CH.11 Flashcards
(119 cards)
1
Q
What node is the pacemaker of the heart?
A
SA node
2
Q
What does AV node do?
A
Delay signal to allow atria to fully contract before ventricles
3
Q
what causes the lub sound
A
closing of the AV valves
4
Q
what causes the dub sound
A
closing of semilunar valves
5
Q
what is systole
A
ventricular contraction
(pumping blood)
6
Q
What is diastole?
A
ventricular relaxation (filling with blood)
7
Q
what are the 3 main types of circulatory systems?
A
- absence (prokaryotes, fungi, invertebrates),
- open(grasshoppers) has no arteries or veins,
- closed (2 chambers fish) 3 chambers (amphibians/ reptiles) 4 chambers (crocodiles/ alligators/ birds/ humans)
8
Q
What circulatory system do jellyfish have?
A
they do not have a circulatory system
9
Q
Which chamber of the heart pumps oxygenated blood into systemic circulation? And what is systemic
A) Right atrium
B) Left atrium
C) Right ventricle
D) Left ventricle
A
D) Left ventricle, entire body
10
Q
What prevents backflow of blood from the aorta into the left ventricle?
A) Bicuspid valve
B) Pulmonary valve
C) Tricuspid valve
D) Aortic valve
A
D) Aortic valve
11
Q
Which of the following best describes the correct pathway of blood flow from the right atrium to the lungs?
A) Right atrium → Pulmonary artery → Right ventricle → Lungs
B) Right atrium → Tricuspid valve → Right ventricle → Pulmonary valve → Pulmonary artery → Lungs
C) Right atrium → Bicuspid valve → Right ventricle → Pulmonary vein → Lungs
D) Right atrium → Right ventricle → Pulmonary vein → Lungs
A
B) Right atrium → Tricuspid valve → Right ventricle → Pulmonary valve → Pulmonary artery → Lungs
12
Q
Blood entering the right atrium is:
A) Oxygenated and low in carbon dioxide
B) Deoxygenated and high in carbon dioxide
C) Oxygenated and high in carbon dioxide
D) Deoxygenated and low in carbon dioxide
A
B) Deoxygenated and high in carbon dioxide
13
Q
The vessel that carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs is the:
A) Pulmonary vein
B) Pulmonary artery
C) Aorta
D) Superior vena cava
A
B) Pulmonary artery
14
Q
Which valve must blood pass through before entering the pulmonary artery?
A) Tricuspid valve
B) Aortic valve
C) Pulmonary valve
D) Bicuspid valve
A
C) Pulmonary valve
15
Q
What is the systolic and diastolic Blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg
A
120 is systolic pressure(highest), 80 is diastolic pressure (lowest)
16
Q
Which blood component is primarily responsible for clotting?
A
platelets
17
Q
What is the difference between hypertension and hypotension?
A
Hyper: high Blood pressure, contristiction of artieries
Hypo: Low Blood pressure, widening of the artieries.
18
Q
Which of the following best describes the role of the Bundle of His in the cardiac conduction system?
A) It initiates the electrical signal that triggers atrial contraction.
B) It delays the impulse to allow the ventricles to fill with blood.
C) It conducts the electrical signal from the atrioventricular (AV) node to the Purkinje fibers.
D) It stimulates the sinoatrial (SA) node to contract.
A
C) It conducts the electrical signal from the atrioventricular (AV) node to the Purkinje fibers.
19
Q
what variable would increase cardiac output (OC)?
A
hIgher stroke volume
20
Q
What is the function of veins?
A
They take deoxygenated blood back to the heart through the venae cavae, they also contain valves to prevent backflow.
21
Q
What are the main components of blood?
A
plasma, red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets
22
Q
what do RBC do?
A
transport oxygen using hemoglobin
23
Q
what is the universal donor?
A
Type O-
24
Q
what is the universal recipient?
A
Type AB+
25
what antibodies does a person with type A blood have?
Anti -B antibodies
26
what antibodies does a person with type AB blood have?
none
27
what antibodies does a person with type O blood have?
both ANTI A & B
28
which vessels carry blood away from the heart?
Arteires
29
Which vessel exchange gases and nutrients with tissues?
capillaries
30
Which vessel carry blood back to the heart and the valves?
veins
31
what is the foramen ovale?
an opening between right and left atria that bypasses pulmonary circulation.
32
what does ductus arteriosus do?
a connection between the pulmonary artery and the aorta that bypasses the fetal lungs.
33
what vessels carries oxygenated blood from placenta to fetus?
umbilical vein
34
what organs are apart of the lymphatic system?
lymphatic vessel, lymph, lymph node, spleen, and the thymus
35
what is the function of the lymphatic system?
returns excess fluid to bloodstream, helps with immune response
36
what is. the lymphatic flow pathway
capillaries, afferent vessels, lymph nodes, efferent vessels, trunk, collecting duct, subclaivan veins
37
where does gas exchange occur in the lungs?
alveoli
38
what gases do plants in and release during photosynthesis?
take in co2 and release 02
39
Plants are what type of organism in terms of energy?
autotrophs (make their own food)
40
what gases do plants in and release during cellular respiration?
take in O2 and release CO2
41
where are the stomata located?
On the epidermis of leaves
42
how does gas exchange occur in cnidarians ? and in what environment?
jellyfish / simple diffusion , no circulatory system / moist environment
43
How do Annelids perform respiration?
earthworms / simple diffusion + mucus in a closed circulatory system
44
What role does mucus play in annelid respiration?
it aids in the movement of oxygen throughout the whole body
45
How do arthropods breathe? and what is their circulatory system?
Insects, spiders / simple diffusion using a tracheal system // open
46
what process maximizes gas exchange efficiency in fish gills?
countercurrent exchange
47
How many lobes does the right lung have compared to the left lung?
the right lung has 3 lobes, and the left lung has 2 lobes.
48
What serous membrane covers the lungs?
the pleura (parietal and visceral)
49
What is the purpose of the pleural space?
It creates intrapleural pressure, which is lower than atmospheric pressure, helping keep lungs expanded.
50
What happens to the diaphragm during inhalation?
It contracts and moves downward, increasing lung volume and decreasing intrapleural pressure.
51
What muscle helps the ribs move up and out during inhalation?
External intercostal muscles
52
During exhalation, which direction does the diaphragm move?
Upward (relaxes), decreasing lung volume and increasing pressure.
53
How is the total amount of oxygen absorbed by the lungs determined?
By the internal surface area of the lungs.
54
What happens if the internal surface area of the lungs is small?
Less oxygen is absorbed.
55
Which lung volume refers to the amount of air displaced during a normal inhalation and exhalation?
A. Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)
B. Tidal volume (TV)
C. Vital capacity (VC)
D. Residual volume (RV)
B. Tidal volume (TV)
56
Which of the following lung volumes prevents the lungs from collapsing after exhalation?
A. Tidal volume
B. Vital capacity
C. Residual volume
D. Functional residual capacity
C. Residual volume
57
What is the definition of inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)?
A. The extra air exhaled after a normal breath
B. The maximum air the lungs can hold
C. The additional air that can be inhaled after a normal inhalation
D. The total volume remaining in the lungs after maximum exhalation
C. The additional air that can be inhaled after a normal inhalation
58
Which of the following represents the sum of tidal volume, inspiratory reserve volume, and expiratory reserve volume?
A. Residual volume
B. Total lung capacity
C. Vital capacity
D. Functional residual capacity
C. Vital capacity (TV + IV + ERV)
59
What is the total amount of air the lungs can hold after maximal inhalation called?
A. Functional residual capacity
B. Residual volume
C. Vital capacity
D. Total lung capacity
D. Total lung capacity
60
Functional residual capacity (FRC) is calculated by:
A. TV + IRV
B. ERV + RV
C. RV + TV
D. IRV + ERV
B. ERV + RV
60
What is the correct sequence of structures air passes through during inhalation?
A. Trachea → Larynx → Pharynx → Nasal cavity → Alveoli
B. Nasal cavity → Pharynx → Larynx → Trachea → Bronchi → Alveoli
C. Nasal cavity → Larynx → Pharynx → Trachea → Bronchi
D. Pharynx → Nasal cavity → Bronchi → Larynx → Trachea
B. Nasal cavity → Pharynx → Larynx → Trachea → Bronchi → Bronchioles - Alveoli
61
The voice box is located in the:
A. Pharynx
B. Larynx
C. Trachea
D. Bronchi
B. Larynx
62
Which structure prevents food from entering the trachae during swallowing?
The epiglottis , not the pharynx the pharynx is the hallway it connects and the epiglottis are the doors. opens & closes
63
What is the primary function of the trachea?
A. Produces surfactant
B. Site of gas exchange
C. Filters and conducts air to bronchi
D. Prevents alveolar collapse
C. Filters and conducts air to bronchi
64
What produces surfactant in the lungs?
Type II alveolar cells, Type I cells just provide structure
64
What is the main function of surfactant?
Reduces surface tension, preventing lung collapse.
64
What is oxyhemoglobin (HbO₂)?
Hemoglobin bound to oxygen; has high oxygen affinity.
65
What is carboxyhemoglobin (HbCO)?
Hemoglobin bound to carbon monoxide, which prevents O₂ binding.
66
What is hemoglobin?
carries red blood cells. and is made up of 4 oxygens.
67
Which protein has a higher affinity for oxygen?
A. Hemoglobin
B. Myoglobin
C. Both have the same affinity
D. Affinity varies depending on temperature
B. Myoglobin
68
Which of the following best describes the structural difference between hemoglobin and myoglobin?
A. Hemoglobin is monomeric; myoglobin is tetrameric
B. Hemoglobin contains one heme group; myoglobin contains four
C. Hemoglobin is tetrameric; myoglobin is monomeric
D. Both hemoglobin and myoglobin are tetrameric proteins
C. Hemoglobin is tetrameric; myoglobin is monomeric
69
What is the main role of myoglobin in muscle cells?
A. Transport CO₂
B. Store oxygen & release when needed
C. Convert glucose to ATP
D. Trigger muscle contraction
B. Store oxygen and release when needed
69
What is a key functional difference between hemoglobin and myoglobin?
A. Hemoglobin stores oxygen; myoglobin transports it
B. Myoglobin buffers blood pH; hemoglobin stores calcium
C. Hemoglobin transports oxygen; myoglobin stores it in muscle
D. Both store CO₂ and O₂ in muscle
C. Hemoglobin transports oxygen; myoglobin stores it in muscle
70
What does a right shift in the oxygen dissociation curve mean?
Decreased oxygen affinity, more O₂ released to tissues. and a left shift is vice versa.
71
Name 3 factors that cause a right shift.
Increased CO₂,
increased H⁺ (low pH), increased temperature, increased 2,3-BPG.
72
What is respiratory alkalosis?
Caused by hyperventilation; low CO₂ and H⁺, leading to high blood pH.
72
What is respiratory acidosis?
Caused by hypoventilation; high CO₂ and H⁺, leading to low blood pH.
73
What is the Bohr effect?
A. O₂ increases hemoglobin’s affinity for CO₂
B. High CO₂/H⁺ decreases hemoglobin’s affinity for O₂
C. CO prevents CO₂ binding to hemoglobin
D. Low O₂ increases binding of bicarbonate
B. High CO₂ and H⁺ lower hemoglobin’s affinity for oxygen.
74
What is the Haldane effect?
High oxygen levels promote CO₂ unloading from hemoglobin.
75
Which condition causes a left shift in the oxygen dissociation curve?
A. Increased CO₂
B. Decreased temperature
C. Increased 2,3-BPG
D. Decreased pH
B. Decreased temperature
76
Which molecule binds to hemoglobin and prevents oxygen from binding?
A. CO₂
B. H⁺
C. HCO₃⁻
D. CO
D. CO
77
In tissues, how is most CO₂ transported?
A. As carbonic acid in the plasma
B. Bound to oxygen
C. As bicarbonate ions
D. Dissolved as gas in blood
C. As bicarbonate ions
78
Where does gas exchange primarily occur in the lungs?
A. Trachea
B. Bronchi
C. Alveoli
D. Bronchioles
C. Alveoli
79
Which of the following best explains how oxygen moves from the alveoli into the blood?
A. Active transport
B. Osmosis
C. Facilitated diffusion
D. Simple diffusion
D. Simple diffusion
80
What region of the brain controls the basic rhythm of breathing?
A. Cerebellum
B. Cerebrum
C. Medulla oblongata & pons
D. Hypothalamus
C. Medulla oblongata & PONS
81
Central chemoreceptors in the brain respond most directly to which of the following?
A. Blood pH
B. O₂ levels
C. CO₂ levels via H⁺ concentration in cerebrospinal fluid
D. Bicarbonate levels in the blood
C. CO₂ levels via H⁺ concentration in cerebrospinal fluid
82
Peripheral chemoreceptors in the carotid and aortic bodies primarily respond to:
A. Oxygen levels in cerebrospinal fluid
B. CO₂ levels in the brain
C. Blood oxygen, CO₂, and pH
D. Hemoglobin saturation
C. Blood oxygen, CO₂, and pH
83
What is the primary factor that drives the urge to breathe?
A. Low oxygen levels
B. High carbon dioxide levels
C. Decreased blood flow
D. Alveolar pressure
B. High carbon dioxide levels
AND VISE VERSA FOR SLOW SHALLOW BREATHING
84
Which of the following best describes innate immunity?
A. Slow and highly specific
B. Involves T and B lymphocytes only
C. Provides a rapid, nonspecific response
D. Requires previous exposure to pathogens
C. provides a rapid, nonspecific response
85
Which is a characteristic of adaptive immunity?
A. Immediate response
B. Slow and Specific
C. First line of defense
D. Involves neutrophils and macrophages only
B. Slow and Specific
86
Which immune cell type directly kills virus-infected cells and tumor cells as part of the innate immune system?
A. Helper T cells
B. B cells
C. Natural killer (NK) cells
D. Monocytes
C. Natural killer (NK) cells
87
Which lymphocyte type is responsible for antibody production?
A. T cells
B. B cells
C. NK cells
D. Monocytes
B. B cells
not T cells because they cell mediated immunity and are found in bone marrow.
88
what is the 5 major signs of inflammation? What cells respond to injury ?
1. Swelling 2. Loss of function 3. Increased heat 4. Pain 5. Redness
Mast cells and Basophils which release histamine as a response
89
What is the most abundant white blood cell in circulation?
A. Lymphocytes
B. Monocytes
C. Neutrophils
D. Eosinophils
C. Neutrophils
90
Which white blood cells develop into macrophages and are the largest in size?
A. Basophils
B. Eosinophils
C. Monocytes
D. T cells
C. Monocytes
91
Eosinophils are most active during which type of infection?
A. Viral
B. Bacterial
C. Parasitic
D. Fungal
C. Parasitic
92
What is the least abundant type of leukocyte, involved in histamine release and allergic responses?
A. Monocytes
B. Neutrophils
C. Basophils
D. T cells
C. Basophils
93
What mnemonic can be used to remember leukocyte abundance from most to least?
A. Little Mice Eat Never Bread
B. Never Let Monkeys Eat Bananas
C. Never Let Mice Eat Bread
D. Monkeys Never Eat Large Bread
C. Never Let Mice Eat Bread
94
Which of the following is considered part of the first line of immune defense?
A. Neutrophils
B. Skin, cilia, symbiotic bacteria, stomach acid
C. B lymphocytes
D. Complement proteins
B. Skin, cilia, symbiotic bacteria, stomach acid
95
Which antibody is found in secretions like saliva and breast milk and provides passive immunity to infants?
'IgD', 'IgA', 'IgE', 'IgG'
IgA
96
What does the MHC Class II molecule present antigens to?
['Plasma cells', 'Helper T cells', 'Cytotoxic T cells', 'Natural killer cells']
Helper T cells'
97
What is the primary function of memory B cells?
A. Phagocytose pathogens', 'Activate T cells', '
B. Produce antibodies immediately',
C.Respond quickly upon re-exposure to an antigen'
C.Respond quickly upon re-exposure to an antigen'
98
What type of immunity results from vaccination?
'Active immunity',
'Passive immunity', 'Natural immunity', 'Temporary immunity'
'Active immunity',
99
Which class of antibody is most abundant in the blood and can cross the placenta?,"['IgA', 'IgG', 'IgE', 'IgM']
IgG
100
Which MHC class is found on all nucleated cells and presents antigens to cytotoxic T cells?,
['MHC I', 'MHC II', 'MHC III', 'MHC X']"
MHC I'
101
Which type of cell is responsible for producing antibodies?,
['Helper T cells', 'Cytotoxic T cells', 'Plasma cells', 'Macrophages']
Plasma cells
102
Which of the following antibodies is the first produced in response to an infection and exists as a pentamer?,
['IgG', 'IgA', 'IgM', 'IgE']
IgM
MNEMOMIC
" Megan Also Eats Dried Granola. " in correct order
103
Which antibody is involved in allergic reactions by binding to allergens and releasing histamine?,
['IgA', 'IgG', 'IgM', 'IgE']
IgE
104
What type of immune cells respond to antigens by differentiating into cytotoxic T cells and helper T cells?,
['B cells', 'T cells', 'Macrophages', 'Neutrophils']
T cells
105
What neurotransmitter is inhibitory in the brain and calms nerve activity?
['Glycine', 'Glutamate', 'Dopamine', 'Gamma-aminobutyric acid']
Gamma-aminobutyric acid
106
Which phase of the action potential is marked by the influx of Na⁺ ions after reaching threshold?
['Repolarization', 'Hyperpolarization', 'Depolarization', 'Resting potential']
Depolarization
107
Which neurotransmitter is released at neuromuscular junctions and aids in muscle contraction?
['Serotonin', 'Acetylcholine', 'Glutamate', 'Dopamine']
Acetylcholine
108
What is the function of the medulla oblongata?
['Processes memory', 'Controls emotions', 'Regulates breathing and heart rate', 'Coordinates balance']
Regulates breathing and heart rate
109
EPSPs cause the postsynaptic membrane to:
['Hyperpolarize via K⁺', 'Depolarize via Na⁺', 'Remain unchanged', 'Close all ion channels']
Depolarize via Na⁺
110
The part of the embryonic brain that gives rise to the cerebellum and pons is the:
"['Diencephalon', 'Metencephalon', 'Myelencephalon', 'Telencephalon']
Metencephalon
111
Which type of neuron carries signals from the spinal cord to muscles?
['Afferent neuron', 'Sensory neuron', 'Interneuron', 'Efferent neuron']
Efferent neuron
112
Which of the following is a function of the hypothalamus?
['Processes smell', 'Regulates homeostasis', 'Coordinates balance', 'Relays sensory signals']
Regulates homeostasis
113
Which lobe of the brain is responsible for processing sensory information and spatial orientation?,
"['Occipital', 'Temporal', 'Parietal', 'Frontal']
Parietal
114
Which glial cell in the CNS is responsible for forming the myelin sheath?,"['Astrocytes', 'Schwann cells', 'Oligodendrocytes', 'Ependymal cells']
Oligodendrocytes
