Ch 9&10 Flashcards

(49 cards)

1
Q

Xenobiotics are EXOGENOUS chemicals in the environment in air, water, food, and soil, that can be absorbed into the body

^** Can include environmental chemicals, drugs, smoking, alcohol, or hormones

Xenobiotics, along with drugs and solvents can be transported in the blood (lipophilic) and therefore either act at the site of injury or at a distant site

Once distributed to the tissues, the agents can either be stored, directly toxic, or metabolized to ____ water soluble products that can be excreted, or active toxic metabolites

Metabolizing chemical agents like xenobiotics occurs in 2 phases, phase 1 (hydrolysis or reduction or oxidation) leading to a primary metabolite and Phase 2 (gluuronidation, sulfation, methylation, or conjugation) leading to a secondary water solube metabolite that is excreted (detoxified)

^** The most important catalyst of phase 1 reactions is the ____ enzyme system that can convert xenobiotics into toxic or nontoxic metabolites

A

Inactive

Cytochrome P-450 (CYP)

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2
Q

Chronic CO poisoning can occur in those who work in tunnels, underground garages, or highway toll booths and acute CO poisoning can be from a closed garage or after a mining fire

Since CO has a 200x greater affinity for hemoglobin than oxygen does for hemoglobin, the CO binds to Hg and causes less O2 transport and systemic hypoxia develops

CO kills by inducing ___ depression, so chronic patients have slowly developing ischemic changes in the CNS (mainly in the basal ganglia and lenticular nuclei)

*****Acute patients are characterized by a ____ color of the skin and mucous membranes

A

CNS

Cherry red

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3
Q

Metals that are toxic include Lead, Mercury, Arsenic, and Cadmium

1) Lead

** Lead binds to sulfhydryl groups in proteins and interferes with ___ metabolism leading to hematologic, skeletal, neurological, GI, and renal toxicities

Blood and marrow changes (such as radiodense deposits in epiphyses of children) occur rapidly and for the blood component,if one were to see ___cytic, ___chromic anemia, accompanied by mild hemolysis THINK LEAD POISONING** and this is due to the fact that it inhibits enzymes involved in heme synthesis (no hemoglobin is made)

Also ____ can be detected (RBC precursors with iron-laden mitochondria) and a punctate ____ stippling of the red cells*****

In children, since they have a higher GI absorption and more permeable BBB, ___ damage often occurs leading to decreased IQ, learning disabilities, blindness, etc

In adults, CNS is also involved but MAINLY it is PNS involvement like a peripheral _____ of neuropathy leading to a wrist drop and foot drop

Finally, the GI and kidneys are also commonly affected

2) Mercury

** The major source of mercury is contaminated fish and the developing ___ is sensitive to methyl mercury and this causes accumulation in the CNS and damage to the kidney

If a fetus is exposed to high levels of mercury in utero, it can lead to ____ disease characterized by cerebral palsy, deafness, and blindness

3) Arsenic

** Found in the soil and water along with some wood preservatives and herbicides

Causes toxic effects in the GI tract, CNS, and CV systems and long term exposure can lead to skin lesions and carcinomas typically found on the palms and soles

4) Cadmium

Normal exposure occurs from nickel-cadmium batteries and chemical fertilizers causing the food to become contaminated

*** The major organ system involved with excess cadmium is obstructive ___ diseases ** causes by necrosis of alveolar epithelial cells or retinal tubular damage (kidney disease) that can lead to end-stage renal failure

A

1) Calcium

Microcytic, hypochromic

Ring sideroblasts, basophilic

Brain

Demyelination

2) Brain

Minamata disease

4) Lung

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4
Q

Liver angiosarcomas can be caused by ___

Male and female infertility is often due to mercury or lead

Cataracs often due to UV radiation

Fibrosis in the respiratory system often due to silica or asbestos

Lung cancer often due to asbestos

Nasal cancer often due to wood dust

Chronic obstructive lung disease often due to ____

Heart diseases often due to carbon monoxide

A

Vinyl chloride

Cadmium

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5
Q

Agents in smoke have a direct irritant effect on the _____ mucosa causing inflammation and increased mucous production (bronchitis) along with increased leukocyte recruitment causing elastase to be produced and therefore ____

Remember, phase 1 enzymes, mainly ____ facilitates excretion of toxic chemicals (along with phase 2 enzymes) however, some of the byproducts that are created are electorphilic and can cause DNA adducts leading to gene mutations in oncogenes or tumor suppressor genes if accumulated

^** Nitrosamines (NNK) and Polycyclic hydrocarbons such as ____ DNA adducts are directly involved in lung cancer development (these are carcinogens) and along with lung cancers, mouth and esophagus, pancreas, bladder, cervix, and bone marrow cancers can also arise

Non-malignant problems with smoking include most often those involved with the lungs (emphysema, chronic bronchitis, chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases along with its development of ____ and therefore MIs

Finally, smoking can also affect the developing fetus and lead to spontaneous abortions and preterm births causing intrauterine growth retardation

Also, smokeless tobacco is important for oral cancers

A

Tacehobronchial, emphysema

Benzo[a]pyrene

Atherosclerosis

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6
Q

Most of the ethanol in the blood is oxidized to ____ via 3 pathways include ADH (Alcohol dehydrogenase), the ___ system and Catalase and then acetaldehyde is transfered into the mitochondria where it is converted via ALDH (aldehyde dehydrogenase) to be utilized in the respiratory chain

Converting alcohol (ethanol) to acetaldehyde via ADH and then acetic acid via ALDH converts ____ to ____ and the increased NADH/NAD ratio leads to ____ (aka accumulation of fat in the liver) and ____ since NAD is needed for fatty acid oxidation in the liver and also needed for conversion of lactate into pyruvate

Also, when Ethanol is in high concentrations, it ___ the metabolism of other drugs (because remember, other drugs are detoxified by the CYP system as well) since the CYP2E1 enzymes are being used to convert ethanol to acetaldehyde in microsomes (in the SER)

A

Acetaldehyde, CYP (CYP2E1)

Steatosis, lactic acidosis

Inhibits

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7
Q

Acute alcoholism affects mainly the ____, but can also cause hepatic (steatosis) and gastric (acute gastritis or ulcerations) systems

Chronic alcoholism’s major effect is on the liver cause steatosis, alcoholic hepatitis, and cirrhosis (liver damage from scarring) leading to portal hypertension and increased risk for hepatocellular carcinomas

^** Chronic alcoholism also affects the stomach, and ALL other organ systems including GI tract (gastritis and gastric ulcer can cause bleeding), CV system (can cause alcoholic cardiomyopathies), fetal alcohol syndrome, ____ deficiency is often common (causing peripheral neuropathies or Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome), and cancers (most commonly ____ is the main agent that causes oral cavity, laryngeal and esophageal cancers)

^** Realize that you have an increased risk for these cancers in those who smoke

A

CNS

Vitamin B1 (Thiamine), acetaldehyde

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8
Q

Oral contraceptives can protect against endometrial and ovarian cancers, but have an INCREASED RISK for _____ (venous thrombosis and pulmonary embolisms) due to the hypercoagulable state induced by elevated hepatic synthesis of coagulation factors, especially those with the factor V leiden mutation

^** Also OCs have an INCREASED RISK of a cancer called ____, especially in older women who have used them for a long time

A

Thromboembolism

Hepatic adenoma

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9
Q

The most commonly used painkiller in the world is Acetaminophen

Normally (95%), it undergoes detoxification via phase 2 enzymes;

However, sometimes (5%) it is metabolized via ____ enzymes to ___ and if this occurs, the NAPQ is normally conjugated with GSH to cause no toxicity

At HIGH levels of Acetaminophen however, unconjugated NAPQI accumulates causing protein adducts and lipid peroxidation and leads to hepatocellular injury (due to decreased GSH leaving hepatocytes susceptible to ROS and binding of hepatic proteins causing mitochondrial dysfucntion and membrane damage) causing _____ and this can progress to liver failure

^** Remember, chronic alcoholics also are using much of their CYP2E1 enzyme so even low doses of aspirin in chronic alcoholics have effects

Also realize if one were given a drug to increase GSH levels, it could help them

Acute Aspirin overdose causes alkalosis followed by metabolic ____ and the accumulation of pyruvate and lactate

Chronic aspirin toxicity can lead to ___ ulcerations and bleeding and the bleeding is due to the fact that ____ is blocked, which is needed for platelet aggregation

A

CYP (CYP2E1), NAPQ

Cetrilobular necrosis

Acidosis

Gastric, Thromboxane A2

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10
Q

*****Name the burn classification

1) Confined to the epidermis
2) Involves the dermis
3) Extends to the subcutaneous tissue

In burn patients, if more than 20% of the body is burned, a systemic ____ response syndrome can cause shock, sepsis, infection, or respiratory insufficiency and if 40% or more of the body is burned, a hyp__metabolic state occurs

*****If a burn is white or charred, dry and painless, it is a ____ burn

If the burn is pink or mottled with blisters and painful then it is a ____ burn

The devitalized tissues undergo ___ necrosis, adjacent to vital tissues that quickly accumulate inflammatory cells and marked exudation

A

1) Superficial burns (used to be called 1st degree)
2) Partial thickness burns (used to be called 2nd degree)
3) Full thickness burns (used to be called 3rd degree)

Inflammatory, Hypermetabolic

Full thickness

Partial thickness

Coagulative necrosis

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11
Q

Tissues with a ___ rate of cell division are the most vulnerable to radiation and include the gonads, bone marrow, lymphoid tissue, and mucosa of the GI tract

Ionizing radiation can have a direct effect, however more importantly, it has its effect via ____ formation

^** The major mechanism of DNA damage is due to ___, which are produced from reactions with free radicals generated by radiolysis of water or molecular oxygen and the most serious damage to DNA is DSBs (double stranded breaks)

Poorly vascularized tissues with less oxygenation (aka hypoxia) are ___ sensitive to radiation since there is not as much oxygen present to be converted to ROS (so for example, the center of a tumor is less oxygenated and therefore less sensitive)

Ionizing radiation that causes DNA damage can cause cell death, fetus or germ cell teratogenesis, or carcinogenesis

Ionizing radiation can also injure epithelial cells of blood vessels leading to impaired healing, sub intimal ___, and chronic ischemic atrophy

A

High

Free radical

ROS

Less

Fibrosis

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12
Q

**The gonads, blood and bone marrow are the three systems affected early from radiation **

Hours after radiation, lymphopenia often occurs along with shrinkage of the lymph nodes and spleen

Hematopoietic precursors are also affected early such as marrow aplasia

___ appears several days after injury, _____ occurs after the end of the first week, and ___ will occurs 2-3 weeks after injury

Fibrosis occurs ___ in the injury process (weeks or months)

^** The ___ often undergo interstitial fibrosis months to years after radiation, the GI tract walls also undergo fibrosis, and atrophy and fibrosis of the gonads occur for lower body cancer treatments

*** So to recap, ionizing radiation can cause sclerosis (stiffening of a structure) and vascular damage causing ischemic necrosis of the parenchymal cells causing their replacement by fibrous tissue (aka fibrosis)

Last but not least, remember once again treating a tumor with radiation (like a Hodgkin lymphoma) can have an increased risk of developing other neoplasms in any organ after exposure such as acute myeloid leukemia, myelodysplastic syndrome, or solid tumors and this risk of secondary cancer following irradiation is greatest in children

A

Neutropenia, thrombocytopenia, anemia

Late

Lung

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13
Q

In malnourished children, PEM (protein-energy malnutrition) presents as either Marasmus or Kwashiorkor syndrome

There are two types of compartments in the body, the ___ compartment is represented by proteins in skeletal muscles and the ___ compartment is represented by proteins in visceral organs (mainly the liver)

Marasmus syndrome has a depletion in the ___ protein compartment leading to loss of muscle mass (emaciated extremities aka weak), loss of body fat, and growth retardation (therefore the child’s weight is 60% or less of a normal child)

Kwashiorkor syndrome has severe depletion of the ___ protein compartment and the resultant hypoalbuminemia gives rise to ___ (loss of weight is masked by increased fluid retention)…. Hepatomegaly occurs here

^**Realize this in this syndrome, protein deprivation is much more severe than the deprivation of calories (such as in children only fed a carb diet)

Along with edema, skin lesions, and fatty liver (hepatomegaly) are seen in Kwashiorkors syndrome

A

Somatic, visceral

Somatic

Visceral, edema

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14
Q

In patients with decreased GnRH, leading to decreased LH and FSH and therefore Amenorrhea this is a diagnostic feature for ____

A

Anorexia nervosa

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15
Q

ADEK vitamins are ___-soluble and all other are ____-soluble

1) Vitamin A can also be called ____ or ____

Vitamin As major function is the maintenance of normal vision, regulation of cell growth and differentiation (aka maintaining specialized epithelia), regulation of lipid metabolism, and maintenance of resistance to infection

A vitamin A deficiency leads first to impaired vision, specifically ___

Presistent deficiency gives rise to epithelial ____ and ____zation

Xerophthalmia (aka ____) is the most devastating changes and occurs from the mucous secreting epithelium and lacrimal epithelium is replaced by keratinized epithelium

Then, a buildup of keratin causes small opaque plaques called ___ which can progress to the erosion of the roughened corneal surface called ___

^** Corneal ulcers are also present

In addition to the eye changes, the upper respiratory and ___ tract undergo squamous epithelium metaplasia and the pelvic (kidney) keritinization can build up leading to kidney stones

Finally, immune deficiency occurs and measles can often occur leading to death

A

Fat, water

Retinol or B-carotene

Night blindness

Metaplasia and keratinization

Dry eye

Bitot spots, keratomalacia

Urinary (kidney)

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16
Q

Vitamin D (could also be called ____ aka D3 or the precursor form 7-dehydrocholesterol)

The major function of vitamin D is the maintenance and facilitation of adequate plasma levels of ___ and ____ to support metabolic functions, bone mineralization, and neuromuscular transmission

In children, a vitamin D deficiency leads to ____ and in adults it leads to ____ and hypocalcemic tetany

When Vitamin D deficiency occurs, ___ levels are elevated and this leads to increased excretion of ____ aka (hypophosphatemia) but normal calcium levels since calcium is resorbed from the bone….

^** This is why skeletal deformities occur, since to little phosphorus is in the body and therefore mineralization is impaired

Vitamin D deficiencies can occur from various causes, but an important one is limited exposure to ____

In children with Rickets, soft occipital bones called ____ develop, and an excess of osteoid produces frontal bossing and a squared appearance to the head

****In the chest, overgrowth of cartilage or osteoid tissue at the costochondral junction causes ____* and a ___ deformity of the chest

When an ambulating child develops rickets, they develop lumbar lordosis and ___ of the legs

In osteomalacia, the newly formed osteoid matrix is inadequately mineralized and this produces the excess of persistent osteoid that is characteristic of osteomalacia

^** The bones are weak and vulnerable to gross fractures or microfractures

A

Cholecalciferol

Calcium and Phosphorus Rickets, Ostemalacia

PTH, Phosphorus

Sunlight

Craniotabes

Rachitic rosary, pigeon breast

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17
Q

Vitamin C is a ___ soluble vitamin

The most important function is for the activation of prolyl and lysyl hydroxylases allowing for hydroxylation of ____

Deficiency leads to the development of ____ and is characterized by ___ disease in growing children (aka inadequate synthesis of osteoids), and in both children and adults ____ due to poor vessel support that leads to bleeding tendency in gums, skin, periosteum, or joints, and impaired ___

^** Realize all of these are due to impaired collagen formation

***Vitamin C can also be called ____

A

Water

Pro-collagen

Scurvy, Bone, hemorrhage, wound healing

Ascorbic acid

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18
Q

____ deficiency can lead to chronic blood loss and hypochromic microcytic anemia

A

Iron

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19
Q

**** KNOW ALL THIS*******

A BMI under _____ is considered underweight, normal is 18.5-25, and obesity is a BMI greater than ____

Obesity is associated with insulin resistance and hyperinsulinemia, which are important features in ____ and with an increased insulin concentration, retention of sodium, expansion of blood volume, production of excess NE, and smooth muscle proliferation might all occur which are hallmarks of ____

Obesity also causes hypertriglyceridemia and low HDL, associated with an increased risk for ____ disease

Often in diabetic patients, obesity is assocaited with nonalcoholic ____ disease and this can progress to fibrosis and cirrhosis

An increased total body cholesterol, increased cholesterol turnover, and augmented biliary excretion of cholesterol all lead to an increased risk of ____

Obesity is also associated with a constellation of respiratory abnormalities such as _____ syndrome also called Pickwickian syndrome… or Obesity can be associated with ____ aka sleep apnea or excessive daytime sleepiness/prolonged nighttime sleeping

^** Hypersomnolence is associated with polycythemia (increased hemoglobin in the blood) and eventually right sided heart failure called cor pulmonale

Finally, increased fat (adiposity) can lead to the predisposition of ____

A

18.5, 30

Type 2 diabetes, hypertension

Coronary artery

Fatty liver

Cholelithiasis (gallastones)

Hypoventilation, hypersomnolence

Osteoarthritis

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20
Q

Along with all the consequences listed in the previous notecard associated with obesity, cancer can also occur from obesity

Like we already said, insulin resistance leads to ____ and this inactivated ____ and with no IGF binding proteins, IGF is free and the free IGF-1 binds to its receptor and activates the RAS and PI3K/AKT pathways leading to cell proliferation and decreased apoptosis

Also, obesity leading to insulin resistance leading to hyperinsulinemia can have effects on ____ that regulate cell growth in the uterine, breast, and some other tissues via

1) Increased peripheral ___ activity
2) The increased aromatase causes increased ___ availability (made from androgen precursors)
3) Increased androgen synthesis in the ___ and adrenals
4) Inhibition of ____ in the liver to cause further increases in estrogen

*** ____ is secreted by adipose tissue and is inversely correlated with obesity so in obese patients this is decreased, and its decreased concentration causes hyperinsulinemia

Finally, the ____ state can also be carcinogenic itself and is tested for via acute phase reactants like fibrinogen

A

Hyperinsulinemia, IGF binding proteins (IGFBP1 and IGFBP2)

Sex hormones

1) Aromatase
2) Estrogen
3) Ovaries
4) SHBG (Sex-hormone binding protein)

Adiponectin

Proinflamamtory

21
Q

***Diet

A mutation in codon 249 of the TP53 gene, found in hepatocellular carcinomas is diagnostic for ___

^** Note this is an exogenous substance and often found in Asia and Africa, generally in cooperation with HEP B virus

Gastric cancers are related to ___ and ____, both endogenous substances that can come from sodium nitrite added to foods as a preservative, or commonly found in vegetables degraded by bacterial flora in the gut

A high fat intake and a low fiber intake will cause ___ cancer

Finally, Vitamins ___, ____, and ____ along with ____ have been shown to have antioxidant properties

A

Aflatoxin

Nitrosamine and nitrosamides

Colon

A,C and E (Aka ACE), selenium

22
Q

The ___ period is the first 4 weeks of life, ____ is the first year of life after the first 4 weeks, then age 1-4 and 5-14

In children under the age of 1, congenital anomalies (anatomic defects that are present at birth), disorders related to short gestation/low birth weight aka prematurity, and SIDS (sudden infant death syndrome) are the main causes of death

**^^ Even though congenital means “born with” it does not necessarily mean it is due to a genetic defect

However from years 1-4 and 5-9 the main causes of death are accidents (unintentional injuries) and ____

Also at the age of 5-9, ____ are common life influenza or pneumonia and can cause death

Finally, 10-14 is mainly suicide that causes the most deaths

A

Neonatal, Infancy

Malignant neoplasms

Infections

23
Q

There are 4 important congenital anomalies to know

Also know the term morphogenesis = organ and tissue development

1) ___ are due to primary errors in morphogenesis in which there is an INTRINSICALLY abnormal developmental process and due often to multifactorial defects although single gene or chromosomal defects can also cause it
2) ___ results from secondary destruction in an organ or body region that was previously normal in development and therefore arise from an EXTRINSIC disturbance in morphogenesis
3) ___s are due also to and EXTRiNSIC disturbance of development due to localized or generalized compression of the growing fetus by abnormal biochemical forces leading to structural abnormalities
4) A ___ is a cascade of anomalies triggered by a single initiating abberation

Name the type of congenital anomaly cause

**A) Uterine constraint (can be either from maternal factors like a first pregnancy, small uterus, leiomyomas OR placental factors like oligohydraminos, multiple fetuses etc)
**B) Congenital heart defect
**C) Amniotic band
D) Oligohydraminos/ Potters
**E) Anencephaly (no brain)
F) Cleft lip/ cleft palate
G) Club feet
H) Polydactyly/syndactyly
I) Trisomy 13

A

1) Malformations
2) Disruption
3) Deformation
4) Sequence

A) Deformation 
B) Malformation
C) Disruption
D) Sequence 
E) Malformation
F) Malformation
G) Deformation 
H) Malformation
I) Malformation
24
Q

Like we just said, a sequence has a single initiating aberration and in the case of the Potter’s sequence, ____ agenesis (aka no kidney formation) or ___ leakage would be considered that initiating aberration (other causes can also be considered)

The initiating aberration leads to decreased amniotic fluid (called ____) and this can cause amnion nodosum (nodules in the amnion) and fetal ___ which leads to other causes like altered facies, positioning defects of the hands and feet, breech presentation, and pulmonary hypoplasia

A

Renal, Amniotic

Oligohydraminos, compression

25
During development, the embryo is MOST susceptible to teratogenesis during the ___ and ___ weeks of development (during the embryonic period ^** The early embryonic period (Weeks 1-3) there is no susceptibility to teratogens and the fetal period (9 weeks after development and up until birth) there is also low susceptibility to teratogens and instead the fetus can have growth retardations or injury to an already formed organ
4th and 5th
26
Prematurity is defined as a gestational age less than ___ weeks and is the second most common cause of neonatal death (behind congenital anomalies) Risk factors for premature births include PPROM (preterm premature rupture of the placental membranes), intrauterine infections (see when there is inflammation of the placental membrane aka chorioamnionitis or inflammation of the fetal umbilical cord aka funisitis), structural abnormalities in the uterus, placenta, or cervix, and finally multiple gestations
37
27
SGA (small for gestational age) are babies that are born at term, but underweight aka they are not considered premature babies and these children suffer from ____ and this can be due to 1) Fetal abnormalities due to chromosomal disorders, congenital anomalies, or congenital infections (TORCH) ^ fetal abnormalities have ___ growth restrictions aka proportionate FGRs 2) Placental abnormalities ____ growth restrictions aka asymetric FGRs ^ placental abnormalities have ____ 3) Maternal abnormalities such as preeclampsia and choronic hypertension, thrombophilias like ____, or smoking
FGR (fetal growth restriction) 1) Symmetrical 2) Asymetrical 3) AAS (Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome)
28
Premature male babies that have undergone C sections (along with a strong correlation for maternal diabetes) are prone to develop ____ syndrome aka ____ disease Clinical features include ____ opacities on X ray, ___ in color, and ____ heard in the lungs RDS is due to immature lung development from a deficiency of pulmonary ____ ^** Surfactant decreases the surface tension and allows alveoli to stay open with less pressure (aka less pressure is needed to keep the lungs patent and aerated) Surfactant is produced by ____ cells and these cells only increase their function after 35 weeks of gestation, and once these cells produce adequate amounts of surfactant, when the baby is born and takes its first breath (which requires HIGH pressure), the lungs are able to retain 40% of the residual air volume allowing the next few breaths to require less pressure So if a baby is born preterm, there might not be enough surfactant, causing the babies first breath to not maintain much air, and the alveoli begin to collapse and each breath becomes harder and harder for the baby to take The collapsed lung also called ___ leads to hypoxemia and CO2 retention, eventually leading to a protein rich and fibrin rich exudation into the alveolar spaces leading to the formation of ____ membranes (which like we just said, contains fibrin and necrotic type 2 pneumocytes) Surfactant synthesis is modulated by a variety of hormones and growth factors and the role of glucocorticoids is particularly important Also realize labor increases surfactant synthesis which is why C sections are associated with decreased surfactant
RDS (respiratory distress syndrome) aka Hyaline membrane disease Ground gladd, cyanotic, rales Surfactant Type 2 alveolar cells (aka type 2 pneumocytes) Atelectasis, hyaline membranes
29
In babies that survive RDS birth, after 3-4 days on supplemental O2, recovery begins however 2 complications arise commonly including 1) ___ is due to the fact that VEGF is first low, and then rebounds after returning to relatively hypoxic room air ventilation causing retinal vessel proliferation 2) _____ shows levels of increased proinflammatory cytokines and has a striking decrease in the alveolar septation ******
1) ROP (Retrolental fibroplasia) | 2) BD (Bronchopulmonary dysplasia)
30
Gas within the abdominal wall aka ****pneumatosis intestinalis**** is diagnostic for ___ which is a disease that mainly affects the babies intestines allowing bacteria to invade, inflammation to occur, and eventual destruction of the bowel
Necrotizing Enterocolitis
31
The accumulating of edema fluid in the fetus during intrauterine growth is called ___ and can be either immune or non immune 1) Immune hydrops is a hemolytic disease caused by blood group antigen incompatibility between the mother and fetus ^** The mother must be RH ___ and the child RH ___ and the initial exposure to the RH antigen causes ____ Abs to be formed but these can't cross the placenta... However on a second child birth, the Abs produced against the RH + second baby causes ____ Abs to be produced which can cross the placenta and these bind to the babies RH+ erythrocytes causing destruction leading to ___ (a direct result of RBC loss) which can cause hypoxia leading to liver (decreased protein synthesis causing decreased oncotic pressure) and heart (Cardiac decompression leading to increased hydrostatic pressure) injury resulting in edema/anasarca and therefore hyrops fetalis OR hemoglobin degradation causes unconjugated bilirubin that can pass through the BBB into the CNS and cause ____ and jaundice ^*********** Kernicterus presents in the brain as an enlarged and edematous brain and when sectioned it has a bright ___ coloring to it******** To prevent immune hydrops, ____ is administered aka the Rhesus immune globulin aka Rhogam, which contains anti-D Abs and since the D antigen is the major cause of RH incompatibility, it decreases the incidence 2) Non-immune hydrops can be caused by CV defect (structural and functional anomalies like malformations or tachyarrhythmias), chromosomal anomalies (45X aka Turners syndrome which can cause cystic hygromas or Trisomy 21 or 18), and fetal anemia (Alpha thalassemia, transplacental Parvo B19, or twin-twin transfusion aka NOT Rh or ABO) ^** The most common cause of non-immune hydrops due to deletion of all 4 alpha-globin genes is called ____
Fetal hydrops 1) Negative, positive, IgM, IgG, anemia, kernicterus Yellow RhIG 2) Alpha thalassemia
32
Like we just said, the intrauterine accumulation in fetal hydrops can vary based on different factors such as the most severe and generalized form (2 or more compartments) called ____ found in immune hydrops or a more localized fluid accumulation called ____ found in non-immune hydrops (seen mainly in the soft tissues of the neck and often from 45X syndrome) In hydrops associated with fetal anemia (which remember, is a non-immune hydrops form), the fetus and placenta are pale, liver and spleen enlarged, ^** Also, the bone marrow demonstrates compensatory ___ of erythroid precursors, ****** and _____**** is seen in the liver, spleen, lymph nodes, and some other organs (which is a response to erythropoiesis failure in bone marrow and therefore the hematopoiesis occurs in other places outside the bone cavity) The increased hematopoietic activity causes increased immature RBCs (reticulocytes, normoblasts, and erythroblasts aka immature RBCs) and this is called ____
Hydrops fetalis, cystic hygroma Hyperplasia, Extramedullary hematopoiesis Erythroblastosis fetalis
33
PKU (Phenylketonuria) is an ____ inherited disorder caused by a severe deficiency of the ___ enzyme which is suppose to convert phenylalanine into ____, and this enzyme defect leads to hyperphenylalaninemia *******************The DIAGNOSTIC feature is a ____ or ____ odor ******************** The excess phenylalanine or its metabolites contributes to brain damage, and some children can show lab tests with elevated phenylalanine levels but not have neurological damage and therefore are said to have benign hyperphenylalaninemia **Can be treated with dietary restrictions of phenylalanine
Autosomal recessive, PAH (Phenylalanine hydroxylase) Tyrosine Musty or mousy
34
Galactosemia is an ____ inherited disorder of galactose metabolism that is due to a defective ____ enzyme, which is suppose to convert Galactose-1P + UDP -> UDP-galactose + Glucose-1P ^** Realize galactose and glucose However, when the enzyme is defective, it causes ____ to accumulate and an alternative metabolic pathway becomes activated leading to the production of ____ and _____ which are toxic The most damaged organs are the 1) Liver which shows hepatomegly due to fatty change and fibrosis (looks similar to cirrhosis of alcohol abuse) 2) Opacification of the lens (cataracts) due to the accumulation of ____ causing water absorption 3) Brain damage including loss of nerve cells, gliosis, and edema Clinical manifestations include failure to thrive, vommiting and diarrhea, hepatomegaly and jaundice, eye cataracts, mental retardation 6-12 months, and aminoaciduria in the kidney ^** So if just clinical presentation is given, I would pay attention to the hepatomegaly and cataracts and maybe 6-12 month mental retardation
Autosomal recessive, GALT (Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase Galactose-1-phosphate, galactitol and galactonate 2) Galactitol
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The most common lethal genetic disease that affects caucasian populations is ____ and it is an inherited disorder of ion transport that affects fluid secretion in exocrine glands along with the epithelial lining of the respiratory, gastrointestinal, and reproductive tracts The primary defect in CF is due to a 3 base pair deletion on the ___ gene at chromosome 7 (7q31.2) that results in the synthesis of a protein that lacks the amino acid 508 (phenylalanine) and this abnormal protein causes abnormal function of an epithelial chloride channel CFTR is activated via an agonist (like ACh) binding to the epithelial cells -> Increased cAMP -> Increased Pka -> R domain phosphorylated with the help of ATP (along with NBD domains binding ATP and undergoing hydrolysis) -> Opening of Cl- channel (which is between the two transmembrane domains of the CFTR)
Cystic fibrosis CFTR
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Along with CFTR being characterized as a chloride conductance channel, it also regulates other ion channels and cellular processes like ____ which sits on the surface of exocrine epithelial cells and responsible for the ___ uptake from the luminal fluid to make the luminal fluid hypotonic (less ions) Normally, in respiratory and intestinal epithelium the CFTR ____ the ENaC mechanism ^** So when CFTR is defective, no inhibition of ENaC occurs leading to an increased Na+ uptake across the apical domain... Since CFTR is also responsible for active luminal excreting of Cl-, the defective CFTR also causes an increased retention of Cl- in the cells so now you have more Cl- in the cells, and more Na+ in the cells, and the increased NaCl causes increased passive ___ resorption from the lumen which ends up lowering the water content of the surface fluid layer coating the mucosal cells (dehydrated mucous occurs) ^** Realize the fluid is still ISOTONIC, since the H20 intake balances out the ion intake and therefore CF in the respiratory and intestinal systems stem from low-volume surface fluid layers ******** ***** In the lungs of CF patients, the dehydration of the mucous leads to defective mucociliary actions and the accumulation of hyperconcentrated, viscid secretions that obstruct the air passages can predispose patients to recurrent pulmonary infections HOWEVER, one exception to this is the lumen of sweat ducts, where CFTR ____ the ENaC channel so a defective CFTR causes Na+ to NOT be taken up into the cells and therefore no Cl- is being taken up and no Na+ is being taken up so you get excess hypertonic luminal fluid containing sodium chloride and this is why the sweat is salty (and HYPERTONIC) Along with these problems, CFTR regulates bicarb ions so when mutated, decreased luminal pH occurs (acidic) and can lead to increased mucin precipitation and plugging of ducts and increased binding of bacteria to plugged mucins
ENaC, Na+ Inhibits, water Activates
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Two types of important classes for CFTRs including Class 1 which is a defect in CFTR ____ (complete lack of the protein at the apical surface of epithelial cells) or Class 2 which is a defect in ____ The most common is the ____ mutation For the class 2 mutation, there CFTR gene's defective protein folding causes it to not be processed from the ER to the Golgi and becomes degraded before it reaches the cell surface (so like Class 1, it is also associated with complete lack of CFTR at the cell surface) and this is often due to that 3 base pair deletion of 508
Synthesis, protein folding (processing and trafficking) Class 2
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So if you see bronchiectasis (damaged airways leading to mucous not cleared), ******____ insufficiency*****, male infertility, and hepatic cirrhosis think CF Pancreatic involvement impairs intestinal absorption and the malabsorption stunts development and post-natal growth ^** The pancreas has its ducts completely plugged, causing atrophy of the ___ glands and progressive fibrosis and with no exocrine activity, fat and protein (hypoproteinemia) absorption is impaired and also with no fat absorption, ADEK vitamins don't get absorbed and the associated avitaminosis (deficiency) ___ can contribute to squamous metaplasia of the epithelium that lines the ducts In children, mucus plugs in the small intestine can be seen leading to small-bowel obstruction called ___ The mucous secretion defects (due to the dehydrated mucus layer coating the epithelial cells) leads to defective ___ action and since the mucus now can't move out of the airways via cilia, it gets accumulated, hyper-concentrated, and causes plugging of airways (bronchi and bronchioles obstructed) and thus predisposes patients to recurrent pulmonary ____ such as the bacteria ***____***, staphylococcus auresu, Haemophilus influenzae, or ***Burkholderia cepacia**** The sweat glands have NO morphological changes The liver is also involved and the bile canaliculi are plugged with mucus, steatosis (fatty change) is often seen, and ____ develops (due to the biliary obstruction and fibrosis) in some patients that results in diffuse hepatic nodularity Similar to the pancreas that shows progressive dilation of the ducts, squamous metaplasia of the epithelial lining, and glandular atrophy followed by fibrosis, the salivary glands show the same problems Finally, remember azoospermia is often in males and congenital bilateral absence of the ___ is often seen **Finally, realize that liver disease occurs around puberty (late in the natural history) and diagnosis is based on characteristic clinical findings, sweat chloride tests, and CFTR sequencing
Pancreatic Exocrine, avitaminosis A Muconium Ileus Mucociliary, infections , Pseudomonas aeruginosa (P. AERUGINOSA) Focal biliary cirrhosis Vas deferens
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SIDS (Sudden Infant Death Syndrome) is when a child under the age of ___ dies, and the death remains UNEXPLAINED even after a thorough case investigation including to performance of a complete ___, examination of the death scene, and review of clinical history ******Morphologically, multiple ___ are the most common findings in the lungs, thymus, and heart******
1, autopsy Petechiae
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If a child undergoes autopsy, and an unexpected infection, congenital anomaly, or a genetic disorder is determined than instead of being labeled SIDS, it is labeled ____ So realize the SIDS is a subcategory of SUIDs, but the term SIDS simply is a diagnosis of exclusion
SUID (Sudden unexpected Infant Death)
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SIDS is a multifactorial condition that comes from a triple-risk model 1) A vulnerable infant (can related to either the parents or infant) ^** Maternal risk factors can include smoking during pregnancy, drug abuse, no prenatal care, young maternal age Infant risk factors can include being male, born with a low birthweight or preterm, SIDS in a prior sibling 2) A critical development period in homeostatic control (the first 6 months of life) 3) An exogenous stressor (environment) ^** Stressors include prone or side sleeping, sleeping with parents for the first 3 months, sleeping on soft surfaces, or thermal stress SIDS reflects a delayed development of ____ such as defects in the serotonin-dependent signaling in the brain stem AND ____ control defects such as the ____ chemoreceptors being activated which inhibit the cardiorespiratory reflex due to a infection
Arousal, cardiorespiratory, laryngeal
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There are two kinds of tumor-like lesions found in kids ____ is when normal cells or tissues are present in abnormal locations ____s are excessive focal overgrowth of tissues native to the organ Most tumors in children are ____ in origin and benign as compared to adults which mainly have epithelial origin (carcinomas) and can be either benign or malignant
Heterotopia (aka choristoma) Hamartomas Mesenchymal
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Common benign tumors found in infants include 1) Hemangiomas, which usually spontaneously regress and are located in the skin, mainly face and scalp, where they produce flat to elevated red-blue masses referred to as ____ 2) Lymphatic tumors that include lymphangiomas and lymphangiectasia 3) Fibrous tumors such as fibromatosis or infantile fibrosarcomas (which has a diagnostic feature of ETV6-NTKR3 fusion gene) 4) Teratomas with the most common being sacrococcygeal teratoma
1) Port wine stains
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Common malignant tumors found in infants include Leukemia, Retinoblastom, Neuroblastoma, Wilms tumor, Hepatoblastoma, Teratomas, and CNS tumors For the two we talk about here (Wilms and Neuroblastoma) ____s are seen in patients 0-4 and 5-9 years old whereas ___s are seen ONLY in patients 0-4 Neuroblastomas are the most common extracranial solid tumors in children and the most diagnoses tumor of infancy It in includes tumors of the (45%) ___ and the remainder occur along the ___ and both are derived from primordial ____ cells populating these sites ^** Most occur sporadically, but 1-2% are due to the familial inheritance of a defective ___ gene (note that gain-of-function ALK gene mutations can also be defective in the sporadic cases) Neuroblastomas can range in size from minute nodules called ___ to larger masses over 1kg.... Most of the time, the in situ lesions are the most common (40x more likely) and they are often silent and spontaneously regress leaving only a focus of fibrosis or calcification in the adult called a ___ (such as a nephrogenic rest found in kidney's adrenal glands) Histologically, one can see faintly eosinophilic fibrillary material called ___, along with ____ 90% of neuroblastomas produce ____ and therefore elevated blood levels of catecholamines and urine levels of metabolites like VMA (Vanillylmandelic acid) and HVA (Homovanillic acid) persist and these membrane-bound cytoplasmic catecholamine containing secretory granules have central dense cores surrounded by a halo called ___ granules
Neuroblastoma, Wilms tumor Adrenal medulla, sympathetic ganglia (aka chain aka paravertebral region of the abdomen or posterior mediastinum), Neural crest ALK In situ lesions, rests Neuropil, Homer Wright Pseduorosettes Catecholamines, dense core granules
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So remember, mature things are benign and immature things are cancerous, so spontaneous or therapy induced neuroblastomas can mature into ____ which are benign and characterized by Schwann cells present in the background of stroma, larger cells with vesicular nuclei, and abundant cytoplasm ^** Ganglioneuroblastomas are the intermediate form
Ganglioneuromas
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A patients age, the stage, and ____ amplification of the tumor are the most important for determining the outcome *** Children are classified as either, "low", "intermediate" or "high" risk Stages ___ and ___ are unfavorable (High risk) ^** Stage 3 is classified as an unresectable unilateral tumor infiltrating across the midline with our without regional lymph node involvement and Stage 4 is dissemination of the tumor to distant lymph nodes, bone, bone marrow, liver, skin, or other organs Stage 1, 2A, and 2B are favorable localized tumors with complete gross excision and 4S is also one of favorable conditions (Low or Intermediate risk for all of these stages) ^** Realize Stage 4S is a favorable condition and classified as a localized primary tumor that has LIMITED dissemination to the same spots as a Stage 4 tumor but also the child must be younger than 1 year old Children ___ than 18 months old have favorable conditions (low) independent of stage and those ___ than 18 months are unfavorable independent of stage (At LEAST Intermediate, along with High risk) Remember like we said, Schwannian stroma and gangliocytic differentiation means that the tumors are more MATURE, and remember, mature tumors are benign and therefore if Schannian stroma and gangliocytic differentiation is present, the condition is ___ and if it is absent, it is ___ If MYCN is amplified, the condition is ___ and if it is not amplified the condition is ___***** This is the MOST important aspect of prognosis * ***********So if you had a Stage 1, 9 month of child with MYCN amplification, then it would be classified as an ___ condition * ******* ^*** This is because MYCN is THE MOST IMPORTANT thing for prognosis and MYCN amplification AUTOMATICALLY classifies it as High risk
MYCN 3 and 4 Younger, Older Present, Absent Unfavorable, favorable Unfoavorable
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Clinical presentations include patients under the age of 2 presenting with a large ___ mass, fever, and weight loss and in some infants multiple cutaneous metastasis can cause deep blue discoloration of the skin called ____ In patients over the age of 3, metastasis in the blood and lymphs often occur in the liver, lungs, bone, and bone marrow to the periorbital region causing proptosis and ecchymosis
Abdominal Blueberry muffin baby
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The most common primary renal tumor of childhood is a ____ tumor The tumor can involve either a single kidney or both kidney (bilateral Wilms tumor) and if both kidneys are involved the patient normally has a ___ mutation in one of their genes The risk of Wilms tumor is increased with 3 congenital malformations associated with distinct chromosomal loci including 1) WAGR/WAGI syndrome (33% risk) ^** WAGR stands for its characteristics including W = ___, A = ___, G = ___, and R = ____ This syndrome has a germ-line ___ on chromosome ___p___ at the ___ gene (which causes the increased risk for Wilms tumor) and ___ gene (which causes the Aniridia) ^** Note that a deleted PAX6 and normal WT1 does not increase Wilms tumor risk For Wilms tumor to occur (33% risk), the first hit is from the WT1 deletion, and the second hit is from a nonsense or frameshift mutation in the second WT1 allele 2) Denys-Drash syndrome (90% risk) ^** This syndrome is characterized by ___ dysgenesis (male pseudohermaphrodism) and early onset of ___ leading to renal failure (diffuse mesangial sclerosis) Like WAGR syndrome, there is a germline mutation in the WT1 gene that gives the first hit, however it is not a deletion like in WAGRs syndrome, instead it is due to a ____ mutation in the zinc finger of the protein that affects its DNA binding properties The single loss of a WT1 allele won't cause the tumor however, it'll only cause GI-urinary problems, but a bi-allelic loss of the WT1 gene causes tumorigenesis and also patients with this disease are at an increased risk for ___blastomas 3) Beckwith-Wiedeman syndrome (5%) ^** Characteristics include ***organomegaly***, mecroglossia, omphalocele, ***hemihypertrophy***, and adrenal cytomegaly This disease occurs due to genomic ____ at the 11p15.5 (WT__) chromosome and ____ is in close proximity to this region ^** Normally, IGF2 has ___ imprinting (aka only expressed on the paternal allele) so if there is LOSS of imprinting of the maternal allele, or uniparental disomy of the paternal allele, then IGF2 becomes ___EXPRESSED, leading to excess activity as an embryonal growth factor causing BWS and tumor predisposition to Wilms tumor Along with IGF2 overexpression, CDKN1C mutations or B-Catenin gain of function mutations (causing increased WNT signaling) can be associated with BWS and Wilms tumor ******* Finally, realize that unlike WAGR or Denys-Drash syndromes, the genetic basis for BWS is more heterogeneous and that NO SINGLE GENE is involved in all cases
Wilms Germline 1) Wilms tumor, Aniridia (absence of the Iris), Genital anomalies, mental Retardation Deletion, 11p13, WT1, PAX6 2) Gonadal, nephropathy Dominant-negative missense mutation Gonadoblastomas 3) Imprinting, WT2, IGF2 Maternal, over-expressed
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Grossly, Wilms tumor presents as large, solitary, a well-circumscribed mass and on cut section it is soft, homogenous, tan to grey with occasional foci of hemorrhage, cyst formation, and necrosis ****Microscopically, there is a triphasic combination which includes ___ (small blue cells), ___ (fibrocytic or myoxid in nature), and ____ (from abortive tubules or glomeruli) cell types observed****** 5% of the time the tumors are ___ characterized by large, hyperchromatic, pleomorphic nuclei and abnormal mitoses and therefore, these cells don't respond to chemotherapy since they have a ___ mutation
Blastemal, stromal, and epithelial cells Anaplasitc, TP53