CH.1-7 Flashcards
(100 cards)
1
Q
What are the 4 classes of organic molecules?
A
Carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, nucleic acids
2
Q
What are the 4 protein structures?
A
Primary, secondary, tertiary, quaternary
3
Q
What is denaturation in proteins?
A
Denaturation is the process where proteins lose their structure due to external stress.
4
Q
What are the functions of proteins?
A
Enzymatic activity, transport, structural support, signaling
5
Q
What is the main function of enzymes?
A
To catalyze biochemical reactions
6
Q
What are coenzymes?
A
Organic molecules that assist enzymes, such as Biotin
7
Q
What are the 2 enzyme models?
A
Lock and Key Model, Induced Fit Model
8
Q
What is competitive inhibition?
A
Inhibition where the inhibitor competes with the substrate for the active site.
9
Q
What are the 4 types of lipids?
A
Phospholipids, triglycerides, waxes, steroids
10
Q
What is the difference between LDL and HDL?
A
LDL is bad cholesterol that transports cholesterol to tissues; HDL is good cholesterol that removes cholesterol from tissues.
11
Q
What is the function of waxes?
A
To prevent water loss in plants
12
Q
What is the function of cholesterol?
A
To maintain membrane fluidity
13
Q
What are pyrimidines and purines?
A
Pyrimidines: C, U, T (3 H bonds); Purines: A, G (2 H bonds)
14
Q
What are nucleic acids?
A
Genetic material and macromolecules
15
Q
What is the difference between nucleotide and nucleoside?
A
Nucleotide: Sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base; Nucleoside: Sugar, nitrogen base
16
Q
What is the difference between endergonic and exergonic reactions?
A
Endergonic reactions require energy; exergonic reactions release energy.
17
Q
What is the RNA Hypothesis?
A
RNA is self-replicating and is the precursor of life.
18
Q
What are key characteristics of all living organisms?
A
Metabolism, reproduction, responsiveness, nutrition
19
Q
What is the cell membrane?
A
A semipermeable membrane
20
Q
What are the 2 membrane protein functions?
A
Integral: transport; Peripheral: signaling for adhesion
21
Q
What is the fluid mosaic model composed of?
A
Carbohydrates, proteins, cholesterol, phospholipids
22
Q
What does cholesterol do at high temperatures?
A
decreases fluidity and increases MP
23
Q
What are the 3 types of transport across the cell membrane?
A
Simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, active transport
24
Q
What is the difference between eukaryotes and prokaryotes?
A
Eukaryotes have membrane-bound organelles; prokaryotes do not.
25
What are the main functions of the nucleus and nucleolus?
Nucleus: site of DNA replication and transcription; Nucleolus: synthesis of RNA
26
What are the functions of the Golgi apparatus and lysosomes?
Golgi apparatus: modify, package, transport proteins; Lysosomes: breakdown and aid in apoptosis
27
What are the 3 types of protein filaments in the cytoskeleton?
Microtubules, intermediate filaments, actin filaments
28
What cell wall makes up plants, fungi, and bacteria?
Plants: cellulose; Fungi: chitin; Bacteria: peptidoglycan
29
What are the 2 main types of junctions?
Cell to matrix, cell to cell
30
What are the 3 types of solutions?
Hypertonic, isotonic, hypotonic
31
What is the evidence of endosymbiosis theory?
Origin of eukaryotic cells, sizes, sensitivity, and function of organelles support prokaryotic ancestry.
primodial prokaryotes
32
What are the 4 steps of aerobic respiration?
1. Glycolysis, 2. Pyruvate oxidation, 3. Krebs cycle, 4. Oxidative phosphorylation
33
What is the net reaction of glycolysis?
Glucose -> 2 NADH + 2 ATP + 2 pyruvate
34
Where does beta oxidation take place?
In the mitochondria during aerobic respiration
35
What are the differences between the 2 fermentation types?
Lactic acid fermentation produces lactate; alcoholic fermentation produces ethanol and CO2.
36
Define obligate aerobes, obligate anaerobes, and facultative anaerobes.
Obligate aerobes require oxygen; obligate anaerobes are poisoned by oxygen; facultative anaerobes can survive with or without oxygen.
37
What can fats, proteins, and other carbs derive from glucose?
They can all derive ATP from glucose.
38
What are autotrophs and phototrophs?
Autotrophs produce food for energy; phototrophs use light energy to produce food.
39
What is photosynthesis?
Plants convert light energy into chemical energy used to produce food.
40
What is a photon?
A piece of energy that is massless and chargeless, moving at the speed of light.
41
What is the difference between carbon fixation and photolysis?
Carbon fixation converts CO2 into sugar; photolysis splits water to release electrons, protons, and oxygen.
42
What is cellular respiration?
The breakdown of food (glucose) to create energy.
43
What are the structures of a leaf?
Epidermis, palisade mesophyll, spongy mesophyll, stomata, guard cells, chloroplasts
44
What are the 2 main reactions of photosynthesis?
Light-dependent reactions and light-independent reactions
45
Where do light-dependent reactions take place?
In the thylakoid membrane
46
What are the steps of the Calvin cycle?
1. Carbon fixation, 2. Reduction, 3. Regeneration, 4. Carbohydrate synthesis
47
What is the difference between C3, C4, and CAM plants?
C3 plants undergo photorespiration; C4 plants minimize photorespiration; CAM plants open stomata at night.
48
What is the formula for diploid and haploid cells?
Diploid: 2N (2 pairs); Haploid: N (1 pair)
49
What type are gametes and somatic cells?
Gametes are haploid; somatic cells are diploid.
50
What is meiosis?
Meiosis produces 4 haploid cells from one diploid cell.
51
What are the stages of the mitotic cell cycle?
G1 (growth), S (DNA replication), G2 (preparation for mitosis), M (mitosis)
52
What are some functional limits of cell growth?
Ratio of surface area to volume, genome size to volume
53
What is a centriole?
A structure that aids in cell division, arranged in a 9+0 array.
54
What is a hair-like structure that aids in movement?
Cilia and flagella
55
What are the 4 phases of mitosis?
Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
56
What is the difference between cytokinesis in animal and plant cells?
Animal cells form a cleavage furrow; plant cells form a cell plate.
57
What is binary fission?
A form of asexual reproduction in prokaryotes resulting in 2 new cells.
58
What are the phases of Meiosis I?
Prophase I, Metaphase I, Anaphase I, Telophase I
59
What are the phases of Meiosis II?
Prophase II, Metaphase II, Anaphase II, Telophase II
60
What happens during Metaphase?
Chromosomes line up in the center of the metaphase plate.
61
What occurs during Anaphase?
Homologous chromosomes are separated.
62
What happens during Telophase?
The nuclear envelope reappears.
63
What are the phases of Meiosis I?
1. Prophase: Forms dyads, nuclear envelope disappears. 2. Metaphase: Chromosomes line up. 3. Anaphase: Sister chromatids separate. 4. Telophase I: Chromosomes reappear after cytokinesis.
64
How many different haploid cells are produced in Meiosis?
4 different haploid cells with 23 chromosomes each.
65
What is a chromosomes?
A Chromosomes consist of two sister chromatids.
66
What are the chromosome numbers during Mitosis and Meiosis I?
Mitosis: Prophase 46, Metaphase 46, Anaphase 92, Telophase 92. Meiosis I: Prophase 46, Metaphase 46, Anaphase 46, Telophase 46.
67
What is Chargaff's Rule?
A = T and G = C
68
What are nucleosomes?
Nucleosomes consist of DNA wrapped around histones, which are proteins found in DNA packaging.
69
What are the two forms of chromatin?
Euchromatin (lightly packed DNA) and Heterochromatin (tightly packed DNA).
70
What increases the transcription rate?
Increasing euchromatin acetylation.
71
What are the main steps of DNA replication?
1. Initiation: Helicase unzips DNA. 2. Elongation: Primase makes a short strand of RNA which binds to DNA. 3. Termination: Synthesis of telomere sequences.
72
What is transcription?
The process of synthesizing RNA from DNA.
73
What are the three main steps of transcription?
1. Initiation: RNA polymerase binds to a promoter. 2. Elongation: RNA polymerase transcribes DNA into mRNA. 3. Termination: RNA polymerase stops transcription.
74
How do prokaryotes perform transcription?
Using RNA polymerase holoenzyme that binds directly to the promoter sequence.
75
What are the two types of operons?
1. Inducible operons: Always off, must be stimulated to turn on (e.g., Lac operon). 2. Repressible operons: Always on, must be repressed to turn off (e.g., Trp operon).
76
What is the SRY gene?
The SRY gene helps determine sex; if the Y chromosome is missing, it is female.
77
What are the three main steps in post-transcriptional modifications?
1. 5' end capping. 2. 3' end polyadenylation (adds a PolyA tail). 3. Splicing (removes introns using spliceosome).
78
What enzyme can convert RNA back to DNA?
Reverse Transcriptase.
79
What is translation?
The process of synthesizing proteins from mRNA.
80
What are codons made of?
3 nucleotides; there are 64 codons for 20 amino acids.
81
What codon begins translation?
AUG.
82
What codons stop translation?
UAA, UAG, UGA.
83
What are the differences between frameshift and point mutations?
Frameshift: Addition or deletion of bases. Point mutations: Substitution of a single nucleotide.
84
What are the three types of point mutations?
1. Missense: 1st or 2nd base change results in a different amino acid.
2. Silent: 3rd base change results in no change.
3. Nonsense: Change results in a stop codon.
85
What is the difference between proto-oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes?
Proto-oncogenes activate cell growth, while tumor suppressor genes inhibit cell growth.
86
What are the three laws of inheritance?
1. Law of dominance: Dominant alleles conceal recessive. 2. Law of segregation: Each gamete receives one allele. 3. Law of independent assortment: Alleles sort independently of another gene.
87
What is nondisjunction?
An abnormal separation of chromosomes during cell division, leading to aneuploidies.
88
What are common syndromes associated with aneuploidies?
1. Down syndrome: Trisomy 21. 2. Turner syndrome: Monosomy of the X chromosome. 3. Klinefelter syndrome: Trisomy of the X chromosome in males.
89
How many Barr bodies do males and females have?
Females: 1 Barr body. Males: 0 Barr bodies.
90
What are the genetic disorders with autosomal recessive inheritance?
Phenylketonuria, Cystic Fibrosis, Tay-Sachs Disease.
91
What are the genetic disorders with autosomal dominant inheritance?
Huntington's Disease.
92
What are the genetic disorders with sex-linked recessive inheritance?
Hemophilia, Colorblindness, Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy.
93
What is the phenotypic ratio for the cross AaBb x AaBb?
9:3:3:1.
94
What is the formula for finding the number of gamete combos?
2^n, where n is the number of heterozygous genes.
95
Do dominant genes skip generations?
No, at least one parent must be affected.
96
How do you determine if a trait is autosomal or sex-linked?
If both males and females have it, it is autosomal. If only males have it, it is sex-linked.
97
What is the significance of recombination frequencies?
Above 50% indicates genes are far apart; below 50% indicates genes are close together.
98
What does hemizygous mean?
A gene present in a single copy in a diploid organism, as seen in male sex chromosomes.
99
What is pleiotropy?
A gene that affects multiple phenotypes.
100
What is codominance?
When two alleles are expressed equally in the phenotype.
