Ch 7, 8, 9 SG Flashcards

(72 cards)

1
Q

cephalosporines have about a 10% cross-hypersensitivity with

A

penicillin

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2
Q

milk should not be given concomitantly with

A

tetracyclines

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3
Q

what can prolong penicillin’s effet?

A

probenecid

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4
Q

the overgrowth of an organism that was not present when the tx of an infection began is termed

A

superinfection

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5
Q

pts who are given metronidazole should be warned about

A

alcohol

they should not have alcohol

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6
Q

what condition does a patient who is taking isoniazid and rifampin have

A

tuberculosis

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7
Q

blue-pigmented oral lesions in adults and vestibular dysfunction are associated with

A

minocycline

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8
Q

what could be given to a patient before root planning when the patient has a history of infective endocardititis, is allergic to penicillin, and has severe gatric upset with erythromycin

A

clindamycin

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9
Q

cardiac dose of epinephrine is

A

0.04

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10
Q

an advantage of the amide over the ester local anesthetics

A

lack of allergenicity

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11
Q

macrolids include

A

erythromycin
azithromycin
clarithromycin

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12
Q

patient has had an artificial hip replacement for 10 years without any problems. what should this patient take an hour before appointment for oral prophylaxis

A

nothing

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13
Q

if bacteriostatic and bacteriocidal agents are given concomitantly, one might expect

A

they cancel eachother out

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14
Q

which two have excellent anaerobic coverage

A

metronidazole

clindamycin

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15
Q

major problem with use of erythromycin

A

GI effects

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16
Q

agent produces a statistically significant change in duration of recurrent herpes simplex lesions in the immunocompenent patient

A

penciclovir

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17
Q

antibiotic associated colitis is most closly associated with

A

clindamycin

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18
Q

usful in tx of oral candididiasis

A

clotrimazole

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19
Q

pt who has taken tetracycline exhibits white patchy oral lesions that bleed when they are scraped. what should be used to tx these lesions

A

nystatin

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20
Q

essentially ineffective against anaerobic bacteria

A

erythromycin

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21
Q

theophylline toxicity may result if a patient aleardy taking theophylline is given

A

erythromycin

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22
Q

which dosage form of nystatin is the least cariogenic (has lowest sugar content)?

A

vaginal tablet

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23
Q

penicillin has a ____ spectrum of action and tetracyclin has a ____ spectrum of action

A

narrow

wide

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24
Q

what is resistant to penicillinase

A

augmentin

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25
if a patient is allergic to penicillin, there is a 10% cross-hypersensitivity to
cephalosporines
26
which should be avoided in the tx of a patient with alcoholism?
metronidazole
27
which drug should be used before an oral prophylaxis for a patient who has rheumatic heart disease
amoxicillin
28
pt who is allergic to penicillin will have an allergic reaction to which of the following drugs
cephalexin
29
which drug is used to tx an infection with candida albicans
nystatin
30
when taken with antacids, can result in as much as a 50% decrease in intestianal absorption of the medication
tetracyclin
31
MOA of local anesthetics is to
interfere with function of the neurons
32
preferred over penicillin and ampicillin because it requires less daily dosing
amoxicillin
33
of all the drugs in dental office; _____ most likely to cause an anaphylactic reaction
penicillin
34
2 grams 1 hour before dental treatment is the antibiotic regimin for
amoxicillin
35
most common reported side effect associated with any of the antibiotics is
GI effects
36
most common manifestation of allergy to penicillin is
rash
37
examples of antifungal agents
nystatin clotrimazole ketoconazole fluconazole
38
most frequent antifuncal angent used in dentistry
imidazole
39
amide or ester? | lidocaine (Xylocaine)
amide
40
amide or ester? | mepivacaine (Carbocaine)
amide
41
amide or ester? | procaine (Novocaine)
ester
42
amide or ester? | tetracaine (Pontocaine)
ester
43
amide or ester? | prilocaine (Citanest)
amide
44
amide or ester? | propoxycaine (Ravocaine)
ester
45
amide or ester? | bupivacaine (Marcaine)
amide
46
amides are not likely to cause allergic reactions. an additive that may trigger a reaction is
sodium metabisulfite
47
most commonly used vasoconstrictor
epinephrine
48
most commonly used topical anesthetic
benzocaine
49
local anesthetic of choice when a long duration of action is required, eg. long dental procedure on post op pain is expected
bupivacaine
50
used to proved some local anesthetic to a patient with a history of allergy to all local anesthetics
diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
51
makes local anesthetic solution isotonic
sodium chloride
52
prevents bacteria from growing local anesthetic solution that is used repeatedly
methylparaben
53
is a vasoconstrictor in local anesthetic solutions
epinephrine
54
adjust the pH of local anesthetic solutions
sodium hydroxide
55
acts as an antioxidant in local anesthetic solutions
sodium metabisulfite
56
a patient is given extensive doses of a broad-spectrum antibiotic. a sequela that may develop is
black hairy tongue
57
penicillin acts by interfering with the syntheisis of the
cell wall
58
a pt with a history of which of the following may required antibiotic premedication before subgingival instrumentation
prosthetic cardiac valve pervious infective endocarditis congenital heart disease (CHD)
59
which of the following drugs is used to tx infection with candida albicans
nystatin
60
prophylactic antibiotic therapy is necessary for patients with the following conditions except
mitral valve prolapse rheumatic heart disease bicuspid valve disease calcified aortic stenosis
61
drugs used to tx hyperlipidemia
-statin
62
most often used drug in dentistry
local anesthetic
63
order of nerve function loss
1. autonomic 2. cold 3. warmth 4. pain 5. touch 6. pressure 7. vibration 8. proprioception 9. motor
64
ending of protease inhibitors
-vir (or -avir)
65
ending of nucleoside analogs
-ine
66
ending of nonnucleoside analogs
root of -vir-; ending in -ine
67
protease inhibitor, nucleoside analog, or nonnucleoside analog? saquinavir
protease
68
protease inhibitor, nucleoside analog, or nonnucleoside analog? didanosine
nucleoside
69
protease inhibitor, nucleoside analog, or nonnucleoside analog? delavirdine
nonnucleoside
70
protease inhibitor, nucleoside analog, or nonnucleoside analog? ritonavir
protease
71
protease inhibitor, nucleoside analog, or nonnucleoside analog? zidovudine
nucleoside
72
protease inhibitor, nucleoside analog, or nonnucleoside analog? nevirapine
nonnucleoside