its placement C. Discontinue the catheter and monitor the patient for any changes D. Increase the patient’s oxygen levels and notify the healthcare provider
D. Increase the patient’s oxygen levels and notify the healthcare provider Rationale: An SjvO2 value of 45% is below the normal range of 60% to 75%, indicating that cerebral oxygenation is impaired. The nurse should increase oxygen levels and notify the healthcare provider.
245
A nurse is caring for a patient with a Neurovent catheter that is measuring brain oxygenation. The nurse notices the PbtO2 level is continuously high at 50 mm Hg. What is the likely risk associated with this value? A. Cerebral ischemia B. Cerebral edema and increased intracranial pressure C. Hypoxia and inadequate perfusion D. Hyperoxia, which could lead to oxygen toxicity
D. Hyperoxia, which could lead to oxygen toxicity Rationale: A PbtO2 value above the normal range (20–40 mm Hg) could indicate hyperoxia. If the oxygen supply is too high, it can cause oxygen toxicity, which may damage brain tissue.
246
The nurse is monitoring a patient using a LICOX catheter and notices the PbtO2 is consistently at 30 mm Hg. What does this value suggest? A. Adequate cerebral oxygenation B. The brain is experiencing ischemia or hypoxia C. Cerebral oxygen supply is in excess D. The oxygenation monitoring is malfunctioning
A. Adequate cerebral oxygenation Rationale: A PbtO2 of 30 mm Hg is within the normal range (20–40 mm Hg) for brain oxygenation, indicating adequate oxygenation of the brain tissue.
247
A patient is receiving cerebral oxygenation monitoring with a jugular venous bulb catheter. The nurse notices the SjvO2 is at 80%. What action should the nurse take? A. Document the value as normal and continue monitoring B. Increase the oxygen levels to improve brain perfusion C. Assess for potential hyperoxia and notify the healthcare provider D. Reposition the catheter to ensure proper placement
C. Assess for potential hyperoxia and notify the healthcare provider Rationale: A SjvO2 of 80% is above the normal range of 60% to 75%, which could suggest hyperoxia. The nurse should assess for signs of oxygen toxicity and notify the healthcare provider for further evaluation.
248
Which of the following describes the purpose of brain microdialysis in multimodality monitoring for patients with intracranial hypertension? A. To measure the cerebral blood flow B. To measure the concentration of small molecules in brain tissue C. To assess global brain oxygenation D. To measure intracranial pressure
B. To measure the concentration of small molecules in brain tissue Rationale: Brain microdialysis is used to measure small molecules such as glucose and lactate in brain tissue, which helps assess metabolic changes and brain injury.
249
A nurse is caring for a patient with continuous cerebral oxygenation monitoring using a Neurovent catheter. The nurse notices the PbtO2 is at 22 mm Hg. What does this value indicate? A. Normal brain oxygenation B. Severe hypoxia and possible brain injury C. Mild ischemia and potential tissue hypoxia D. Elevated oxygen levels in the brain
C. Mild ischemia and potential tissue hypoxia Rationale: A PbtO2 of 22 mm Hg is below the normal range (20–40 mm Hg) and indicates mild ischemia or hypoxia. This requires monitoring and possible adjustment of oxygenation therapy.
250
A nurse is caring for a patient with increased ICP caused by a brain tumor. The healthcare provider recommends a craniectomy to reduce ICP. What is the primary goal of this procedure? A. To remove the tumor and treat the underlying cause of increased ICP B. To prevent herniation and reduce ICP by removing a part of the skull C. To maintain ventilation and oxygenation during surgery D. To repair damaged brain tissue and prevent further injury
B. To prevent herniation and reduce ICP by removing a part of the skull Rationale: A craniectomy is performed to reduce ICP and prevent herniation by removing a portion of the skull, which helps provide space for the brain to expand and reduce pressure.
251
A patient with increased ICP has an endotracheal tube in place to maintain ventilation. The nurse reviews the patient’s ABG results, which show PaO2 of 95 mm Hg and PaCO2 of 48 mm Hg. What action should the nurse take? A. Increase the O2 delivery to maintain PaO2 of 100 mm Hg or greater B. Administer a bronchodilator to reduce PaCO2 levels C. Decrease the oxygen flow to maintain normal PaCO2 levels D. Intubate the patient again to ensure correct placement
A. Increase the O2 delivery to maintain PaO2 of 100 mm Hg or greater Rationale: The PaO2 is slightly below the goal of 100 mm Hg or greater, so the nurse should increase oxygen delivery to improve oxygenation. The PaCO2 is slightly elevated, but the focus is on improving oxygenation.
252
The healthcare team is discussing the management of a patient with increased ICP due to hydrocephalus. Which treatment is most appropriate for this patient? A. Surgical removal of the tumor B. Craniectomy to relieve pressure C. Shunt placement to divert excess CSF D. Hyperventilation to decrease cerebral blood volume
C. Shunt placement to divert excess CSF Rationale: Hydrocephalus (excess CSF) can be treated with a shunt to divert the CSF away from the brain, helping to reduce ICP.
253
A nurse is caring for a patient with increased ICP and is using ABG analysis to guide oxygen therapy. The goal is to maintain a PaO2 at 100 mm Hg or greater and a PaCO2 between 35–45 mm Hg. The patient’s ABG shows PaO2 of 92 mm Hg and PaCO2 of 52 mm Hg. What is the nurse’s next step? A. Increase oxygen delivery and notify the healthcare provider about the elevated PaCO2 B. Administer hyperventilation therapy to lower PaCO2 C. Decrease oxygen therapy to lower the PaO2 D. Reposition the patient to improve oxygenation
A. Increase oxygen delivery and notify the healthcare provider about the elevated PaCO2 Rationale: The PaO2 is slightly below the target of 100 mm Hg, and the PaCO2 is elevated, which could contribute to increased ICP. The nurse should increase oxygen delivery and notify the healthcare provider for further evaluation and possible intervention to manage PaCO2.
254
Which of the following is the priority goal when managing a patient with increased ICP? A. Support brain function and maintain adequate oxygenation B. Increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration C. Administer pain medication to ensure comfort D. Encourage physical therapy to improve mobility
A. Support brain function and maintain adequate oxygenation Rationale: The priority goal in managing increased ICP is to support brain function by ensuring adequate oxygenation and treating the underlying cause, preventing further injury to the brain.
255
A patient with increased ICP is being managed by a multidisciplinary team. What is the role of the nurse in the interprofessional care plan? A. To perform the craniectomy and manage the surgical procedure B. To monitor the patient’s neurological status and manage ventilation C. To order the necessary imaging studies for diagnosis D. To provide psychological support to the family during surgery
B. To monitor the patient’s neurological status and manage ventilation Rationale: The nurse plays a critical role in monitoring the patient’s neurological status, ensuring adequate ventilation and oxygenation, and collaborating with the healthcare team to manage ICP.
256
A nurse is assessing a patient with increased ICP. The healthcare provider is considering a craniectomy as a treatment option. What is the nurse’s primary concern when preparing the patient for surgery? A. Ensuring adequate sedation and pain control B. Monitoring ABG results and maintaining proper ventilation C. Reducing intracranial pressure and preventing herniation during the procedure D. Ensuring that the patient has an IV access site for fluid administration
C. Reducing intracranial pressure and preventing herniation during the procedure Rationale: Reducing ICP and preventing herniation are the primary concerns during a craniectomy, as the surgery aims to relieve pressure and prevent further brain injury.
257
A patient with increased ICP is being treated with mechanical ventilation. The nurse notes that the patient’s PaCO2 is at 50 mm Hg. What is the nurse’s next action? A. Increase the oxygen level to improve the PaCO2 B. Administer a bronchodilator to improve ventilation C. Hyperventilate the patient to lower PaCO2 D. Decrease the ventilation rate to allow more CO2 retention
C. Hyperventilate the patient to lower PaCO2 Rationale: Hyperventilation can help lower PaCO2, which in turn can decrease cerebral blood volume and help reduce ICP. However, it should be done carefully to avoid other complications.
258
A patient with increased ICP has a mechanical ventilator and is being managed for optimal oxygenation. What is the primary goal for this patient’s ventilation? A. To increase oxygenation and keep PaO2 greater than 100 mm Hg B. To maintain elevated oxygen levels to promote brain healing C. To ensure the ventilator is synchronized with the patient’s breathing pattern D. To prevent hypoxia and maintain PaCO2 within the normal range of 35-45 mm Hg
D. To prevent hypoxia and maintain PaCO2 within the normal range of 35-45 mm Hg Rationale: The goal of mechanical ventilation in increased ICP is to prevent hypoxia and ensure adequate oxygenation while keeping PaCO2 within the normal range, as elevated CO2 can increase ICP.
259
What is the most effective way to treat increased ICP when the underlying cause is a brain tumor? A. Surgical removal of the tumor B. Craniectomy to relieve pressure C. Shunt placement to divert CSF D. Steroid therapy to reduce edema
A. Surgical removal of the tumor Rationale: Surgical removal of the brain tumor is the most effective treatment for increased ICP caused by a mass. It directly addresses the cause of the pressure and relieves the associated symptoms.
260
A nurse is caring for a patient admitted with increased intracranial pressure. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate as a priority to improve venous drainage from the brain? A. Positioning the head of bed flat with the head turned to the side B. Elevating the head of bed to 30 degrees with the head in a neutral position C. Placing the patient in a Trendelenburg position D. Keeping the patient supine with knees flexed
B. Elevating the head of bed to 30 degrees with the head in a neutral position Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees with the head in a neutral position promotes venous drainage from the brain, reducing intracranial pressure. Other positions can impede venous outflow or increase ICP.
261
A patient with increased ICP is undergoing mechanical ventilation. The physician orders to maintain a PaO2 of ≥100 mm Hg. What is the rationale behind this intervention? A. To prevent fluid overload and secondary brain injury B. To reduce seizure activity and secondary brain injury C. To prevent cerebral hypoxia and secondary brain injury D. To enhance the metabolism of sedatives
C. To prevent cerebral hypoxia and secondary brain injury Rationale: Maintaining a PaO2 of ≥100 mm Hg ensures adequate oxygenation to brain tissue and minimizes the risk of secondary injury due to hypoxia.
262
A nurse reviews the lab results of a patient with increased ICP. Which electrolyte abnormality should be reported immediately because it can worsen cerebral edema? A. Hypernatremia B. Hyponatremia C. Hyperkalemia D. Hypocalcemia
B. Hyponatremia Rationale: Hyponatremia can cause cerebral edema and increased ICP due to the osmotic shift of water into brain cells. This must be corrected promptly.
263
A patient with increased ICP is prescribed mannitol. What is the primary mechanism by which this drug reduces ICP? A. Increases CSF absorption B. Promotes cerebral vasodilation C. Suppresses the cough reflex to prevent spikes in pressure D. Creates an osmotic gradient drawing fluid from brain tissue
D. Creates an osmotic gradient drawing fluid from brain tissue Rationale: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that reduces ICP by creating an osmotic gradient, drawing water from brain cells into the intravascular space for excretion.
264
Which of the following diagnostic procedures is contraindicated in a patient suspected of having increased ICP due to risk of herniation? A. MRI of the brain B. Cerebral angiography C. Lumbar puncture D. Transcranial Doppler study
C. Lumbar puncture Rationale: A lumbar puncture is contraindicated in patients with increased ICP due to the risk of sudden pressure shifts that can result in brain herniation.
265
A nurse is reviewing the medication orders for a patient with a brain tumor and increased ICP. The nurse expects to administer which drug to reduce cerebral inflammation? A. Phenytoin B. Mannitol C. Dexamethasone D. Pantoprazole
C. Dexamethasone Rationale: Corticosteroids like dexamethasone are used to reduce inflammation and edema in patients with brain tumors or bacterial meningitis, helping to lower ICP.
266
The nurse is reviewing the patient’s cerebral oxygenation levels. Which method measures the partial pressure of oxygen in brain tissue (PbtO2)? A. Cerebral angiography B. Jugular venous oxygen saturation (SjvO2) C. PET scan D. Brain tissue oxygen monitoring catheter
D. Brain tissue oxygen monitoring catheter Rationale: Brain tissue oxygen monitoring catheters provide direct PbtO2 measurements, which help guide interventions to improve oxygen delivery to the brain.
267
A patient receiving barbiturate therapy to reduce cerebral metabolism suddenly develops hypotension. What is the priority nursing intervention? A. Notify the provider and prepare for vasopressor administration B. Lower the head of the bed and prepare for vasopressor administration C. Increase sedation and prepare for vasopressor administration D. Suction the airway and prepare for vasopressor administration
A. Notify the provider and prepare for vasopressor administration Rationale: Hypotension is a serious side effect of high-dose barbiturates and can reduce CPP. The nurse must notify the provider and support blood pressure with vasopressors if needed.
268
The nurse is providing care to a patient receiving phenytoin for seizure prophylaxis. Which lab value must be monitored closely? A. Serum creatinine B. Phenytoin level C. Platelet count D. INR
B. Phenytoin level Rationale: Phenytoin has a narrow therapeutic range, and serum levels must be monitored closely to avoid toxicity or subtherapeutic levels that could increase seizure risk.
269
A patient with increased ICP is ordered a proton pump inhibitor. What is the rationale for this prescription? A. Prevent development of aspiration pneumonia B. Decrease the risk of GI bleeding from stress ulcers C. Treat increased gastric motility from medications D. Enhance the effectiveness of sedative agents
B. Decrease the risk of GI bleeding from stress ulcers Rationale: Proton pump inhibitors like pantoprazole are used prophylactically to prevent stress-related mucosal damage and GI bleeding, which are common in critically ill patients.
270
A patient with severe traumatic brain injury has a CPP of 52 mm Hg. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate to increase the CPP? A. Lowering the head of bed below 30 degrees B. Giving mannitol to decrease cerebral edema C. Placing the patient in a prone position D. Administering IV fluids or vasopressors
D. Administering IV fluids or vasopressors Rationale: A CPP below 60 mm Hg indicates inadequate cerebral perfusion. Increasing MAP through fluids or vasopressors can raise CPP and improve perfusion.
271
The nurse monitors a patient’s ABG results and notes a PaCO2 of 52 mm Hg. What should the nurse do next? A. Administer IV fluids B. Lower the head of the bed C. Increase the ventilator rate D. Decrease FiO2
C. Increase the ventilator rate Rationale: A PaCO2 of 52 mm Hg is elevated and can cause cerebral vasodilation, increasing ICP. Increasing the respiratory rate can reduce CO2 and ICP.
272
Which diagnostic tool allows for noninvasive real-time monitoring of cerebral blood flow velocity in patients with increased ICP? A. Evoked potential studies B. Infrascanner C. Transcranial Doppler D. EEG
C. Transcranial Doppler Rationale: Transcranial Doppler ultrasound provides a noninvasive way to monitor cerebral blood flow velocity, which is useful in patients at risk for increased ICP.
273
Which laboratory finding would be most concerning in a patient with increased ICP who is at risk for seizures? A. Blood glucose 108 mg/dL B. Ammonia level 46 mcg/dL C. Sodium level 118 mEq/L D. Potassium level 4.1 mEq/L
C. Sodium level 118 mEq/L Rationale: A sodium level of 118 mEq/L indicates severe hyponatremia, which can lead to cerebral edema, increased ICP, and seizures. This requires immediate intervention.
274
A nurse is preparing a patient for a cerebral angiography. What is the most important pre-procedure assessment? A. Review last bowel movement B. Assess for diplopia C. Check peripheral capillary refill D. Evaluate renal function
D. Evaluate renal function Rationale: Cerebral angiography involves iodinated contrast, so renal function must be assessed to ensure safe clearance of the dye and prevent contrast-induced nephropathy.
275
A patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) is being treated with mannitol. Which of the following is an important nursing consideration when administering mannitol to this patient? a. Monitor for hyperglycemia b. Monitor fluid and electrolyte status c. Administer mannitol only with 0.9% sodium chloride d. Monitor for symptoms of hypokalemia
b. Monitor fluid and electrolyte status Rationale: Mannitol can cause a shift of fluids from the tissues into the blood vessels, which can result in electrolyte imbalances. The nurse must carefully monitor fluid and electrolyte levels to avoid complications like hypovolemia or hyponatremia.
276
A patient receiving hypertonic saline for increased ICP is being monitored for complications. Which of the following laboratory values is most critical to monitor during this treatment? a. Serum sodium levels b. Serum calcium levels c. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) d. Serum potassium levels
a. Serum sodium levels Rationale: Hypertonic saline causes fluid to shift from swollen brain cells into the bloodstream, which can lead to increased sodium levels. Monitoring serum sodium is crucial to avoid complications like hypernatremia.
277
Which of the following is a contraindication for administering mannitol to a patient with increased ICP? a. Renal disease b. Sepsis c. Gastrointestinal bleeding d. Cerebral hemorrhage
a. Renal disease Rationale: Mannitol is contraindicated in patients with renal disease because it can worsen renal function and may not be effectively eliminated, leading to fluid overload and further complications.
278
A patient with a brain tumor is receiving dexamethasone for vasogenic edema. The nurse should monitor the patient for which of the following potential complications? a. Hypoglycemia b. Hyperglycemia c. Decreased intracranial pressure (ICP) d. Hyponatremia
b. Hyperglycemia Rationale: Corticosteroids like dexamethasone can increase blood glucose levels, leading to hyperglycemia, which is a common complication during corticosteroid therapy.
279
A patient receiving corticosteroids for increased ICP is being monitored for gastrointestinal (GI) complications. Which of the following interventions is most important to prevent GI bleeding? a. Administer a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) b. Monitor the patient’s weight daily c. Provide a high-fiber diet d. Administer a diuretic
a. Administer a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) Rationale: Corticosteroids increase the risk of GI bleeding. Administering a proton pump inhibitor or H2-receptor blocker helps protect the stomach lining and prevent ulcers and bleeding.
280
A patient with increased ICP is receiving IV 0.9% sodium chloride as a secondary medication. Which of the following solutions would be most appropriate to use for diluting other medications? a. 0.45% sodium chloride b. 5% dextrose in water c. 0.9% sodium chloride d. Lactated Ringer’s solution
c. 0.9% sodium chloride Rationale: 0.9% sodium chloride is the preferred solution for administering secondary medications because other solutions, like 0.45% sodium chloride or 5% dextrose, may lower serum osmolality and increase cerebral edema.
281
A nurse is caring for a patient with increased ICP who is receiving an antipyretic to maintain normal body temperature. Which of the following temperatures is within the recommended range for this patient? a. 100.4°F (38°C) b. 98.6°F (37°C) c. 102.2°F (39°C) d. 95.4°F (35.2°C)
b. 98.6°F (37°C) Rationale: Maintaining the patient’s temperature between 96.8°F to 98.6°F (36°C to 37°C) helps avoid increasing metabolic demands on the brain, which can worsen ICP.
282
A patient with increased ICP is shivering after receiving an antipyretic. The nurse understands that shivering may increase metabolic demands on the brain. Which of the following interventions would be most appropriate? a. Increase the room temperature b. Apply a heating pad c. Encourage oral hydration d. Administer sedatives
d. Administer sedatives Rationale: Shivering increases the metabolic workload on the brain, which can worsen ICP. Sedatives can help prevent or control shivering, thereby reducing the brain’s metabolic demands.
283
A patient with increased ICP is receiving pentobarbital to reduce cerebral metabolism. Which of the following monitoring strategies is most important for the nurse? a. Monitoring liver enzymes b. Monitoring blood glucose levels c. Monitoring EEG activity d. Monitoring urine output
c. Monitoring EEG activity Rationale: Pentobarbital suppresses cerebral activity and is dosed to achieve brain wave suppression on the EEG. Monitoring EEG activity ensures the desired therapeutic effect and helps assess the level of brain wave suppression.
284
A patient with increased ICP is receiving pentobarbital therapy. Which of the following should the nurse assess to determine the effectiveness of this treatment? a. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score b. Blood pressure (BP) trends c. Respiratory rate and rhythm d. EEG for burst suppression
d. EEG for burst suppression Rationale: Pentobarbital therapy is aimed at achieving burst suppression on the EEG, which indicates that the treatment is effectively reducing cerebral metabolism and controlling ICP.
285
Which of the following is a primary goal of using drug therapy in the management of increased ICP? a. Reduce the risk of infection b. Lower intracranial pressure (ICP) c. Increase cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) d. Manage pain and agitation
b. Lower intracranial pressure (ICP) Rationale: The primary goal of drug therapy in the management of increased ICP is to reduce ICP, which can be achieved through osmotic diuretics, hypertonic saline, corticosteroids, and other treatments.
286
A patient is being treated for increased ICP with a combination of mannitol and hypertonic saline. Which of the following outcomes should the nurse monitor closely during this treatment? a. Decreased ICP b. Decreased heart rate c. Increased urine output d. Increased serum sodium levels
d. Increased serum sodium levels Rationale: Hypertonic saline can lead to an increase in serum sodium levels. It’s important to monitor for signs of hypernatremia and adjust treatment accordingly to avoid complications.
287
A nurse is caring for a patient with cerebral edema who is prescribed hypertonic saline. Which of the following findings requires immediate intervention? a. Serum sodium of 152 mEq/L b. Complaints of thirst c. Serum sodium of 160 mEq/L d. A small increase in urinary output
c. Serum sodium of 160 mEq/L Rationale: A sodium level of 160 mEq/L indicates severe hypernatremia and places the patient at risk for neurological complications. Hypertonic saline can cause dangerous fluid shifts if not carefully monitored.
288
A patient with a brain abscess is receiving dexamethasone. Which laboratory result should the nurse report to the provider immediately? a. Glucose of 180 mg/dL b. White blood cell count of 14,000/mm³ c. Glucose of 65 mg/dL d. Hemoglobin of 10.5 g/dL
a. Glucose of 180 mg/dL Rationale: Corticosteroids like dexamethasone can cause hyperglycemia. Glucose levels >180 mg/dL increase the risk of infection and impair healing, especially in neuro patients.
289
A patient with a traumatic brain injury is ordered mannitol IV. Which assessment finding indicates that the mannitol is effective? a. Urine output increases from 40 mL/hr to 80 mL/hr b. Pupils remain fixed and dilated c. Blood pressure decreases from 140/90 to 110/70 d. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score decreases from 13 to 8
a. Urine output increases from 40 mL/hr to 80 mL/hr Rationale: Mannitol creates an osmotic diuresis. An increase in urine output suggests the drug is reducing cerebral edema and pulling fluid into the vascular space.
290
A patient with high ICP is developing a fever of 101.2°F (38.4°C). Which intervention is most appropriate? a. Increase room temperature to promote sweating b. Administer acetaminophen and start a cooling blanket c. Apply warm compresses to the extremities d. Administer 0.45% sodium chloride IV
b. Administer acetaminophen and start a cooling blanket Rationale: Fever increases cerebral metabolism and ICP. The nurse should act quickly to bring the temperature down using antipyretics and cooling measures.
291
Which medication is appropriate for preventing gastrointestinal ulcers in a patient with increased ICP on corticosteroids? a. Ibuprofen b. Cimetidine c. Lactulose d. Acetaminophen
a. Ibuprofen Rationale: Corticosteroids increase GI ulcer risk. H2-receptor blockers like cimetidine or PPIs are given prophylactically to prevent gastric bleeding.
292
A patient with elevated ICP has been started on barbiturate therapy. Which of the following assessments is the priority? a. Monitoring respiratory effort b. Assessing for GI bleeding c. Checking pupillary size and reaction d. Evaluating muscle strength in all extremities
a. Monitoring respiratory effort Rationale: Barbiturates depress the CNS, including respiratory centers. Monitoring for respiratory depression is essential to prevent hypoxia and further brain injury.
293
A nurse is reviewing the medication administration record of a patient with cerebral edema. Which prescription should the nurse question? a. Dexamethasone IV b. 5% dextrose in water c. Mannitol IV d. Hypertonic saline 3% IV
b. 5% dextrose in water Rationale: D5W decreases serum osmolality and can worsen cerebral edema. It is contraindicated in patients with increased ICP.
294
A patient with a severe brain injury is receiving both mannitol and hypertonic saline. Which clinical finding would require the nurse to contact the provider immediately? a. Serum sodium 149 mEq/L b. Blood pressure 130/80 mm Hg c. Crackles auscultated in bilateral lung bases d. Urine output 50 mL/hr
c. Crackles auscultated in bilateral lung bases Rationale: Crackles suggest fluid overload, a potential complication of concurrent osmotic and hypertonic therapy. This requires immediate intervention to prevent pulmonary edema.
295
A nurse is caring for a patient receiving high-dose barbiturates for increased ICP. The provider states that the goal is “total burst suppression.” What does this mean? a. The patient’s pupils are nonreactive b. The patient has no voluntary movement c. Serum barbiturate levels are in therapeutic range d. No electrical brain activity appears on EEG
d. No electrical brain activity appears on EEG Rationale: Total burst suppression refers to a flatline or near-complete suppression of EEG activity. This indicates maximal reduction in cerebral metabolism.
296
A nurse is preparing to administer a corticosteroid to a patient with a brain tumor. Which of the following are expected outcomes of this therapy? (SATA) a. Stabilization of the cell membrane b. Reduction in CSF production c. Inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis d. Restoration of cerebral autoregulation e. Direct suppression of seizure activity
a. Stabilization of the cell membrane c. Inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis d. Restoration of cerebral autoregulation Rationale: Corticosteroids stabilize cell membranes, inhibit prostaglandin synthesis (reducing inflammation), and help restore cerebral autoregulation. They do not reduce CSF or directly suppress seizures.
297
A patient with increased ICP is receiving acetaminophen for a temperature of 101.6°F. The nurse notes the patient begins shivering. Which action should be taken first? a. Increase antipyretic dose b. Cover the patient with warm blankets c. Document the finding and recheck in 1 hour d. Call the provider for sedative orders
d. Call the provider for sedative orders Rationale: Shivering increases metabolic demand and ICP. The nurse must address the shivering promptly—usually by requesting a sedative or adjusting the cooling method.
298
A patient is receiving multiple medications for increased ICP. Which action by the nurse best prevents increased cerebral edema? a. Administering medications with D5W to avoid hypernatremia b. Using 0.45% sodium chloride to dilute antibiotics c. Avoiding hypotonic IV solutions like D5W d. Giving all IV meds via piggyback into dextrose-only lines
c. Avoiding hypotonic IV solutions like D5W Rationale: Hypotonic fluids lower serum osmolality and worsen cerebral edema. Isotonic fluids like 0.9% NS are preferred.
299
A patient with increased ICP is being treated with mannitol. Which finding would suggest to the nurse that mannitol is having a negative effect? a. ICP drops from 22 to 14 mm Hg b. Urine output increases to 150 mL/hr c. Serum potassium increases to 5.2 mEq/L d. Serum osmolality increases to 330 mOsm/kg
d. Serum osmolality increases to 330 mOsm/kg Rationale: An elevated serum osmolality (>320) may indicate overuse of mannitol and risk of renal damage or rebound ICP. It should be monitored closely.
300
A nurse is caring for a patient with increased intracranial pressure who is NPO due to decreased level of consciousness. Which action is the priority to support cerebral recovery? a. Begin clear liquid diet within 24 hours b. Start parenteral nutrition within 72 hours c. Initiate enteral feedings by day 5 if oral intake remains inadequate d. Restrict all fluids until patient is alert
c. Initiate enteral feedings by day 5 if oral intake remains inadequate Rationale: Nutritional replacement should meet caloric needs by at least day 5 post-injury. Early nutrition supports healing and reduces cerebral edema risk. Enteral feedings are preferred over parenteral when the gut is functional.
301
A patient with increased ICP is receiving enteral feedings. Which assessment finding requires immediate action by the nurse? a. Serum sodium level of 142 mEq/L b. Serum osmolality of 355 mOsm/kg c. Urine output of 60 mL/hr d. Blood glucose of 125 mg/dL
b. Serum osmolality of 355 mOsm/kg Rationale: An elevated serum osmolality (>300 mOsm/kg) suggests fluid volume deficit or hyperosmolar state, which can worsen cerebral edema or perfusion issues.
302
The nurse is evaluating the nutritional plan of a patient with increased ICP. Which statement by the nurse shows understanding of best practices for nutritional support? a. “We should wait until day 7 to begin feedings to avoid stressing the GI system.” b. “Glucose is the main fuel source for the injured brain and must be provided.” c. “Total parenteral nutrition is safer than enteral nutrition for long-term needs.” d. “Malnutrition does not affect brain edema but may impair healing.”
b. “Glucose is the main fuel source for the injured brain and must be provided.” Rationale: The hypermetabolic and hypercatabolic state of brain injury increases glucose demands. Early and adequate glucose provision supports neuronal healing and metabolism.
303
A nurse is monitoring a patient with increased ICP who is receiving tube feedings. Which of the following findings suggests the patient is maintaining a euvolemic state? a. Dry mucous membranes and weight loss b. Balanced intake/output with stable electrolytes c. Increased urine osmolality and dark amber urine d. Daily weight gain of 4 pounds in 48 hours
b. Balanced intake/output with stable electrolytes Rationale: A euvolemic state means fluid balance is maintained. Stable intake/output and normal labs are signs the patient is neither fluid overloaded nor volume depleted.
304
A patient with a severe traumatic brain injury is in a hypercatabolic state. Which intervention supports metabolic needs and recovery? a. Provide high-protein, high-calorie enteral nutrition b. Limit carbohydrate intake to prevent cerebral swelling c. Use a high-fat ketogenic diet to minimize glucose use d. Delay nutrition until brain swelling subsides
a. Provide high-protein, high-calorie enteral nutrition Rationale: The body breaks down protein rapidly after brain injury. High-protein, high-calorie support meets hypermetabolic needs and helps prevent further breakdown and cerebral edema.
305
A nurse is caring for a patient with increased ICP receiving parenteral nutrition. Which of the following complications is most important to monitor for in this patient? a. Hypokalemia b. Elevated white blood cell count c. Hyperglycemia d. Constipation
c. Hyperglycemia Rationale: Parenteral nutrition often contains dextrose. Brain-injured patients are already glucose-sensitive; hyperglycemia can worsen cerebral edema and impair recovery.
306
A nurse is reviewing fluid balance for a patient with increased ICP. Which finding suggests a fluid imbalance that could worsen cerebral edema? a. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L b. Urine specific gravity of 1.030 c. Weight gain of 0.5 lb in 24 hours d. Central venous pressure (CVP) of 6 mm Hg
b. Urine specific gravity of 1.030 Rationale: A high urine specific gravity indicates dehydration or fluid imbalance, which can trigger compensatory fluid retention and worsen cerebral edema if not corrected.
307
A nurse is assessing a patient’s response to nutritional therapy for increased ICP. Which parameters should the nurse monitor to ensure proper metabolic support? (SATA) a. Serum and urine osmolality b. Daily weight c. Respiratory rate d. Blood glucose e. Hematocrit level
a. Serum and urine osmolality b. Daily weight d. Blood glucose Rationale: Serum/urine osmolality helps assess fluid status. Daily weight is a key indicator of fluid retention or loss. Blood glucose monitoring ensures adequate energy supply without causing hyperglycemia. Respiratory rate and hematocrit are less specific to nutritional or fluid monitoring in this case.
308
A nurse is assessing a patient with suspected increased intracranial pressure. Which assessment should take priority in determining early neurologic decline? a. Assessing pupillary size and reactivity b. Monitoring hourly urine output c. Evaluating deep tendon reflexes d. Documenting changes in level of consciousness (LOC)
d. Documenting changes in level of consciousness (LOC) Rationale: LOC is the most sensitive and earliest indicator of increased ICP. Subtle changes such as restlessness, confusion, or lethargy may be the first signs of neurologic decline, and early recognition is essential.
309
A patient with increased ICP is being assessed for neurologic function. Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately? a. A blood pressure of 138/82 mm Hg b. A report from the family that the patient “isn’t acting like themselves” c. Heart rate of 82 bpm and regular d. Pupils equal in size and reactive to light
b. A report from the family that the patient “isn’t acting like themselves” Rationale: Subjective data from caregivers familiar with the patient’s baseline behavior is critical. Subtle changes in personality, behavior, or alertness may reflect early changes in LOC due to increased ICP and must be acted on promptly.
310
Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)
a quick, practical, and standard system for assessing the LOC
311
A nurse is assessing a patient with periorbital edema that prevents eye opening. What should the nurse do when calculating the GCS? A. Score eye opening as 1 B. Document the eye score as 0 C. Note “untestable” for eye opening and explain why D. Ask the patient to attempt to open the eyes and record the response
C. Note “untestable” for eye opening and explain why Rationale: When a feature such as eye opening is physically obstructed (e.g., due to edema), it should be documented as “untestable” with the reason noted rather than scored inaccurately.
312
Which of the following best describes the highest GCS score possible? A. 10 B. 12 C. 15 D. 20
C. 15 Rationale: The highest possible GCS score is 15, which indicates a fully alert and oriented individual.
313
Which of the following are components of the Glasgow Coma Scale? Select all that apply. A. Best verbal response B. Brainstem reflexes C. Eye opening D. Best motor response E. Pupillary response
A. Best verbal response B. Brainstem reflexes D. Best motor response Rationale: The GCS includes eye opening, best verbal response, and best motor response. Brainstem reflexes and pupillary response are assessed separately.
314
A nurse is tracking a patient’s GCS score over several hours. At 0800, the score was 12; by 1200 it dropped to 9. What is the most appropriate action? A. Document the finding and continue monitoring B. Increase the frequency of neurologic assessments to every 8 hours C. Notify the HCP immediately D. Reassess in 1 hour to confirm accuracy
C. Notify the HCP immediately
315
Why is it important to graph GCS scores? A. To monitor lab values B. To evaluate fluid status C. To compare pain levels D. To identify trends in neurologic function
D. To identify trends in neurologic function Rationale: Graphing GCS scores helps in identifying whether the patient’s condition is improving, stable, or deteriorating.
316
A 70-year-old patient with a stroke has a GCS score of 7. Which assessment tool would also be appropriate to use? A. NIH Stroke Scale B. Braden Scale C. Morse Fall Scale D. Wong-Baker Pain Scale
A. NIH Stroke Scale Rationale: For patients with strokes and increased ICP, the NIH Stroke Scale is a validated tool to assess stroke severity and neurologic deficits.
317
What is a key advantage of the Glasgow Coma Scale? A. Requires no training to use B. Measures blood pressure and pulse C. Standardized tool used by multiple providers D. Replaces full neurologic assessments
C. Standardized tool used by multiple providers Rationale: The GCS allows for consistent communication and interpretation of LOC across the healthcare team.
318
The GCS is not useful in which of the following patient situations? A. Intubated trauma patient B. Patient with periorbital swelling C. Sedated postoperative patient D. All of the above
D. All of the above Rationale: GCS has limitations in sedated, intubated, or physically impaired patients. Notations should reflect untestable components.
319
A nurse is performing a neurologic assessment on a patient with a suspected increase in ICP. The right pupil is dilated and nonreactive to light, while the left pupil is sluggishly reactive. Which cranial nerve is most likely affected? A. Cranial nerve II (Optic) B. Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor) C. Cranial nerve V (Trigeminal) D. Cranial nerve VI (Abducens)
B. Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor) Rationale: The oculomotor nerve (CN III) is responsible for pupil constriction. Compression of CN III causes an ipsilateral dilated pupil that does not react to light—a key sign of increased ICP.
320
A patient is admitted to the ICU after a traumatic brain injury. The nurse observes that when a penlight is shone in one eye, the opposite eye also constricts slightly. How should the nurse interpret this finding? A. The patient has increased ICP and needs immediate intervention. B. This is an expected consensual response. C. The patient has damage to CN V. D. This indicates brainstem herniation.
B. This is an expected consensual response. Rationale: A consensual response is normal and expected. It means both pupils constrict simultaneously when light is shone in one eye, showing intact neural pathways.
321
Which of the following findings indicates an early sign of pressure on cranial nerve III? A. Conjugate eye movement B. Brisk pupillary response C. Sluggish pupillary reaction to light D. Unequal limb strength
C. Sluggish pupillary reaction to light Rationale: A sluggish pupillary response is an early sign of increased pressure on CN III, which controls pupil constriction.
322
A nurse assesses the oculocephalic reflex in a comatose patient. When the head is turned to the right, both eyes remain midline. What is the correct interpretation? A. Normal brainstem function B. Suggests metabolic encephalopathy C. Indicates a positive doll’s eye reflex D. Absent doll’s eye reflex; brainstem function is impaired
D. Absent doll’s eye reflex; brainstem function is impaired Rationale: The absence of eye movement with head turning (doll’s eyes) indicates impaired brainstem function, a critical sign of severe neurologic compromise.
323
The nurse performs the oculovestibular (cold caloric) test on a patient with a GCS of 3. Ice-cold water is instilled into the left ear, and no eye movement occurs. What does this indicate? A. Normal brainstem reflex or brain death B. CN III damage or brain death C. Severe neurologic damage or brain death D. Vestibular dysfunction only or brain death
C. Severe neurologic damage or brain death Rationale: The absence of eye movement in response to cold caloric stimulation suggests significant brainstem dysfunction, often used as part of brain death evaluation.
324
Which finding would prompt the nurse to avoid performing the oculovestibular test? A. Ruptured tympanic membrane B. GCS score of 6 C. Suspected brain herniation D. Non-reactive pupils
A. Ruptured tympanic membrane Rationale: The oculovestibular test requires intact tympanic membranes; damage to these structures contraindicates the procedure.
325
In assessing motor strength in a patient with increased ICP, the nurse notes resistance during passive range of motion exercises in the left leg. How should this be interpreted? A. A normal sign of cooperation B. A reflex movement and not reliable C. Evidence of purposeful movement D. A reliable indicator of motor function
D. A reliable indicator of motor function Rationale: Resistance to passive ROM can indicate intact motor pathways and is a valid assessment of motor strength in unresponsive patients.
326
A patient with suspected ICP elevation is undergoing neurologic assessment. The nurse notes that the patient squeezes her hand in response to a verbal command but does not respond to painful stimuli in her lower extremities. What is the nurse’s best action? A. Document the patient as alert and oriented B. Record the squeeze as normal motor response C. Use an alternative test for lower extremity motor function D. Consider the squeeze a reflex and not reliable
D. Consider the squeeze a reflex and not reliable Rationale: Hand squeezing may be a reflex rather than a true motor response in an unconscious patient. It should not be solely relied upon to assess motor status.
327
What vital sign pattern suggests Cushing’s triad in a patient with increased ICP? A. Bradycardia, hypertension, and irregular respirations B. Tachycardia, hypotension, and shallow respirations C. Hypotension, rapid pulse, and Cheyne-Stokes respirations D. Bradycardia, low BP, and apnea
A. Bradycardia, hypertension, and irregular respirations Rationale: Cushing’s triad—bradycardia, hypertension (widening pulse pressure), and irregular respirations—is a late and ominous sign of increased ICP.
328
When using a pupillometer in neurologic assessment, what is the primary benefit? A. The ability to measure both CN III and CN IV function B. Minimizing pupil constriction reflexes C. Removing subjectivity in pupil size and reactivity measurements D. Monitoring peripheral vision loss
C. Removing subjectivity in pupil size and reactivity measurements Rationale: The pupillometer offers an objective and consistent measurement of pupil size and reactivity, which improves accuracy in neurologic assessment.
329
A nurse is assessing a patient who has increased ICP. The right pupil is fixed and dilated, and the left pupil is 4 mm and sluggishly reactive. What is the best interpretation? A. Bilateral CN II dysfunction B. Ipsilateral compression of CN III C. Early stage of cerebral ischemia D. Normal variation in pupil size
B. Ipsilateral compression of CN III Rationale: A fixed, dilated pupil on one side (ipsilateral) suggests compression of CN III, often due to increased ICP pressing on the brainstem.
330
Which finding would require immediate intervention during a neurologic assessment? A. Brisk consensual response B. Pupils equal and reactive to light C. Fixed pupils unresponsive to light D. Eye movement opposite to head turn
C. Fixed pupils unresponsive to light Rationale: Fixed pupils that do not respond to light suggest herniation or severe brain damage and require urgent evaluation.
331
Which of the following are true statements about the oculocephalic (doll’s eye) reflex? (SATA) A. Eyes should move opposite the direction of head movement B. The reflex is only tested in awake patients C. Absence of the reflex suggests brainstem dysfunction D. It is part of the neurologic exam in suspected brain death E. Positive reflex means the eyes follow the head movement
A. Eyes should move opposite the direction of head movement C. Absence of the reflex suggests brainstem dysfunction D. It is part of the neurologic exam in suspected brain death Rationale: Normally, eyes move in the opposite direction of the head turn. If absent, it suggests brainstem damage. It is used during brain death evaluations.
332
Which assessment technique should the nurse avoid using to determine purposeful motor response in an unresponsive patient? A. Applying nail bed pressure B. Observing for spontaneous movement C. Using a sternal rub D. Asking the patient to squeeze your hand
D. Asking the patient to squeeze your hand Rationale: Hand squeezing in unresponsive patients can be a reflexive action and should not be used alone to assess purposeful movement.
333
When assessing cranial nerves III, IV, and VI, the nurse asks the patient to follow the movement of a penlight. What is the nurse assessing? A. Sensory function of the trigeminal nerve B. Motor strength of facial muscles C. Extraocular movements D. Accommodation and convergence
C. Extraocular movements Rationale: CN III, IV, and VI control eye movements, so tracking with the eyes is used to evaluate their function.
334
A comatose patient demonstrates no eye movement with cold caloric testing. The tympanic membranes are intact. What is the priority nursing action? A. Notify the provider; this may indicate brain death B. Document as normal in comatose patients C. Wait 5 minutes and repeat test D. Elevate HOB and administer mannitol
A. Notify the provider; this may indicate brain death Rationale: Absence of response in a properly performed cold caloric test with intact tympanic membranes may indicate brainstem death.
335
The nurse notes asymmetrical limb strength during a motor assessment. What should the nurse do next? A. Document as expected post-surgical finding B. Compare findings to baseline C. Repeat the test only on the weaker side D. Perform hand-squeeze test
B. Compare findings to baseline Rationale: Comparing with baseline data helps determine whether this is a new change, progression, or stable finding.
336
The nurse notes increased resistance during passive ROM in the left arm. What does this suggest? A. Purposeful movement or possible spasticity B. Increased tone or possible spasticity C. Voluntary contraction or possible spasticity D. Brain death or possible spasticity
B. Increased tone or possible spasticity Rationale: Resistance during passive movement may indicate increased tone, spasticity, or partial motor pathway integrity.
337
During a neuro check, a nurse finds the patient has irregular respirations, a BP of 180/60 mmHg, and a pulse of 48 bpm. What is the nurse’s priority concern? A. Brainstem herniation B. Respiratory acidosis C. Normal post-op changes D. Early sepsis
A. Brainstem herniation Rationale: This is classic Cushing’s triad—bradycardia, widened pulse pressure, and irregular respirations—suggesting imminent brain herniation from increased ICP.
338
Which statement is true about the use of the pupillometer? A. It provides subjective data on pupil response B. It detects pupillary irregularities only during seizures C. It enhances consistency in pupil size/reactivity assessment D. It replaces the need for neurologic exams
C. It enhances consistency in pupil size/reactivity assessment Rationale: The pupillometer reduces human subjectivity and increases consistency in documenting changes in pupil size and response.
339
The nurse is caring for a patient post-trauma. Which finding most urgently requires provider notification? A. Patient’s pupils are equal and react sluggishly to light B. Patient is unresponsive to voice but responds to pain C. Patient moans in response to nail bed pressure D. Patient has unequal pupils, one fixed and dilated
D. Patient has unequal pupils, one fixed and dilated Rationale: A fixed, dilated pupil is an emergency and may indicate uncal herniation or rapid ICP elevation—call the provider immediately.
340
Which cranial nerves are tested by assessing extraocular eye movement? A. CN II and V B. CN III, IV, and VI C. CN I and IX D. CN VII and VIII
B. CN III, IV, and VI Rationale: CN III (oculomotor), IV (trochlear), and VI (abducens) coordinate eye movements and are assessed by following a target with the eyes.
341
A patient with severe periorbital swelling cannot open their eyes. How should the nurse proceed with the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) eye-opening component? A. Assign a score of 1 automatically B. Assign a score of 4 because the patient might be alert C. Mark the eye component as “NT” (not testable) D. Use pupillary reaction instead of GCS
C. Mark the eye component as “NT” (not testable) Rationale: When an area of the GCS is untestable (like eye-opening due to swelling), it should be documented as “NT,” and the limitation noted.
342
Which findings are associated with severely increased intracranial pressure? (SATA) A. Bradycardia B. Cheyne-Stokes respirations C. Hypertension with wide pulse pressure D. Bilateral pinpoint pupils E. Decerebrate posturing
A. Bradycardia B. Cheyne-Stokes respirations C. Hypertension with wide pulse pressure E. Decerebrate posturing Rationale: Signs of severe ICP include bradycardia, Cheyne-Stokes respirations, hypertension with widened pulse pressure, and posturing. Pinpoint pupils suggest pontine damage, not necessarily increased ICP.
343
A patient shows a sluggish pupillary response, asymmetric motor function, and bradycardia. What should the nurse do first? A. Lower the head of the bed B. Administer acetaminophen C. Reassess in 15 minutes D. Notify the neurologist STAT
D. Notify the neurologist STAT Rationale: These are signs of rising ICP and possible brain herniation. The provider should be notified immediately for urgent intervention.
344
A nurse is caring for a patient with a traumatic brain injury who is at risk for increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which nursing diagnosis takes priority? A. Risk for aspiration B. Risk for impaired skin integrity C. Inadequate cerebral tissue perfusion D. Risk for activity intolerance
C. Inadequate cerebral tissue perfusion Rationale: Inadequate cerebral tissue perfusion is a critical and priority diagnosis in patients with increased ICP because impaired perfusion can lead to secondary brain injury, ischemia, or herniation. While other diagnoses may apply, preserving brain oxygenation and perfusion is the most immediate concern.
345
A nurse is developing a care plan for a patient admitted with increased ICP. Which nursing intervention best addresses the diagnosis of Risk for Injury? A. Maintain bed in low position with side rails up and call light within reach B. Encourage early ambulation with assistance C. Place the patient in a high Fowler’s position with side rails down D. Delay neuro assessments to allow the patient uninterrupted rest
A. Maintain bed in low position with side rails up and call light within reach Rationale: A patient with increased ICP is at high risk for seizures, falls, or altered mental status. Keeping the bed low, side rails up, and ensuring call light accessibility provides safety without increasing ICP. High Fowler’s position can decrease cerebral perfusion and increase fall risk.
346
A nurse is planning care for a patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which outcome should be the top priority? A. The patient maintains intact skin integrity B. The patient has normal fluid balance C. The patient maintains a patent airway D. The patient verbalizes understanding of ICP management
C. The patient maintains a patent airway Rationale: Maintaining a patent airway is the highest priority in any neurologic patient, especially those with altered LOC and increased ICP. Without an adequate airway, oxygenation and perfusion to the brain can be compromised, worsening cerebral edema and neurologic outcomes.
347
A 56-year-old patient with a brain tumor is admitted with signs of increased ICP. The nurse includes the goal “prevent complications from immobility and decreased LOC” in the plan of care. Which intervention best supports this goal? A. Encourage oral fluids to 3L per day B. Perform passive range of motion exercises every 2 hours C. Provide low-stimulation environment with dim lighting D. Restrict physical activity to promote rest
B. Perform passive range of motion exercises every 2 hours Rationale: Preventing complications from immobility includes addressing risk for contractures, venous thromboembolism, and skin breakdown. Passive ROM exercises maintain joint flexibility and circulation, which directly supports this goal. While rest is important, complete immobility increases risk of complications.
348
A nurse is caring for a patient with increased ICP who is on IV mannitol and enteral feedings. Which assessment finding would indicate that the goal of maintaining normal fluid, electrolyte, and nutritional balance is being met? A. Serum osmolality of 330 mOsm/kg B. Positive fluid balance of 1,000 mL C. Decreased urine output with elevated BUN and creatinine D. Blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL and serum sodium 140 mEq/L
D. Blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL and serum sodium 140 mEq/L Rationale: Normal blood glucose and serum sodium levels suggest stable electrolyte and nutritional status. Monitoring lab values is essential in patients receiving osmotic diuretics and nutritional support, since these interventions can cause significant shifts in fluid and electrolytes.
349
The nurse is developing a plan of care for a patient with increased ICP. Which of the following goals are appropriate based on the current condition? (SATA) A. Maintain ICP within normal range B. Promote complete bed rest with no activity C. Maintain normal fluid and electrolyte levels D. Encourage coughing and deep breathing every hour E. Prevent complications related to decreased level of consciousness F. Maintain oxygen saturation greater than 95%
A. Maintain ICP within normal range C. Maintain normal fluid and electrolyte levels E. Prevent complications related to decreased level of consciousness F. Maintain oxygen saturation greater than 95% Rationale: Key goals in managing increased ICP include maintaining normal ICP, normal fluid/electrolyte balance, preventing complications of altered LOC, and ensuring adequate oxygenation. Bedrest is appropriate but not complete immobility, and coughing increases intrathoracic pressure, which can elevate ICP.
350
A patient with a GCS score of 7 is exhibiting irregular respirations and weak cough reflex. Which action should the nurse take first? A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees B. Administer a bronchodilator C. Prepare for intubation and mechanical ventilation D. Encourage the patient to take deep breaths
C. Prepare for intubation and mechanical ventilation Rationale: A GCS score of 8 or less indicates the patient cannot maintain a patent airway. Immediate intubation and mechanical ventilation are required to prevent hypoxia and further increases in ICP.
351
Which of the following are appropriate nursing interventions for maintaining airway patency in a patient with increased ICP? (SATA) A. Insert an oral airway in a comatose patient B. Suction the patient every 30 minutes C. Limit suctioning to less than 10 seconds per pass D. Preoxygenate with 100% oxygen before suctioning E. Position the patient supine with the head flat
A. Insert an oral airway in a comatose patient C. Limit suctioning to less than 10 seconds per pass D. Preoxygenate with 100% oxygen before suctioning Rationale: Oral airways prevent tongue obstruction. Suctioning must be brief to prevent hypoxia and ICP spikes. Preoxygenation prevents PaO2 drops. Routine 30-minute suctioning and flat supine positioning are not appropriate in this context.
352
A nurse is preparing to suction a patient with increased ICP. Which strategy minimizes the risk of elevated ICP during the procedure? A. Perform 3 suction passes back-to-back for full secretion removal B. Preoxygenate with 100% oxygen and limit suctioning to two passes C. Avoid oxygen administration before suctioning to reduce stimulation D. Apply suction for 20 seconds continuously to maximize effectiveness
B. Preoxygenate with 100% oxygen and limit suctioning to two passes Rationale: Suctioning can increase ICP. Preoxygenating and limiting passes reduces hypoxia and secondary injury. Prolonged suctioning and too many passes increase ICP and decrease PaO2.
353
A patient with increased ICP has facial fractures following trauma. The HCP orders gastric decompression. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? A. Insert a nasogastric tube as ordered B. Withhold gastric decompression due to contraindication C. Elevate the HOB and observe for vomiting D. Insert an orogastric tube for decompression
D. Insert an orogastric tube for decompression Rationale: NG tubes are contraindicated in facial/skull fractures due to risk of brain insertion. An orogastric tube is a safer method for decompression and aspiration prevention.
354
Which respiratory complication is a patient with increased ICP most at risk for due to decreased LOC? A. Respiratory alkalosis B. Hyperventilation C. Airway obstruction from the tongue D. Bronchospasm from anxiety
C. Airway obstruction from the tongue Rationale: Decreased LOC causes the tongue to fall back and occlude the airway, especially in supine positions. This is a major threat to airway patency
355
The nurse is caring for a patient with a PaCO₂ of 55 mmHg. What is the most appropriate interpretation and intervention? A. This indicates hypercapnia; notify the provider for ventilator adjustment B. This value is normal; continue current care C. This suggests hypocapnia; increase suctioning frequency D. This value is therapeutic for patients with increased ICP
A. This indicates hypercapnia; notify the provider for ventilator adjustment Rationale: A PaCO₂ >45 mmHg indicates hypercapnia, which can lead to cerebral vasodilation and increased ICP. Ventilation adjustments are necessary to maintain appropriate CO₂ levels.
356
Which assessments indicate that suctioning may be necessary for a patient with increased ICP? (SATA) A. Visible oral secretions B. Rhonchi on auscultation C. SpO₂ of 100% D. Gurgling sounds from the airway E. Increased respiratory rate with use of accessory muscles
A. Visible oral secretions B. Rhonchi on auscultation D. Gurgling sounds from the airway E. Increased respiratory rate with use of accessory muscles Rationale: Audible secretions, abnormal breath sounds, and increased work of breathing all signal the need for suctioning. An SpO₂ of 100% alone does not.
357
A nurse is monitoring ABG results for a patient with increased ICP. Which finding requires immediate intervention? A. PaO₂ 85 mmHg B. PaCO₂ 32 mmHg C. PaCO₂ 52 mmHg D. pH 7.38
C. PaCO₂ 52 mmHg Rationale: A PaCO₂ of 52 mmHg indicates hypercapnia, leading to cerebral vasodilation and further increasing ICP. This requires ventilatory adjustment.
358
Why should abdominal distention be avoided in patients with increased ICP? A. It leads to increased oxygen demand B. It contributes to spinal cord compression C. It causes early satiety and reduces nutritional intake D. It interferes with respiratory function and increases ICP
D. It interferes with respiratory function and increases ICP Rationale: Abdominal distention impairs diaphragm movement, reduces ventilation efficiency, and can contribute to hypoxia and rising ICP.
359
A nurse is caring for a comatose patient with increased ICP who begins gagging and coughing during oral suctioning. What is the best action? A. Continue suctioning until secretions are cleared B. Remove the suction catheter and administer 100% oxygen C. Instill 10 mL of sterile saline before continuing D. Reposition the patient to a supine flat position
B. Remove the suction catheter and administer 100% oxygen Rationale: Gagging and coughing increase ICP. The nurse should immediately stop, administer oxygen to prevent hypoxia, and allow the patient to recover before trying again.
360
What is the purpose of administering 100% oxygen before and after suctioning in a patient with increased ICP? A. To eliminate CO₂ buildup B. To promote coughing and sputum clearance C. To stimulate the patient’s respiratory effort D. To prevent suction-induced hypoxia and secondary brain injury
D. To prevent suction-induced hypoxia and secondary brain injury Rationale: Suctioning can cause a temporary drop in oxygenation, which worsens brain injury. Pre- and post-oxygenation prevents this complication and protects cerebral tissue.
361
A patient with increased ICP is being treated with propofol (Diprivan) for anxiety and agitation. What is the primary advantage of using propofol in this patient? A. Rapid onset and short half-life, allowing for quick neurologic assessment B. Its ability to maintain cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) C. Minimal effect on the neurologic state, making assessment easier D. It does not affect blood pressure or respiratory rate
A. Rapid onset and short half-life, allowing for quick neurologic assessment Rationale: Propofol is used for rapid sedation with a short half-life, allowing for more accurate neurologic assessments after discontinuation.
362
Which of the following are potential side effects of continuous IV sedation with dexmedetomidine (Precedex) for a patient with increased ICP? (SATA) A. Hypertension B. Bradycardia C. Hypotension D. Tachycardia E. Respiratory depression
B. Bradycardia C. Hypotension Rationale: Dexmedetomidine can cause bradycardia and hypotension, which can lower CPP, making it important to monitor these effects closely in patients with increased ICP.
363
A patient with increased ICP is receiving vecuronium to achieve complete ventilatory control due to refractory intracranial hypertension. Which nursing intervention is most important when using vecuronium in this patient? A. Monitor for signs of pain and distress, and provide adequate analgesia B. Avoid giving any sedatives due to the risk of hypotension C. Discontinue the drug if the patient exhibits signs of anxiety D. Limit neurologic assessments to every 8 hours to avoid overstimulation
A. Monitor for signs of pain and distress, and provide adequate analgesia Rationale: Nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents like vecuronium paralyze muscles without blocking pain, so it is essential to provide adequate analgesia and sedation to prevent distress.
364
Which is the most appropriate nursing action when administering opioids, such as morphine sulfate or fentanyl, to a patient with increased ICP? A. Increase the dosage of opioids to achieve rapid relief of symptoms B. Monitor the patient’s respiratory rate closely, as opioids can depress ventilation C. Administer opioids without regard to the patient’s pain level to prevent ICP spikes D. Administer opioids in combination with high-dose sedatives for maximum effect
B. Monitor the patient’s respiratory rate closely, as opioids can depress ventilation Rationale: Opioids like morphine and fentanyl are commonly used for pain management but can depress respiratory function. Monitoring respiratory rate and maintaining adequate ventilation is crucial in patients with increased ICP.
365
Which of the following is a primary concern when using sedatives and paralytics in a patient with increased ICP? A. Sedation and paralytics can worsen respiratory function B. These medications can mask true neurologic changes, making assessment difficult C. They have no effect on cerebral blood flow (CBF) D. They should be used as the first-line treatment for increased ICP
B. These medications can mask true neurologic changes, making assessment difficult Rationale: Sedatives and paralytics can mask neurologic changes, making it challenging to accurately assess the patient’s neurologic state and determine the appropriate course of treatment.
366
When using benzodiazepines as an adjunct to neuromuscular blocking agents for a patient with increased ICP, which of the following are important considerations? (SATA) A. Benzodiazepines should be used cautiously due to their hypotensive effect B. Benzodiazepines have a short half-life, making them ideal for ICP management C. They are contraindicated for use in patients with head trauma due to their sedative effects D. Hypotension from benzodiazepines can reduce CPP E. Benzodiazepines should be given alone for optimal sedation
A. Benzodiazepines should be used cautiously due to their hypotensive effect D. Hypotension from benzodiazepines can reduce CPP Rationale: Benzodiazepines can cause hypotension, which can reduce CPP, so they should be used with caution in patients with increased ICP.
367
A nurse is monitoring a patient who has received sedative medications for increased ICP. Which of the following is the most appropriate action when assessing the patient’s neurologic status? A. Wait 30 minutes after the sedative infusion has stopped to assess neurologic changes B. Immediately assess the patient’s neurologic status even while the sedatives are being infused C. Reassess neurologic status every hour during sedation D. Do not assess neurologic status as it is unreliable during sedation
A. Wait 30 minutes after the sedative infusion has stopped to assess neurologic changes Rationale: Once the sedative infusion is stopped, a more accurate neurologic assessment can be conducted after 30 minutes, allowing for the effects of the medication to wear off.
368
A patient with increased ICP is being treated with fentanyl for pain relief. Which of the following should the nurse monitor closely when using fentanyl in this patient? A. Blood pressure and temperature B. Intracranial pressure and intracranial perfusion pressure (CPP) C. Respiratory rate and oxygen saturation D. Liver function and renal function
C. Respiratory rate and oxygen saturation Rationale: Opioids like fentanyl can depress respiratory function, so it is crucial to monitor respiratory rate and oxygen saturation to prevent hypoxia and further increases in ICP.
369
Which of the following statements regarding the use of sedatives, analgesics, and paralytics in patients with increased ICP is correct? A. These medications are used only to manage pain and discomfort and do not affect ICP B. The choice of medications should be tailored based on the patient’s neurologic state and history C. Analgesics and sedatives should be avoided to ensure an accurate neurologic assessment D. Nondepolarizing paralytics are used as first-line therapy for increased ICP management
B. The choice of medications should be tailored based on the patient’s neurologic state and history Rationale: The choice of sedatives, analgesics, and paralytics must be individualized to the patient’s condition and history. These medications can affect the neurologic state, so monitoring and adjustment are essential.
370
When caring for a patient with increased ICP who is receiving a sedative infusion, which actions are appropriate to ensure optimal care? (SATA) A. Monitor vital signs regularly, including blood pressure and heart rate B. Assess for any signs of agitation or frustration regularly C. Ensure the patient is in a high-stimulation environment to maintain alertness D. Minimize interruptions and noise in the patient’s environment E. Teach family members to interact with the patient to promote cognitive function
A. Monitor vital signs regularly, including blood pressure and heart rate B. Assess for any signs of agitation or frustration regularly D. Minimize interruptions and noise in the patient’s environment Rationale: Monitoring vital signs, assessing for signs of agitation, and maintaining a quiet environment are critical for managing increased ICP and ensuring patient comfort.
371
Which of the following is the most significant potential side effect of using neuromuscular blocking agents like vecuronium for a patient with increased ICP? A. Excessive sedation B. Increased risk of aspiration C. Inadequate pain control D. Worsening of respiratory function
C. Inadequate pain control Rationale: Neuromuscular blocking agents paralyze muscles without affecting pain perception. Therefore, they must be used in combination with appropriate sedatives and analgesics to ensure adequate pain control.
372
A nurse is caring for a patient with increased ICP who is being sedated with propofol. Which action should the nurse take when planning for discontinuation of the propofol infusion? A. Monitor the patient for hypotension immediately after stopping the infusion B. Wait 24 hours before assessing neurologic function C. Gradually decrease the infusion rate to avoid sudden changes in the patient’s condition D. Perform a neurologic assessment immediately after the infusion is stopped
D. Perform a neurologic assessment immediately after the infusion is stopped Rationale: Propofol has a short half-life, so neurologic assessments can be performed soon after the infusion is stopped.
373
A patient with increased ICP is receiving continuous IV sedation with dexmedetomidine (Precedex). The nurse notes the patient’s blood pressure is 80/50 mmHg. What is the nurse’s priority action? A. Administer a vasopressor to increase blood pressure B. Discontinue the dexmedetomidine infusion immediately C. Notify the healthcare provider about the hypotension D. Reassess blood pressure in 30 minutes
C. Notify the healthcare provider about the hypotension Rationale: Hypotension from dexmedetomidine can lower CPP, so it is critical to notify the healthcare provider for further assessment and management.
374
When managing a patient with increased ICP who is receiving analgesics, which of the following are important nursing actions? (SATA) A. Monitor for changes in neurologic status B. Administer analgesics as needed for pain management C. Assess for respiratory depression and hypoxia D. Increase analgesic doses to prevent pain-related ICP elevation E. Withhold analgesics to avoid sedating the patient excessively
A. Monitor for changes in neurologic status B. Administer analgesics as needed for pain management C. Assess for respiratory depression and hypoxia Rationale: Analgesics should be administered as needed for pain relief, but monitoring neurologic status and respiratory function is essential to prevent complications.
375
Why is it important to assess neurologic status after stopping a sedative like propofol in a patient with increased ICP? A. Propofol affects cerebral blood flow and may obscure neurologic changes B. Neurologic assessments are irrelevant during sedation therapy C. Propofol should be stopped only when neurologic function is normal D. Sedation therapy should never be stopped to assess neurologic status
A. Propofol affects cerebral blood flow and may obscure neurologic changes Rationale: Propofol can affect cerebral blood flow and mask true neurologic changes, so it is crucial to stop the medication before assessing the neurologic status.
376
A patient with increased ICP is being monitored for fluid and electrolyte imbalances. The nurse notices a significant increase in urine output and hypernatremia. Which condition is most likely responsible for these findings? A. Inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) B. Diabetes insipidus C. Hyperaldosteronism D. Hypothyroidism
B. Diabetes insipidus Rationale: Diabetes insipidus, caused by a decrease in antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leads to increased urine output and hypernatremia due to the inability to concentrate urine.
377
Which of the following actions are important when managing fluid and electrolyte imbalances in a patient with increased ICP? (SATA) A. Closely monitor IV fluid administration using an accurate infusion control device B. Increase fluid intake regardless of urine output to maintain hydration C. Assess intake and output, accounting for insensible losses D. Monitor daily weights to assess fluid balance E. Administer potassium supplements without checking serum levels
A. Closely monitor IV fluid administration using an accurate infusion control device C. Assess intake and output, accounting for insensible losses D. Monitor daily weights to assess fluid balance Rationale: Accurate monitoring of IV fluids, intake and output, and daily weights are essential to managing fluid balance in patients with increased ICP. These measures help assess whether the body is retaining or losing fluid and electrolytes.
378
Which of the following lab values is most concerning for a patient with increased ICP? A. Potassium 3.8 mEq/L B. Magnesium 2.0 mEq/L C. Osmolality 285 mOsm/kg D. Sodium 130 mEq/L
D. Sodium 130 mEq/L Rationale: Sodium levels of 130 mEq/L indicate hyponatremia, which is a concern in patients with increased ICP, as it may lead to cerebral edema, changes in LOC, and seizures.
379
A patient with increased ICP is found to have dilutional hyponatremia, decreased urine output, and cerebral edema. What is the most likely cause of these symptoms? A. Diabetes insipidus B. Hyperaldosteronism C. Inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone D. Hyperparathyroidism
C. Inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone Rationale: SIADH results from excess ADH secretion, leading to decreased urine output and dilutional hyponatremia, which can cause cerebral edema, LOC changes, and seizures.
380
Which treatment would be most appropriate for a patient with diabetes insipidus? A. Vasopressin or desmopressin acetate (DDAVP) B. Fluid restriction and diuretics C. Hypertonic saline infusion D. Sodium bicarbonate administration
A. Vasopressin or desmopressin acetate (DDAVP) Rationale: Diabetes insipidus is treated with fluid replacement and medications such as vasopressin or desmopressin acetate (DDAVP), which help concentrate the urine and correct the hypernatremia.
381
What signs and symptoms are commonly associated with SIADH in a patient with increased ICP? (SATA) A. Seizures B. Hypertension C. Dilutional hyponatremia D. Increased urine output E. Cerebral edema
A. Seizures C. Dilutional hyponatremia E. Cerebral edema Rationale: SIADH leads to dilutional hyponatremia, cerebral edema, and changes in LOC, which can trigger seizures. Increased urine output is not typically seen in SIADH; rather, the hallmark is decreased urine output.
382
What is the most appropriate nursing intervention for a patient with SIADH and hyponatremia? A. Restrict fluids and administer hypertonic saline B. Administer diuretics and monitor for hypokalemia C. Provide sodium-rich foods and fluids D. Encourage the patient to drink large amounts of water to dilute sodium
A. Restrict fluids and administer hypertonic saline Rationale: In SIADH, fluid restriction and the administration of hypertonic saline help raise sodium levels and prevent complications like cerebral edema and seizures.
383
A nurse is caring for a patient with increased ICP who develops diabetes insipidus. Which of the following actions is most important when managing this patient? A. Administer fluids to prevent severe dehydration B. Administer vasopressin as prescribed to replace ADH C. Increase sodium intake to correct hypernatremia D. Restrict fluid intake to manage urine output
A. Administer fluids to prevent severe dehydration Rationale: The primary goal in treating diabetes insipidus is fluid replacement to prevent dehydration due to increased urine output, and vasopressin or DDAVP may also be used to replace ADH.
384
A patient with increased ICP is experiencing inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). The nurse is reviewing the patient’s lab results, which show a sodium level of 120 mEq/L and urine output of 300 mL/day. What is the priority nursing intervention? A. Administer sodium chloride to increase sodium levels B. Restrict fluid intake and administer hypertonic saline C. Monitor the patient for signs of dehydration and fluid overload D. Increase urine output with a diuretic and monitor potassium levels
B. Restrict fluid intake and administer hypertonic saline Rationale: In SIADH, restricting fluid intake and administering hypertonic saline is essential to correct dilutional hyponatremia and prevent further complications like cerebral edema.
385
A nurse is caring for a patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) and is monitoring the patient’s response to treatment. Which of the following factors is most likely to increase ICP? A. Use of mechanical ventilation B. Administration of propofol C. Arousal from sleep D. Proper body alignment with minimal head movement
C. Arousal from sleep Rationale: Arousal from sleep can increase ICP due to the sudden increase in cerebral metabolism and blood flow. Other factors like suctioning, hypoxemia, or sudden movements can also raise ICP.
386
The nurse is caring for a patient with increased ICP and is concerned about factors that may elevate ICP. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to minimize increased ICP? (SATA) A. Encourage the patient to cough and clear secretions frequently B. Administer analgesics as prescribed to minimize pain and discomfort C. Assist the patient in avoiding the Valsalva maneuver D. Monitor for signs of hypoxemia and provide oxygen therapy as needed E. Encourage the patient to remain in a fully upright position at all times
B. Administer analgesics as prescribed to minimize pain and discomfort C. Assist the patient in avoiding the Valsalva maneuver D. Monitor for signs of hypoxemia and provide oxygen therapy as needed Rationale: Administering analgesics, avoiding the Valsalva maneuver, and monitoring for hypoxemia are critical steps in minimizing ICP elevation. Coughing, straining, or remaining in a fully upright position unnecessarily increases pressure in the intracranial space.
387
A patient with increased ICP is being monitored for any changes in neurological status. The nurse notices an increase in ICP following the patient’s attempt to cough. What is the most appropriate intervention? A. Administer a sedative to decrease anxiety B. Place the patient in a position that facilitates venous return C. Immediately prepare for intubation D. Encourage the patient to cough again to clear secretions
B. Place the patient in a position that facilitates venous return Rationale: Positioning the patient to facilitate venous return can help reduce ICP. The Valsalva maneuver (coughing) increases ICP, so the nurse should minimize such actions and manage the situation by ensuring proper body positioning.
388
Which of the following is the most important factor to monitor when assessing a patient’s response to treatment for increased ICP? A. Blood pressure B. Urine output C. Arterial blood gases (ABGs) D. Intracranial pressure (ICP) readings
D. Intracranial pressure (ICP) readings Rationale: ICP readings are the most direct and reliable way to assess the effectiveness of treatment and the patient’s status when managing increased ICP. Other parameters like blood pressure and ABGs are important but secondary.
389
The nurse is educating a patient’s family about factors that can increase ICP. Which of the following should be included in the teaching? (SATA) A. Avoiding the Valsalva maneuver B. Restricting the patient from coughing or sneezing C. Encouraging deep breathing exercises to improve oxygenation D. Reducing physical activity to prevent increased intracranial pressure E. Ensuring the patient gets plenty of sleep to promote recovery
A. Avoiding the Valsalva maneuver B. Restricting the patient from coughing or sneezing C. Encouraging deep breathing exercises to improve oxygenation Rationale: The Valsalva maneuver, coughing, and sneezing can increase ICP. Deep breathing exercises can help with oxygenation, which is important for managing ICP. Reducing physical activity may not be necessary unless it involves strain or is otherwise indicated. Proper rest is essential, but deep breathing exercises are a better intervention to manage ICP.
390
A nurse is caring for a patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following body positions should the nurse maintain to optimize cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) and reduce ICP? A. Keep the patient’s head elevated at a 45-degree angle B. Keep the head in a midline position with the head of the bed elevated at 30 degrees C. Keep the patient’s head flexed to 90 degrees to promote drainage D. Position the patient in a prone position to encourage proper ventilation
B. Keep the head in a midline position with the head of the bed elevated at 30 degrees Rationale: The head should be elevated at 30 degrees to promote drainage and reduce vascular congestion, while maintaining the head in a midline position to avoid obstruction of venous return, which could increase ICP.
391
The nurse is positioning a patient with increased ICP. Which of the following actions will help to reduce ICP and improve cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP)? (SATA) A. Keeping the head in a neutral, midline position B. Elevating the head of the bed to more than 45 degrees C. Avoiding extreme neck flexion D. Turning the patient with slow, gentle movements E. Flexing the hips to promote comfort
A. Keeping the head in a neutral, midline position C. Avoiding extreme neck flexion D. Turning the patient with slow, gentle movements Rationale: Keeping the head in a neutral, midline position, avoiding neck flexion, and turning the patient with slow, gentle movements help minimize ICP. Elevating the head of the bed too high or flexing the hips can increase ICP by compromising venous return and intraabdominal pressure.
392
A nurse is caring for a patient with increased ICP and is preparing to turn the patient. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to minimize the risk of increasing ICP? A. Turn the patient slowly and gently to minimize discomfort B. Turn the patient rapidly to prevent skin breakdown C. Flex the patient’s hips to avoid further discomfort D. Keep the head elevated at 45 degrees while turning the patient
A. Turn the patient slowly and gently to minimize discomfort Rationale: Turning the patient slowly and gently helps minimize discomfort and the risk of increasing ICP. Rapid movements can increase ICP. Flexing the hips or elevating the head too high may compromise venous return and increase ICP.
393
What is the most appropriate position for a patient with increased ICP to prevent complications such as venous obstruction and increased intracranial pressure? A. Place the patient in a prone position with the head tilted B. Keep the head elevated more than 45 degrees with the neck flexed C. Keep the head in a neutral, midline position with the bed at 30 degrees D. Position the patient in a lateral position with the head tilted downward
C. Keep the head in a neutral, midline position with the bed at 30 degrees Rationale: Keeping the head in a neutral, midline position with the bed at 30 degrees promotes venous return and drainage while avoiding increased ICP due to flexion of the neck or excessive head elevation.
394
A nurse is caring for a patient with increased ICP. Which of the following actions will help to minimize the complications of immobility in the patient? (SATA) A. Turn the patient at least every 2 hours B. Administer pain medication before turning the patient C. Avoid repositioning the patient to prevent additional discomfort D. Provide passive range of motion exercises regularly E. Encourage the patient to sit up in a chair as often as possible
A. Turn the patient at least every 2 hours B. Administer pain medication before turning the patient D. Provide passive range of motion exercises regularly Rationale: Turning the patient at least every 2 hours and providing passive range of motion help prevent complications of immobility, such as atelectasis and contractures. Administering pain medication before turning will minimize discomfort. Avoiding repositioning and encouraging sitting up may not be feasible with increased ICP.
395
Which of the following is the most important reason to avoid extreme neck flexion in a patient with increased ICP? A. It can lead to increased abdominal pressure B. It can reduce oxygenation to the brain C. It can increase the risk for aspiration D. It can obstruct venous return and contribute to increased ICP
D. It can obstruct venous return and contribute to increased ICP Rationale: Extreme neck flexion can obstruct venous return from the brain, leading to an increase in ICP. Maintaining a neutral head position avoids this complication.
396
A nurse is assessing a patient with increased ICP who is positioned in the bed with the head elevated at 45 degrees. The nurse notices a decrease in the patient’s cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP). Which of the following actions should the nurse take next? A. Increase the head elevation to 60 degrees B. Keep the patient flat in the supine position C. Decrease the head elevation to 30 degrees D. Turn the patient to the lateral position
C. Decrease the head elevation to 30 degrees Rationale: Reducing the head elevation to 30 degrees may help improve CPP by optimizing systemic blood pressure and venous return, thereby decreasing ICP.
397
What is the most appropriate action when turning a patient with increased ICP? A. Use rapid, jerky movements to prevent pressure ulcers B. Avoid turning the patient to the right side to minimize ICP C. Turn the patient slowly and gently to reduce discomfort and ICP D. Flex the patient’s hips to help with positioning
C. Turn the patient slowly and gently to reduce discomfort and ICP Rationale: Turning the patient slowly and gently helps prevent increases in ICP and minimizes discomfort. Rapid movements can elevate ICP, while flexing the hips may raise intraabdominal pressure.
398
When caring for a patient with increased ICP, which of the following interventions should the nurse implement to reduce the risk of complications from immobility? (SATA) A. Turn the patient at least every 2 hours B. Administer sedatives before repositioning to avoid agitation C. Perform passive range of motion exercises regularly D. Restrict patient mobility to minimize physical exertion E. Provide frequent oral care to prevent dryness and discomfort
A. Turn the patient at least every 2 hours C. Perform passive range of motion exercises regularly E. Provide frequent oral care to prevent dryness and discomfort Rationale: Turning the patient every 2 hours, performing passive range of motion, and providing oral care are important for preventing complications of immobility and promoting comfort. Sedatives and restricted mobility may not be beneficial for overall care.
399
A nurse is caring for a patient with increased ICP who is experiencing decerebrate posturing. Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize to reduce the patient’s ICP? A. Reposition the patient to a midline, neutral position B. Avoid turning the patient to prevent further posturing C. Administer a neuromuscular blocking agent D. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees to improve drainage
A. Reposition the patient to a midline, neutral position Rationale: Repositioning the patient to a neutral, midline position helps to reduce posturing and minimize ICP. Elevating the head of the bed too high or using medications without proper assessment may worsen the situation.
400
A nurse is assessing a patient with increased ICP and observes the patient’s hips are flexed at a 90-degree angle. Which of the following outcomes could occur as a result of this positioning? A. Increased cerebral blood flow (CBF) B. Decreased ICP due to better venous return C. Enhanced comfort for the patient and reduced risk of decubitus ulcers D. Increased intraabdominal pressure, which may increase ICP
D. Increased intraabdominal pressure, which may increase ICP Rationale: Flexing the hips can increase intraabdominal pressure, which can obstruct venous return from the brain and subsequently increase ICP. It is essential to avoid extreme hip flexion in patients with increased ICP.
401
A nurse is caring for a patient with increased ICP who is confused and agitated. The patient is at risk for injury due to the confusion. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate to protect the patient from self-injury? A. Use restraints without sedatives to prevent the patient from moving B. Place the patient on seizure precautions with padded side rails and suction equipment C. Allow the patient to wander freely in the room to promote mobility D. Administer sedatives only when the patient is fully calm and cooperative
B. Place the patient on seizure precautions with padded side rails and suction equipment Rationale: Placing the patient on seizure precautions, including padded side rails and suction equipment, is essential to protect the patient from injury. Restraints should only be used cautiously and with sedation to prevent further agitation.
402
A nurse is caring for a patient with increased ICP who is agitated and at risk for self-injury. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement to protect the patient from harm? (SATA) A. Secure the patient in restraints to prevent movement B. Provide a quiet, nonstimulating environment C. Administer sedatives to manage agitation D. Allow family members to stay with the patient for comfort E. Encourage the patient to move freely in bed for comfort
B. Provide a quiet, nonstimulating environment C. Administer sedatives to manage agitation D. Allow family members to stay with the patient for comfort Rationale: A quiet, nonstimulating environment, administering sedatives when necessary, and allowing family members to stay with the patient can help calm the patient and prevent injury. Restraints should only be used if absolutely necessary, and allowing the patient to move freely is not appropriate for safety.
403
Which of the following actions is the nurse’s priority when caring for a patient with increased ICP who is confused and at risk for seizures? A. Administer antiseizure prophylaxis as ordered B. Allow the patient to sit in a chair to prevent bed sores C. Place the patient in a prone position to enhance oxygenation D. Keep the environment bright and stimulating to encourage awareness
A. Administer antiseizure prophylaxis as ordered Rationale: Administering antiseizure prophylaxis as ordered is critical to prevent seizures, especially in the first 7-10 days following severe brain injury. The other options do not address the patient’s immediate safety concerns.
404
A nurse is caring for a patient with increased ICP who is at risk for seizures. The patient is receiving antiseizure prophylaxis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to ensure the patient’s safety during a seizure? A. Place padded side rails on both sides of the bed B. Administer sedatives immediately after a seizure C. Restrict the patient’s movement to prevent injury D. Leave the patient alone to avoid overstimulation
A. Place padded side rails on both sides of the bed Rationale: Padded side rails and suction equipment should be readily available to protect the patient from injury during a seizure. Immediate sedation after a seizure is not appropriate without a medical assessment.
405
The nurse is caring for a patient with increased ICP who is experiencing agitation. Which of the following strategies is most effective for reducing agitation and preventing self-injury in this patient? A. Use physical restraints without sedation B. Administer sedative medications to calm the patient C. Avoid family presence to minimize distractions D. Allow the patient to walk around the room to reduce stress
B. Administer sedative medications to calm the patient Rationale: Administering sedative medications can help calm the patient and reduce agitation, making the patient less likely to harm themselves. Physical restraints should only be used if absolutely necessary and with sedation. Family presence can provide comfort.
406
A nurse is caring for a patient with increased ICP who is confused and at risk for seizures. Which of the following measures should the nurse implement to protect the patient from injury? (SATA) A. Place the patient on seizure precautions with padded side rails B. Provide a calm, reassuring environment C. Restrict fluids to reduce intracranial pressure D. Ensure timely administration of antiseizure drugs E. Allow the patient to be in a sitting position to prevent aspiration
A. Place the patient on seizure precautions with padded side rails B. Provide a calm, reassuring environment D. Ensure timely administration of antiseizure drugs Rationale: Seizure precautions, a calm environment, and timely administration of antiseizure medications are essential to prevent injury. Restricting fluids is not an appropriate intervention without further assessment, and positioning the patient sitting up is not indicated unless in a safe environment.
407
A nurse is caring for a patient with increased ICP who is confused, agitated, and at risk for self-injury. The patient is restrained for safety. What is the most important action for the nurse to take when using restraints on this patient? A. Observe the skin area under the restraints regularly for irritation B. Keep the restraints tight to prevent the patient from moving C. Leave the patient in restraints as long as possible to avoid repositioning D. Administer high doses of sedatives to calm the patient
A. Observe the skin area under the restraints regularly for irritation Rationale: It is essential to regularly assess the skin under the restraints for irritation to prevent pressure injuries. Restraints should be secure but not overly tight, and sedation should only be used when necessary.
408
A nurse is caring for a patient with increased ICP and is considering the use of restraints due to agitation. Which of the following is the nurse’s primary concern when using restraints on this patient? A. The patient may become further agitated and require more sedation B. The patient’s oxygen levels may decrease C. The patient may experience irritation or pressure injuries under the restraints D. The patient may become non-compliant with treatment
C. The patient may experience irritation or pressure injuries under the restraints Rationale: The nurse’s primary concern should be preventing skin irritation or pressure injuries under the restraints. While agitation and sedation are concerns, preventing harm from the restraints is paramount.
409
A nurse is caring for a patient with increased ICP who is confused and at risk for self-injury. Which of the following interventions will best protect the patient from injury? (SATA) A. Provide a quiet, nonstimulating environment B. Place padded side rails on the bed C. Administer sedatives only after a seizure has occurred D. Allow the patient to walk around the room with assistance E. Provide family members with instructions on how to assist with care
A. Provide a quiet, nonstimulating environment B. Place padded side rails on the bed E. Provide family members with instructions on how to assist with care Rationale: A quiet, nonstimulating environment and padded side rails help reduce the risk of injury. Family members can provide emotional support and assist in calming the patient. Walking around the room may not be safe, and sedatives should be administered before a seizure occurs, not after.
410
A nurse is providing care for a patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP). The family is anxious about the patient’s prognosis and is seeking information. Which of the following actions by the nurse would provide the best support for the family? A) Provide detailed medical information about the patient’s condition. B) Limit information to prevent overwhelming the family. C) Encourage family members to discuss the situation among themselves. D) Offer simple, clear explanations, and allow the family to ask questions.
D) Offer simple, clear explanations, and allow the family to ask questions. Rationale: Providing simple, clear explanations and allowing the family to ask questions helps reduce anxiety and ensures the family receives the necessary information without feeling overwhelmed.
411
A nurse is caring for a patient with increased ICP who is confused and agitated. The nurse is concerned about the patient’s safety. What is the most appropriate intervention? A) Apply restraints immediately to prevent injury. B) Administer sedation to manage the agitation. C) Place the patient in a quiet room and minimize stimulation. D) Use a calm, reassuring approach and allow the patient to express their feelings.
B) Administer sedation to manage the agitation. Rationale: Sedation can help manage agitation, making the patient safer and more comfortable, especially in a state of confusion or agitation. Restraints should only be used when absolutely necessary.
412
The family of a patient with increased ICP expresses concern about their loved one’s confusion and agitation. What is the nurse’s best response? A) “The patient will calm down once we administer sedation.” B) “I understand your concern. We are carefully monitoring and managing your loved one’s condition.” C) “You should try to stay calm. The situation is under control.” D) “There is nothing to worry about, your loved one will be fine.”
B) “I understand your concern. We are carefully monitoring and managing your loved one’s condition.” Rationale: Acknowledging the family’s concern and providing reassurance that the situation is being actively managed is the best response. This helps reduce anxiety and provides the family with a sense of security.
413
When providing care to a patient with increased ICP, the nurse notices that the patient is exhibiting signs of agitation. What should the nurse do next? A) Increase the frequency of assessments to monitor the patient’s response. B) Ask the family to leave the room to reduce stimulation. C) Apply restraints to ensure patient safety. D) Administer sedative medications as ordered.
D) Administer sedative medications as ordered. Rationale: Administering sedative medications as prescribed helps manage agitation effectively, making the patient safer and more comfortable.
414
A nurse is working with the family of a patient with increased ICP. The family is concerned about their loved one’s future and prognosis. Which of the following would be the most supportive action by the nurse? A) Provide detailed information about long-term care and rehabilitation options. B) Limit the amount of information provided to prevent the family from becoming overwhelmed. C) Offer short, clear explanations and allow the family to ask questions. D) Recommend the family take a break from the hospital to reduce stress.
C) Offer short, clear explanations and allow the family to ask questions. Rationale: Offering short, clear explanations and allowing the family to ask questions ensures they are informed without becoming overwhelmed by excessive details.
415
A nurse is evaluating a patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) after implementing several nursing interventions. Which of the following findings indicates that the interventions have been effective? A) The patient has decerebrate posturing after repositioning. B) The patient has a cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) of 62 mm Hg and ICP of 14 mm Hg. C) The patient experiences increased agitation and nausea following suctioning. D) The patient demonstrates mild hyponatremia and decreased urine output.
B) The patient has a cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) of 62 mm Hg and ICP of 14 mm Hg. Rationale: A CPP of 62 mm Hg and an ICP of 14 mm Hg are within acceptable limits, indicating adequate cerebral perfusion and controlled ICP. This reflects that interventions are effective in maintaining ICP and cerebral perfusion within normal parameters.
416
A nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of care provided to a patient with increased ICP who has been immobile for several days. Which of the following findings best indicates a successful outcome related to immobility? A) The patient is turned every 4 hours and has developed a sacral pressure ulcer. B) The patient remains in a semi-Fowler’s position with no signs of foot drop or atelectasis. C) The patient exhibits shallow respirations and diminished breath sounds in the lower lobes. D) The patient refuses passive range-of-motion exercises and is at risk for contractures.
B) The patient remains in a semi-Fowler’s position with no signs of foot drop or atelectasis. Rationale: Maintaining positioning and preventing complications like foot drop or atelectasis are indicators that the patient has no complications of immobility, which reflects a successful nursing outcome.
417
Vasogenic cerebral edema increases intracranial pressure by a. shifting fluid in the gray matter. b. disrupting the blood-brain barrier. c. leaking molecules from the intracellular fluid to the capillaries. d. altering the osmotic gradient flow into the intravascular component.
b. disrupting the blood-brain barrier.
418
A patient with intracranial pressure monitoring has a pressure of 12 mm Hg. The nurse understands that this pressure reflects a. a severe decrease in cerebral perfusion pressure. b. an alteration in the production of cerebrospinal fluid. c. the loss of autoregulatory control of intracranial pressure. d. a normal balance among brain tissue, blood, and cerebrospinal fluid.
d. a normal balance among brain tissue, blood, and cerebrospinal fluid.
419
A nurse plans care for the patient with increased intracranial pressure with the knowledge that the best way to position the patient is to a. keep the head of the bed flat. b. elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees. c. maintain patient on the left side with the head supported on a pillow. d. use a continuous-rotation bed to continuously change patient position.
b. elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees.
420
A nursing measure that can reduce the potential for seizures and increased intracranial pressure in the patient with bacterial meningitis is a. administering codeine for relief of head and neck pain. b. controlling fever with prescribed drugs and cooling techniques. c. maintaining strict bed rest with the head of the bed slightly elevated. d. keeping the room dark and quiet to minimize environmental stimulation.
b. controlling fever with prescribed drugs and cooling techniques.
421
Admission vital signs for a patient who has a brain injury are blood pressure of 128/68 mm Hg, pulse of 110 beats/min, and of respirations 26 breaths/min. Which set of vital signs, if taken 1 hour later, will be of most concern to the nurse? a. Blood pressure 154/68 mm Hg, pulse 56 beats/min, respirations 12 breaths/min b. Blood pressure 134/72 mm Hg, pulse 90 beats/min, respirations 32 breaths/min c. Blood pressure 148/78 mm Hg, pulse 112 beats/min, respirations 28 breaths/min d. Blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg, pulse 120 beats/min, respirations 30 breaths/min
a. Blood pressure 154/68 mm Hg, pulse 56 beats/min, respirations 12 breaths/min Rationale: Systolic hypertension with widening pulse pressure, bradycardia, and respiratory changes represent Cushing‘s triad. These findings indicate that the intracranial pressure (ICP) has increased, and brain herniation may be imminent unless immediate action is taken to reduce ICP. The other vital signs may indicate the need for changes in treatment, but they are not indicative of an immediately life-threatening process.
422
When a brain-injured patient responds to nail bed pressure with internal rotation, adduction, and flexion of the arms, how would the nurse report the response? a. Flexion withdrawal b. Localization of pain c. Decorticate posturing d. Decerebrate posturing
c. Decorticate posturing Rationale: Internal rotation, adduction, and flexion of the arms in an unconscious patient is documented as decorticate posturing. Extension of the arms and legs is decerebrate posturing. Because the flexion is generalized, it does not indicate localization of pain or flexion withdrawal.
423
The nurse has administered prescribed IV mannitol (Osmitrol) to an unconscious patient. Which parameter would the nurse monitor to determine the medication‘s effectiveness? a. Blood pressure b. Oxygen saturation c. Intracranial pressure d. Hemoglobin and hematocrit
c. Intracranial pressure Rationale: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic and will reduce cerebral edema and intracranial pressure. It may initially reduce hematocrit and increase blood pressure, but these are not parameters for evaluation of the effectiveness of the drug. O 2 saturation will not directly improve because of mannitol administration.
424
A patient who is unconscious after a head injury has cerebral edema. Which nursing intervention will be included in the plan of care? a. Encourage coughing and deep breathing. b. Position the patient with knees and hips flexed. c. Keep the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees. d. Cluster nursing interventions to provide rest periods.
c. Keep the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees. Rationale: The patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) would be maintained in the head-up position with the head in neutral position to help reduce ICP. Extreme flexion of the hips and knees increases abdominal pressure, which increases ICP. Because the stimulation associated with nursing interventions increases ICP, clustering interventions will progressively elevate ICP. Coughing increases intrathoracic pressure and ICP.
425
A 20-yr-old is admitted with a head injury after a collision while playing sports. After noting that the patient has developed clear nasal drainage, which action would the nurse take? a. Have the patient gently blow the nose. b. Check the drainage for glucose content. c. Teach the patient that rhinorrhea is expected after a head injury. d. Obtain a specimen of the fluid to send for culture and sensitivity.
b. Check the drainage for glucose content. Rationale: Clear nasal drainage in a patient with a head injury suggests a dural tear and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage. If the drainage is CSF, it will test positive for glucose. Fluid leaking from the nose will have normal nasal flora, so culture and sensitivity will not be useful. Blowing the nose is avoided to prevent CSF leakage.
426
After endotracheal suctioning, the nurse notes that the intracranial pressure (ICP) for a patient with a traumatic head injury has increased from 14 to 17 mm Hg. Which action would the nurse take first? a. Document the increase in intracranial pressure. b. Ensure that the patient‘s neck is in neutral position. c. Notify the health care provider about the change in pressure. d. Increase the rate of the prescribed propofol (Diprivan) infusion.
b. Ensure that the patient‘s neck is in neutral position. Rationale: Because suctioning will cause a transient increase in ICP, the nurse should initially check for other factors that might be contributing to the increase and observe the patient for a few minutes. Documentation is needed, but this is not the first action. There is no need to notify the health care provider about this expected reaction to suctioning. Propofol is used to control patient anxiety or agitation. There is no indication that anxiety has contributed to the increase in ICP.
427
A patient who has possible cerebral edema has a serum sodium level of 116 mEq/L (116 mmol/L) and a decreasing level of consciousness (LOC). The patient is now reporting a headache. Which prescribed intervention would the nurse implement first? a. Administer IV hypertonic saline. b. Draw blood for arterial blood gases (ABGs). c. Send patient for computed tomography (CT). d. Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg.
a. Administer IV hypertonic saline. Rationale: The patient‘s low sodium indicates that hyponatremia may be causing the cerebral edema. The nurse‘s first action would be to correct the low sodium level. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) will have minimal effect on the headache because it is caused by cerebral edema and increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Drawing ABGs and obtaining a CT scan may provide some useful information, but the low sodium level may lead to seizures unless it is addressed quickly.
428
After the emergency department nurse has received a status report on the following patients with head injuries, which patient would the nurse assess first? a. A 20-yr-old patient whose cranial x-ray shows a linear skull fracture b. A 30-yr-old patient who lost consciousness for 10 seconds after a fall c. A 40-yr-old patient who has an initial Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13 d. A 50-yr-old patient whose right pupil is 10 mm and unresponsive to light
d. A 50-yr-old patient whose right pupil is 10 mm and unresponsive to light Rationale: The dilated and nonresponsive pupil may indicate an intracerebral hemorrhage and increased intracranial pressure. The other patients are not at immediate risk for complications such as herniation.
429
After evacuation of an epidural hematoma, a patient‘s intracranial pressure (ICP) is being monitored with an intraventricular catheter. Which information obtained by the nurse requires urgent communication with the health care provider? a. Pulse of 102 beats/min b. Temperature of 101.6°F c. Intracranial pressure of 15 mm Hg d. Mean arterial pressure of 90 mm Hg
b. Temperature of 101.6°F Rationale: Infection is a serious complication of ICP monitoring, especially with intraventricular catheters. The temperature indicates the need for antibiotics or removal of the monitor. The ICP, arterial pressure, and apical pulse only require ongoing monitoring at this time.