Ch.11 Special senses - eyes and ears Flashcards

Question

adnexa

Answer 1

the appendage or accessory structures of an organ. In the eye, these are the structures outside the eyeball, including the orbit, eye muscles, eyelids, eyelashes, conjunctiva, and lacrimal apparatus

Answer 2

dimness of vision or the partial loss of sight, especially in one eye, without detectable disease of the eye

Answer 3

any error of refraction in which images do not focus properly on the retina

Answer 4

a condition in which the pupils are unequal in size

Answer 5

a condition in which the eye does not focus properly because of uneven curvatures of the cornea

Answer 6

the use of an audiometer to measure hearing acuity

Answer 7

the loss of transparency of the lends of the eye that causes a progressive loss of visual clarity

Answer 8

a nodule or cyst, usually on the upper eyelid, caused by obstruction in a sebaceous gland

Answer 9

an electronic device that bypasses the damaged portions of the ear and directly stimulates the auditory nerve

Answer 10

inflammation of the conjunctiva, usually caused by an infection or allergy; also known as pinkeye

Answer 11

an inflammation of the lacrimal gland that can be bacterial, viral, or fungal infection

Answer 12

the perception of two images of a single object; also known as double vision

Answer 13

the eversion (turning outward) of the edge of an eyelid

Answer 14

the normal relationship between refractive power of the eye and the shape of the eye that enables light rays to focus correctly on the retina

Answer 15

the inversion (turning inward) of the edge of an eyelid

Answer 16

strabismus characterized by an inward deviation of one eye or both eyes; also known as cross-eyes

Answer 17

strabismus characterized by the outward deviation of one eye relative to the other; also known as walleye

Answer 18

a photographic study of the blood vessels in the back of the eye following the intravenous injection of a fluorescein dye that acts as a contrast medium

Answer 19

a group of eye diseases characterized by increased intraocular pressure (IOP) that causes damage to the optic nerve and retinal nerve fibers

Answer 20

blindness in one-half of the visual field

Answer 21

a pus-filled and often painful lesion of the eyelid resulting from an infection in a sebaceous gland; also known as a stye

Answer 22

a vision defect in which light rays focus beyond the retina; also known as farsightedness

Answer 23

a contagious inflammation associated with a middle-ear infection that causes painful blisters on the eardrum

Answer 24

the surgical removal of a portion of the iris tissue

Answer 25

inflammation of the uvea affecting primarily structures in the front of the eye

Answer 26

inflammation of the cornea

Answer 27

the surgical removal of all or a portion of the labyrinth of the inner ear

Answer 28

treatment of open-angle glaucoma in which a laser is used to create an opening in the trabecular meshwork to allow fluid to drain properly

Answer 29

the surgical removal of mastoid cells

Answer 30

the dilation of the pupil

Answer 31

a vision defect in which light rays focus in front of the retina; also known as nearsightedness

Answer 32

a small surgical incision into the eardrum to relieve pressure from excess pus or fluid or to create an opening for the placement of ear tubes

Answer 33

a condition in which an individual with normal daytime vision has difficulty seeing at night; also known as night blindness

Answer 34

involuntary, constant, rhythmic movement of the eyeball

Answer 35

the visual examination of the fundus (back part) of the eye with an ophthalmoscope; also known as a funduscopy

Answer 36

a specialist who holds a Doctor of Optometry degree and provides primary eye care, including diagnosing eye disease and conditions are measuring the accuracy of vision to determine if corrective lenses are needed

Answer 37

inflammation of the middle ear

Answer 38

a fungal infection of the external auditory canal; also known as swimmer's ear

Answer 39

the flow of pus from the ear

Answer 40

any discharge from the ear

Answer 41

ankylosis of the bones of the middle ear, resulting in a conductive hearing loss

Answer 42

swelling and inflammation of the optic nerve at the point of entrance into the eye through the optic disk; also known as choked disk

Answer 43

swelling of the tissues surrounding the eye or eyes

Answer 44

excessive sensitivity to light

Answer 45

a gradual sensorineural hearing loss that occurs as the body ages

Answer 46

decline of near vision that occurs with age as the lends becomes less flexible and the muscles of the ciliary body become weaker

Answer 47

dropping o the upper eyelid that is usually due to paralysis

Answer 48

a surgical procedure to treat myopia

Answer 49

treatment to reattach the detached area in a retinal detachment

Answer 50

inflammation of the sclera of the eye

Answer 51

deafness that develops when the auditory nerve or hair cells in the inner ear are damaged

Answer 52

the surgical removal of part of the stapes bone and its replacement with a small prosthetic device

Answer 53

a disorder in which the eyes point in different directions or are not aligned correctly because the eye muscles are unable to focus

Answer 54

the partial or complete suturing together of the upper and lower eyelids

Answer 55

a ringing, buzzing, or roaring sound in one or both ears

Answer 56

a ringing, buzzing, or roaring sound in one or both ears

Answer 57

the part of a routine eye examination in which intraocular pressure (IOP) is measured

Answer 58

the use of air pressure in the ear canal to test for disorder of the middle ear

Answer 59

a sense of whirling, dizziness, and the loss of balance, often combined with nausea and vomiting

Answer 60

the removal of the vitreous fluid of the posterior chamber of the eye and its replacement with a clear solution

Answer 61

drying of the eye surfaces; including the conjunctiva; also known as dry eye

Answer 62

right eye (oculus dexter)

Answer 63

left eye (oculus sinister)

Answer 64

each eye (oculus uterque) or both eyes (oculi uterque)

Answer 65

means eye and the plural is oculi

Answer 66

is the largest American standards-setting and accrediting body in health care, recommends writing out these terms instead of using abbreviations

Answer 67

and the adnexa that are attached to or surround the eyeball

Answer 68

-lacrimal gland (under the eyelid) -eyelashes -outer canthus -lower eyelid -conjunctiva -iris -sclera -inner canthus -pupil -upper eyelid

Answer 69

also known as adnexa oculi, are the structures outside the eyeball. These include (whats listed above)

Answer 70

means the accessory or adjoining anatomical parts of an organ. the term adnexa is plural

Answer 71

also known as the eye socket, is the boney cavity of the skull that contains and protects the eyeball and its associated muscles, blood vessels, and nerves

Answer 72

which are arranged into three pairs: -superior and inferior oblique muscles -superior and inferior rectus muscles -lateral and medial rectus muscles

Answer 73

describes an angle that is slanted but is not perpendicular or parallel.

Answer 74

means straight

Answer 75

occurs when the muscles of both eyes work together in coordination to make normal depth perception possible.

Answer 76

is the ability to see things in three dimensions

Answer 77

together with the eyebrows and eyelashes help protect the eyeball from foreign matter, excessive light, and injuries due to other causes

Answer 78

is the angle where the upper and lower eyelids meet. The plural of canthus is canthi

Answer 79

means corner of the eye-

Answer 80

is a singular noun ending -the edges of the eyelids contain oil-producing sebaceous glands.

Answer 81

which are small hairs, make up the eyebrows and eyelashes. Cilia are also present in the nose to prevent foreign matter from being inhaled

Answer 82

also known as the tarsal plate, is the framework within the upper and lower eyelids that provides the necessary stiffness and shape. The plural of tarsus is tarsi. NOTE: tarsus also refers to the several tarsal bones of the foot's instep

Answer 83

is the transparent mucous membrane that lines the underside of each eyelid and continues to form a protective covering over the exposed surface of the eyeball. The plural of conjunctiva is conjunctivae. Primary functions are: -keep the front surface of the eye moist and lubricated. -Keep the inner surface of the eyelids moist and lubricated so they open and close easily without friction or causing eye irritaion -protect the eye from dust, debris and infection-causing microorganisms

Answer 84

also known as the tear apparatus, consists of the structures that produce, store, and remove tears.

Answer 85

is the secretion of tears

Answer 86

which secrete lacrimal fluid (tears) are located on the underside of the upper eyelid just above the outer corner of each eye

Answer 87

commonly known as tears, is to maintain moisture on the anterior surface of the eyeball. Blinking distributes the lacrimal fluid across the eye

Answer 88

consists of a duct at the inner corner of each eye. These ducts collect tears and empty them into the lacrimal sacs. Crying is the overflowing of tears from the lacrimal canals

Answer 89

also known as the tear sac, is an enlargement of the upper portion of the lacrimal duct

Answer 90

also known as the nasolacrimal duct, is the passageway that drains excess tears into the nose

Answer 91

also known as the globe, is a 1-inch sphere with only about one-sixth of its surface visible

Answer 92

means pertaining to the eye or sight

Answer 93

means pertaining to the eye

Answer 94

means outside the eyeball

Answer 95

means on the outside

Answer 96

means pertaining to

Answer 97

means iwthin the eyeball

Answer 98

means within

Answer 99

the walls of the eyeball are made up of three layers; the sclera, choroid, and retina

Answer 100

also known as the white of the eye, maintains the shape of the eye and protects the delicate inner layers of tissue. This tough, fibrous tissue forms the outer layer of the eye, except for the part covered by the cornea. Notes: combining form scler/o means the white of the eye, and it also means hard.)

Answer 101

also known as the choroid coat, is the opaque middler layer of the eyeball that contains many blood vessels and provides the blood supply for the entire eye

Answer 102

means that light cannot pass through this substance

Answer 103

is the sensitive innermost layer that lines the posterior segment of the eye. the retina receives nerve impulses and transmits them to the brain via the optic nerve. This is also known as the second cranial nerve

Answer 104

the interior of the eyeball is divided into the anterior and posterior segments

Answer 105

the anterior segment makes up the front one-third of the eyeball. This segment is divided into anterior and posterior chambers -the anterior chamber is located behind the cornea and in front iris. The posterior chamber is located behind the iris and in front of the ligaments holding the lens in place. Note: Don't confuse the posterior chamber with the posterior segment

Answer 106

which is also known as aqueous fluid, fills both of these chambers. The term aqueous means watery or containing water. As used here, the term humor describes any clear body liquid or semifluid substance

Answer 107

helps the eye maintain its shape and nourishes the intraocular structures. This fluid is constantly filtered and drained through the trabecular meshwork and the canal of Schlemm

Answer 108

is the measurement of the fluid pressure inside the eye. This pressure is regulated by the rate at which aqueous humor enters and leaves the eye

Answer 109

which makes up the remaining two-thirds of the eyeball, is lined with the retina and filled with vitreous humor. Also known as vitreous gel, this is a soft, clear, jelly-like mass that contains millions of fine fibers. These fibers, which are attached to the surface of the retina, help the eye maintain its shape

Answer 110

of the retina receive images that have passed through the lends of the eye. These images are converted into nerve impulses and transmitted to the brain via the optic nerve. Rods are the black and white receptors, and cones are the color receptors

Answer 111

also known as the macula lutea, is the clearly defined light-sensitive area area in the center of the retina that is responsible for sharp central vision. Note that the term macula means a small spot. A macula, also known as a macule, can also refer to a small, discolored spot on the skin, such as a freckle

Answer 112

is a pit in the middle of the macula. Color vision is best in this area because it contains a high concentration of cones and no rods

Answer 113

also known as the blind spot, is a small region in the eye where the nerve endings of the retina enter the optic nerve. This is called the blind spot, because it does not contain any rods or cones to convert images into nerve impulses

Answer 114

transmits these nerve impulses from the retina to the brain

Answer 115

is the pigmented layer of the eye. It has a rich blood supply and consists of the choroid, ciliary body and iris

Answer 116

which is located within the choroid, is a set of muscles and suspensory ligaments that adjust the thickness of the lens to refine the focus of light rays on the retina -the ciliary body produces the aqueous humor that fills the anterior segment of the eye -to focus on nearby objects, these muscles adjust the lens to make it thicker -to focus on distant objects, these muscles stretch the lends so it is thinner

Answer 117

is the colorful circular structure that surrounds the pupil. The muscles within the iris control the amount of light that is allowed to enter the eye through the pupil. -To decrease the amount of light entering the eye, the muscles of the iris contract, making the opening of the pupil smaller -to increase the amount of light entering the eye, the muscles of the iris relax, or dilate, making the opening of the pupil larger.

Answer 118

refers to expanding any opening of the body, for example ,the dilating of the cervix during childbirth

Answer 119

is the transparent outer surface of the eye covering the iris and pupil. It is the primary structure focusing light entering the eye.

Answer 120

is the black circular opening in the center of the iris that permits light to enter the eye

Answer 121

is the clear, flexible, curved structure that focuses images on the retina. The lens is contained within a clear capsule located behind the iris and pupil

Answer 122

is the process whereby the eyes make adjustments for seeing objects at various distances. These adjustments include contraction (narrowing) and dilation (widening) of the pupil, movement of the eyes, and changes in the shape of the lens

Answer 123

is the simultaneous inward movement of the eyes toward each other. This occurs in an effort to maintain single binocular vision as an object comes nearer

Answer 124

is the normal relationship between the refractive power of the eye and the shape of the eye that enables light rays to focus correctly on the retina

Answer 125

means in proper measure

Answer 126

means vision condition

Answer 127

also refractive power, is the ability of the lens to bend light rays so they focus on the retina.

Answer 128

is the ability to distinguish object details and shape at a distance

Answer 129

means sharpness

Answer 130

is a physician who specializes in diagnosing and treating the full spectrum of diseases and disorders of the eyes, from vision correction to eye surgery

Answer 131

holds a doctor degree and provides primary eye care, including diagnosing eye diseases and conditions and measuring the accuracy of vision to determine whether corrective lenses are needed

Answer 132

is a health care practitioner who designs, fits, and dispenses lenses for vision correction

Answer 133

is the drooping of the upper eyelid that is usually due to paralysis. The term blepharoptosis has the same meaning

Answer 134

means drooping or sagging

Answer 135

is a nodule or cyst, usually on the upper eyelid, caused by obstruction in a sebaceous gland. The plural of chalazion is chalazie. A chalazion is a type of granuloma

Answer 136

also known as a stye, is a pus-filled and often painful lesion on the eyelid resulting from an acute infection in a sebaceous gland. Compare with chalazion

Answer 137

is swelling of the eyelid, often at the location of the eyelash hair follicles

Answer 138

means eyelid

Answer 139

is the eversion of the edge of an eyelid. Eversion means turning outward. This usually affects the lower lid, thereby exposing the inner surface of the eyelid to irritation and preventing tears from draining properly.

Answer 140

is the opposite of entropion

Answer 141

is the inversion of the edge of an eyelid. Inversion means turning inward. This usually affects the lower eyelid and causes the eyelashes to rub against the cornea. Entropion is the opposite of ectropion

Answer 142

means turn

Answer 143

means condition

Answer 144

is swelling of the tissues surrounding the eye or eyes. This can give the face a bloated appearance and cause the eyes to be partially covered by the swollen eyelids. This swelling is associated with conditions such as allergic reaction, nephrotic syndrome and cellulitis

Answer 145

means surrounding

Answer 146

means eyeball

Answer 147

means pertaining to

Answer 148

also known as pinkeye, is an inflammation of the conjunctiva that is usually caused by an infection or allergy

Answer 149

means conjunctiva

Answer 150

means inflammation

Answer 151

is an inflammation of the lacrimal gland caused by a bacterial, viral, or fungal infection. Signs and symptoms of this condition include sudden severe pain, redness, and pressure in the orbit of the eye

Answer 152

means tear

Answer 153

means gland

Answer 154

is bleeding between the conjunctiva and sclera. This condition, which is usually caused by an injury, creates a red area over the white of the eye

Answer 155

also known as dry eye, is drying of eye surfaces, including the conjunctiva, because the tear glands do not produce enough tears. This condition is often associated with aging. It can also be due to systemic diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis or caused a lack of vitamin D

Answer 156

is an inflammation of the uvea causing swelling and irritation. Complications from uveitis can potentially lead to permanent vision loss

Answer 157

is the most common form of uveitis. This inflammation of the uvea affects primarily structures in the front of the eye. This condition has a sudden onset and may last six to eight weeks

Answer 158

is an injury, such as a scratch or irritation, to the outer layers of the cornea. Compare with corneal ulcer

Answer 159

means cornea

Answer 160

means pertaining to

Answer 161

is pitting of the cornea caused by an infection or injury. Although these ulcers heal with treatment, they can leave a cloudy scar that impairs vision. Compare with corneal abrasion

Answer 162

is damage to the retina as a complication of uncontrolled diabetes. As diabetic retinopathy progresses, diabetic macular edema can occur

Answer 163

is an inflammation of the cornea. This condition can be due to many causes, including bacterial, viral, or fungal infections. (note: kerat/o also means hard)

Answer 164

means cornea

Answer 165

occurs when the cornea becomes irregular and cone-shaped, causing blurring and distortion of vision

Answer 166

is an inflammation of the sclera. This condition is usually associated with infections, chemical injuries, or autoimmune diseases

Answer 167

means white of the eye

Answer 168

is a condition in which the pupils are unequal in seize. This condition can be congenital or caused by a head injury, an aneurysm, or pathology of the central nervous system

Answer 169

is the loss of transparency of the lens that causes a progressive loss of visual clarity. The formation of most cataracts is associated with aging; however, this condition can be congenital or due to an injury or disease

Answer 170

also known as vitreous floaters, are particles of cellular debris that float in the vitreous humor and cast shadows on the retina. Floaters often occur normally but may be an indication of retinal detachment, especially when accompanied by photopsia

Answer 171

is the presence of what appears to be flashes of light, or flashers. These are often caused by damage to the eye or migraine headaches

Answer 172

is the contraction of the pupil, normally in response to exposure to light but also possibly due to the use of prescription or illegal drugs

Answer 173

means smaller

Answer 174

means abnormal condition

Answer 175

is the dilation of the pupil, is the opposite of miosis. The causes of mydriasis include diseases, trauma (injury), and drugs

Answer 176

means the dilation of the pupil

Answer 177

is an involuntary, constant, rhythmic movement of the eyeball that can be congenital or caused by a neurological injury or drug use

Answer 178

also known as choked disk, is swelling and inflammation of the optic nerve at the point of entrance into the eye through the optic disk. This swelling is caused by increased intracranial pressure and can be due to a tumor pressing on the optic nerve

Answer 179

also known as detached retina, and retinal tears are the separation of some or all of the light-sensitive retina from the choroid. If not treated, the entire retina can detach, causing blindness. These condition can be caused by head trauma, aging, or the vitreous humor separating from the retina

Answer 180

is a progressive degeneration of the retina that affects night and peripheral vision. It can be detached by the presence of dark pigmented spots in the retina

Answer 181

is a form of vasculitis that can cause a sudden vision loss, usually in one eye

Answer 182

is a group of diseases characterized by increased intraocular pressure that causes damage to the retinal nerve fibers and the optic nerve. this increase in pressure is caused by a blockage in the flow of fluid out of the eye. If untreated, this pressure can cause the loss of peripheral vision and eventually blindness.

Answer 183

also known as chronic glaucoma, is by far the most common form of this condition. The trabecular meshwork gradually becomes blocked, causing a buildup of pressure. Symptoms of this condition are not noticed by the patient until the optic nerve has been damaged; however, it can be detected earlier through regular eye examinations, including tonometry and visual field testing.

Answer 184

also known as acute glaucoma, is opening between the cornea and iris narrows so that fluid cannot reach the trabecular meshwork. This narrowing can cause a sudden increase in the intraocular pressure that produces severe pain, nausea, redness of the eye, and blurred vision. Without immediate treatment, blindness can occur in as little as two days

Answer 185

is a gradually progressive condition in which the macula at the center of the retina is damaged, resulting in the loss of central vision but not in total blindness

Answer 186

means spot

Answer 187

occurs most frequently in older people and is the leading cause of severe vision loss in those over 60

Answer 188

which accounts for 90% of all AMD cases, caused by the slow deterioration of the cells of the macula

Answer 189

is an advanced form of dry AMD. New blood vessels growing beneath the retinal cells. These small hemorrhages usually result in rapid and severe vision loss

Answer 190

also known as double vision, is the perception of two images of a single object. It is sometimes a symptom of serious underlying disorder such as multiple sclerosis or a brain tumor

Answer 191

is blindness in one-half of the visual field

Answer 192

means half

Answer 193

means without

Answer 194

means visual condition

Answer 195

also known as color blindness, is the inability to distinguish certain colors in a normal manner. This is a genetic condition caused by deficiencies in or the absence of certain types of cones in the retina

Answer 196

means color

Answer 197

means condition

Answer 198

also known as night blindness, is a condition in which an individual with normal daytime vision has difficulty seeing at night

Answer 199

means night

Answer 200

means excessive sensitivity to light and can be the result of migraines, excessive wearing of contacts lenses, drug use, or inflammation

Answer 201

is the condition of common changes in the eyes that occur with agin. With age, near vision declines noticeably as the lens becomes less flexible and the muscles of the ciliary body becomes weaker. The result is that the eyes are no longer able to focus the image properly on the retina

Answer 202

means old age

Answer 203

is a disorder in which the eyes point in different directions or are not aligned correctly, because the eye muscles are unable to focus together

Answer 204

also known as cross-eyes, is strabismus characterized by an inward deviation of one or both eyes.

Answer 205

means inward

Answer 206

also known as walleye, is strabismus characterized by the outward deviation of one eye relative to the other

Answer 207

meanas outward

Answer 208

means turn

Answer 209

means abnormal condition

Answer 210

is a focusing problem that occurs when the lens and cornea do not bend light so that it focuses properly on the retina

Answer 211

also known as farsightedness, is a defect in which light rays focus beyond the retina. This condition can occur in childhood but usually causes difficulty after age 40. Hyperopia is the opposite of myopia

Answer 212

is any error of refraction in which images do not focus properly on the retina. Astigmatism, hyperopia and myopia are all forms of ametropia

Answer 213

is a condition in which the eye does not focus properly because of uneven curvatures of the cornea

Answer 214

also known as nearsightedness, is a defect in which light rays focus in front of the retina. This condition occurs most commonly around puberty. Myopia is the opposite of hyperopia

Answer 215

means excessive

Answer 216

means vision condition

Answer 217

is from the greek word for shortsighted

Answer 218

is the inability to see

Answer 219

is the point at which, under law, an individual is considered to be blind. A commonly used standard is that a person is legally blind when his or her best-corrected vision is reduced to 20/200 or less

Answer 220

is a dimness of vision or the partial loss of sight, especially in one eye, without detectable disease of the eye

Answer 221

means dim or dull

Answer 222

also known as blind spot, is an abnormal area of diminished vision surrounded by an area of normal vision

Answer 223

is used to measure visual acuity. The results for each eye are recorded as a fraction with 20/20 being considered normal -the first number indicates the standard distance from the chart, which is 20 feet -the second number indicates the deviation from the norm based on the ability to read progressively smaller lines of letters on the chart

Answer 224

is done to determine an eye's refractive error so that the best corrective lenses can be prescribed. This term also refers to the ability of the lens to bend light rays so they focus on the retina

Answer 225

is the unit of measurement of a lens's refractive power

Answer 226

is an examination of how the two eyes work together and is used to assess binocular vision. One eye at a time is covered while the patient focuses on an object across the room

Answer 227

also known as perimetry, is performed to determine losses in peripheral vision. Peripheral means occurring away from the center. Blank sections in the visual field can be symptomatic of glaucoma or an optic nerve disorder. This test is done by having the patient look straight ahead and indicate whether or not they can see an object or flash of light when it is presented in their periphery

Answer 228

also known as funduscopy, is the use of an ophthalmoscope to visually examine the fundus (back part) of the eye. This examination includes the retina, optic disk, choroid, and blood vessels

Answer 229

of the eyes is required in preparation for the ophtalmoscopic examination of the interior of the eye. Artificial enlargement of the pupils is achieved through the use of mydriatic edrops

Answer 230

are placed into the eyes to produce temporary paralysis, forcing the pupils to remain dilated even in the presence of bright light

Answer 231

is a diagnostic procedure in which a narrow beam of light is focused onto parts of the eye to permit the ophthalmologist to examine the structures at the front of the eye, including the cornea, iris, and lens. Often fluorescein staining is used to help detect foreign bodies or an infected or injured area of the eye

Answer 232

is the application of fluorescent dye to the surface of the eye via eye drops or a strip applicator. This dye causes a corneal abrasion to temporarily appear bright green

Answer 233

is a photographic study of the blood vessels in the back of the eye following the intravenous injection of a fluorescein dye as a contrast medium. The resulting angiograms are used to determine whether there is proper circulation in the retinal vessels

Answer 234

is an acronym meaning: Pupils are Equal Round Responsive to Light and Accommodation. This diagnostic observation, and any abnormality here could indicate a head injury or damage to the brain

Answer 235

is the measurement of intraocular pressure. Abnormally high pressure can be an indication of glaucoma

Answer 236

means tension

Answer 237

means to measure

Answer 238

is a surgical incision into the orbit. This procedure is performed for biopsy, abscess drainage, or removal of a tumor or foreign object

Answer 239

means bony socket

Answer 240

means surgical incision

Answer 241

is the partial or complete suturing together of the upper and lower eyelids to protect the eye when the lids are paralyzed and unable to close normally

Answer 242

means eyelid.

Answer 243

means surgical suturing

Answer 244

also known as keratoplasty, is the surgical replacement of a scarred or diseased cornea with clear corneal tissue from a donor

Answer 245

is the removal of the eyeball, leaving the eye muscles intact

Answer 246

means out of

Answer 247

means nucleus

Answer 248

means action

Answer 249

also known as an artificial eye, may be fitted to wear over a malformed eye or to replace an eyeball that is either congenitally missing or has been surgically removed. A prothesis is an artificial substitute for a diseased or missing body part

Answer 250

is the surgical removal of a portion of the tissue of the iris. This procedure is most frequently performed to treat closed-angle glaucoma

Answer 251

is a surgical procedure to treat myopia. During the surgery, incisions are made in the cornea to casue it to flatten. These incisions allow the sides of the cornea to bulge outward and thereby flatten the central portions of the cornea. This brings the focal point of the eye closer to the retina and improves distance vision. Compare with LASIK, in the later section "Laser Treatments of the Eyes"

Answer 252

is a silicone band or sponge used to repair a detached retina. The detached layers are brought closer together by attaching this band onto the sclera, or outer wall, of the eyeball, creating an indentation or buckle effect inside the eye

Answer 253

is the removal of the vitreous humor and its replacement with a clear solution. This procedure is sometimes performed to treat a retinal detachment or when diabetic retinopathy causes blood to leak and cloud the vitreous humor

Answer 254

means vitreous humor

Answer 255

means removal

Answer 256

is the general term used to describe the surgical removal of a cataract-clouded lens

Answer 257

is the use of ultrasonic vibration to shatter and remove the lens clouded by a cataract. This performed through a very small opening, and the same opening is used to slide the intraocular lens into place

Answer 258

is a surgically implanted replacement for the natural lens that has been removed. There are two types of IOLs, monofocal and multifocal, which was designed to eliminate the need for corrective lenses

Answer 259

means within

Answer 260

refractive errors in the eye can often be corrected with lenses that alter the angle of light rays before they reach the cornea. Glasses with concave lenses (curved inward) are used for myopia, or nearsightedness, and glasses with cortex lenses (curved outward) for hyperopia (farsightedness) -corrective lenses can combine two or three different refractive powers, one above the other, to allow for better distance vision when looking up and near vision when looking down. Bifocals are lenses with two powers. Trifocals are lenses with three powers -strabismus is sometimes treated with corrective lenses or an eye path covering the stronger eye and thus strengthening the muscles in the weaker eye -contact lenses are refractive lenses that float directly on the tear film in front of the eye. Rigid gas-permeable lenses cover the central part of the cornea, and disposable soft lenses cover the entire cornea

Answer 261

uses a focused beam of light to create a hole in the iris of the eye. This procedure is performed to treat closed-angle glaucoma by creating an opening that allows the aqueous humor to flow between the anterior and posterior chambers of the anterior segment of the eye

Answer 262

means iris

Answer 263

is used to treat open-angle glaucoma by creating in the trabecular meshwork to allow the fluid to drain properly

Answer 264

is the acronym for Laser-Assisted in Situ Keratomileusis.

Answer 265

is the use of a laser treat some forms of wet macular degeneration by sealing leaking or damaged blood vessels. This technique is also used to repair small retinal tears by intentionally forming scar tissue to seal the holes

Answer 266

is used to reattach the detached area in a retinal detachment.

Answer 267

means retina

Answer 268

means surgical fixation

Answer 269

a gas bubble is injected into the vitreous cavity to put pressure on the area of repair while it heals. The bubble gradually dissipates. Lasers are sued to remove clouded tissue that may have formed in the posterior portion of the lens capsule after cataract extraction

Answer 270

the ears the receptor organs of hearing, and their functions are to receive sound impulses and transmit them to the brain. The inner ear also helps maintain balance. The abbreviations relating to the ears, with the Latin words from which they originated.

Answer 271

right ear (auris dexter)

Answer 272

left ear (auris sinister)

Answer 273

each ear (auris uterque) or both ears (auris unitas)

Answer 274

means pertaining to the sense of hearing.

Answer 275

means hearing or sense of hearing

Answer 276

means pertaining to

Answer 277

means pertaining to sound or hearing

Answer 278

means hearing or sound

Answer 279

the outer ear, the middle ear, and the inner ear

Answer 280

also known as the auricle or the outer ear, is the external portion of the ear. The pinna captures sound waves and transmits them into the external auditory canal

Answer 281

transmits these sound waves to the tympanic membrane (eardrum) of the middle ear

Answer 282

also known as earwax, is secreted by ceruminous glands that line the auditory canal. This sticky yellow-brown substances has protective functions because it traps small insects, dust, and some bacteria to prevent them from entering the middle ear

Answer 283

which is located between the outer ear and the inner ear, transmits sound across the space between these two parts

Answer 284

also known as the eardrum, is located between the outer and middle ear. The word parts myring/o and tympan/o both tympanic membrane. When sound waves reach the eardrum, this membrane transmits the sound by vibrating

Answer 285

is the temporal bone containing hollow air space that surrounds the middle ear. As used here, a process is a projection on a structure such as a bone

Answer 286

are three small bones located the middle ear. The role of these bones is to transmit the sound waves from the eardrum to the inner ear by vibration. These bones are named for the Latin terms that describe their shapes. They are as follows: Malleus - also known as the hammer Incus - also known as the anvil Stapes - also known as the stirrup

Answer 287

also known as the auditory tubes, are narrow tubes that lead from the middle ear to the nasal cavity and the throat. The purpose of these tubes is to equalize the air pressure within the middle ear with that of the outside atmosphere

Answer 288

contains the sensory receptors for hearing and balance. The structures of the inner ear are a maze-like system known as the labyrinth

Answer 289

which is located under the base of the stapes, is the membrane that separates the middle ear from the inner ear. Vibrations enter the inner ear through this structure

Answer 290

is the snail-shaped structure of the inner ear and is where the sound vibrations are converted into nerve impulses. Located within the cochlea are the cochlear duct, the organ of Corti, the semicircular canals, and the acoustic nerves. Cochlea come from the Greek term for snail

Answer 291

receives the vibrations from the cochlear duct and relays them to the auditory nerve fibers. These fibers transmit the sound impulses to the auditory center of the brain's cerebral cortex, where they are heard and interpreted

Answer 292

connected to the cochlea by the vestibule, contain the liquid endolymph and sensitive hair cells. The bending of these hair cells in response to the movements of the head sets up impulses in nerve fibers to help maintain equilibrium.

Answer 293

is the state of balance

Answer 294

also called auditory nerves, transmit this information to the brain. The acoustic nerves are made up of two parts: cochlear nerves and vestibular nerves

Answer 295

transmit sound for hearing

Answer 296

that sense balance and head position

Answer 297

the ear is divided into three separate regions: the outer ear, middle ear and the inner ear

Answer 298

pinna, external auditory canal, cerumen

Answer 299

also known as the auricle or the outer ear, is the external portion of the ear. the pinna captures sound waves and transmits them into the external auditory canal

Answer 300

transmits these sound waves to the tympanic membrane (eardrum) of the middle ear

Answer 301

also known as earwax, is secreted by ceruminous glands that line the auditory canal. This sticky yellow-brown substances has protective functions because it traps small insects, dust, debris, and some bacteria to prevent them from entering the middle ear.

Answer 302

which is located between the outer ear and the inner ear, transmits sound across the space between these two parts: tympanic membrane and the mastoid process

Answer 303

also known as the eardrum, is located between the outer and middle ear. The word parts myring/o and tympan/o both mean tympanic membrane. When sound waves reach the eardrum, this membrane transmits the sound by vibrating

Answer 304

is the temporal bone containing hollow hair space that surrounds the middle ear. As used here, a process is a projection on a structure such as a bone

Answer 305

are three small bones located within the middle ear. The role of these bones is to transmit the sound waves from the eardrum to the inner ear by vibration. These bones are named for the Latin terms that describe their shapes. They are as follows: -malleus -incus -stapes

Answer 306

also known as the hammer

Answer 307

also known as the anvil

Answer 308

also known as the stirrup

Answer 309

also known as the auditory tubes, are narrow tubes that lead from the middle ear to the nasal cavity and the throat. The purpose of these tubes is to equalize the air pressure within the middle ear with that of the outside atmosphere

Answer 310

air conduction bone conduction sensorineural conduction

Answer 311

is the process by which sound waves enter the ear through the pinna and then travel down the external auditory canal until they strike the tympanic membrane, which is located between the outer ear and the middle ear

Answer 312

occurs as the eardrum vibrates and causes the auditory ossicles of the middle ear to vibrate. The vibration of these bones transmits the sound waves through the middle ear to the oval window of the inner ear

Answer 313

occurs when these sound vibrations reach the inner ear. The structures of the inner ear receive the sound waves and relay them to the auditory nerve for transmission to the brain

Answer 314

specializes in the measurement of hearing function and in the rehabilitation of person with hearing impairments. An otolaryngologist is previous discussed

Answer 315

means hearing

Answer 316

ear, nose and throat physician

Answer 317

can be involved in numerous medical areas including audiology. These practitioners help patients who have problems related to swallowing, speech, and communication disorders

Answer 318

impacted cerumen otalgia otitis otomycosis otopyorrhea otorrhea otorrhagia

Answer 319

is an accumulation of earwax that forms a solid mass by adhering to the walls of the external auditory canal. Impacted means lodged or wedged firmly in place

Answer 320

also known as an earache, is pain in the ear

Answer 321

means pain

Answer 322

means any inflammation of the ear. The second part of the term gives the location of the inflammation. For example, otitis externa is an inflammation of the external auditory canal, also known as swimmer's ear

Answer 323

is a fungal infection of the external auditory canal.

Answer 324

means fungus

Answer 325

means abnormal condition

Answer 326

is the flow of pus from the ear

Answer 327

means flow or discharge

Answer 328

is any discharge from the ear. In rare cases this could include leakage of cerebrospinal fluid

Answer 329

is bleeding from the ear

Answer 330

means bleeding

Answer 331

barotrauma cholesteatoma mastoiditis infectious myringitis otitis otosclerosis

Answer 332

is a pressure-related ear condition. These conditions can be caused by pressure changes when flying, driving in the mountains, or scuba diving or when the eustachian tube is blocked

Answer 333

means pressure

Answer 334

means injury

Answer 335

also known as a pearly tumor, is a destructive epidermal cyst in the middle ear and/or the mastoid process made up of epithelial cells and cholesterol. It can be congenital or a serious complication of chronic otitis media

Answer 336

refers to cholesterol

Answer 337

means tumor

Answer 338

is an inflammation of any part of the mastoid bone. This condition may develop when acute otitis media that cannot be controlled with antibiotics spreads to the mastoid process

Answer 339

means mastoid process

Answer 340

is a contagious inflammation that causes painful blisters on the eardrum. The condition is associated with a middle ear infection. It is not to be confused with infectious meningitis, which is an inflammation of the brain and spinal cord

Answer 341

means eardrum

Answer 342

is an inflammation of the middle ear

Answer 343

is usually associated with an upper respiratory infection and is most commonly seen in young children. This condition can lead to a ruptured eardrum due to the buildup of pus or fluid in the middle ear

Answer 344

is a fluid buildup in the middle ear without symptoms of an infection. This condition can follow acute otitis media or can be caused by obstruction of the eustachian tube

Answer 345

is the ankylosis of the bones of the middle ear, resulting in a conductive hearing loss. Ankylosis means fused together. Ankylosis means fused together. This condition is treated with a stapedectomy

Answer 346

is an inflammation of the labyrinth that can result in vertigo and deafness

Answer 347

is a sense of whirling, dizziness, and loss of balance that is often combined with nausea and vomiting. Although it is a symptom of many disorders, recurrent vertigo is sometimes associated with inner ear problems such as Méniére's disease

Answer 348

is a common cause of vertigo that occurs when there is a shift in the location of small crystals in the semicircular canals. BBPV, labyrinthitis, and Meniere's disease are examples vestibular disorders, which are disorders of the body's balance-controlling vestibular system in the inner ear.

Answer 349

is a rare chronic disorder in which the amount of fluid in the inner ear increases intermittently, producing attacks of vertigo, a fluctuating hearing loss (usually in one ear) and tinnitus

Answer 350

is a condition of a ringing, buzzing, or roaring sound in one or both ears. It is often associated with hearing loss and is more likely to occur when there has been prolonged exposure to loud noises

Answer 351

is a brain tumor that develops adjacent to the cranial nerve running from the brain to the inner ear. This is one of the most common types of brain tumors and can cause hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus

Answer 352

means hearing

Answer 353

means pertaining to

Answer 354

means nerve

Answer 355

means tumor

Answer 356

is the complete or partial loss of the ability to hear. It can range from the inability to hear sounds of the certain pitch or intensity, or to a complete loss of hearing

Answer 357

is a gradual loss of sensorineural hearing that occurs as the body ages

Answer 358

means old age

Answer 359

means hearing

Answer 360

occurs when sound waves are prevented from passing from the air to the fluid-filled inner ear. Causes of this hearing loss include a buildup of earwax, infection, fluid in the middle ear, a punctured eardrum, otosclerosis, and scarring. This type of hearing loss can often be treated

Answer 361

also known as nerve deafness, develops when the auditory nerve or hair cells in the inner ear are damaged. This is usually due to age, noise exposure, or an acoustic neuroma. The source of this hearing loss can be located in the inner ear, in the nerve from the inner ear to the brain, or in the brain

Answer 362

is a type of nerve deafness caused by repeated exposure to extremely loud noises such as a gunshot or to moderately loud noises that continue for long periods of time -These noises can permanently damage the hair cells in the cochlea, and at least partial hearing loss occurs. Unfortunately, this gradual hearing loss usually isn't noticed until some hearing has been permanently destroyed -any sound above 85 decibels (dB) can cause some hearing loss if the exposure is prolonged. Most portable music players and smartphones can produce sounds up to 105 dB, which is louder than a lawn mower or a chain saw and is the equivalent to an ambulance siren

Answer 363

is commonly used as the measurement of the loudness of sound

Answer 364

also known as speech audiometry, is the measurement of the ability to hear and understand speech sounds based on their pitch and loudness. This testing is best achieved in a sound-treated room with earphones. The resulting graph is an audiogram that represents the ability to hear a variety of sounds at various loudness levels

Answer 365

is the use of an audiometer to measure hearing acuity. An audiometer is an electronic device that produces acoustic stimuli of a set frequency and intensity

Answer 366

hertz and decibels a Hertz (Hz) is a measure of sound frequency that determines how high or low a pitch is.

Answer 367

which is an instrument used to examine the external ear canal. A pneumatic otoscope has the attachment of a bulb filled with air; during an exam with an otoscope the bulb is pressed to visualized whether or not the tympanic membrane is immobile, indicating possible otitis media

Answer 368

involves one ear. Comare with binaural testing

Answer 369

involves both ears.

Answer 370

is the use of air pressure in the ear canal to test for disorders of the middle ear. This resulting record is a tympanogram. This is used to test for middle-ear fluid buildup or eustachian tube obstruction, or to evaluate a conductive hearing loss

Answer 371

measures how much sound is reflected back from the eardrum, a way to test how much fluid is in the middle ear to diagnose otitis media

Answer 372

use a tuning fork to distinguish between conductive and sensorineural hearing losses. This patient's perception of the tuning fork's vibrations helps evaluate his or her hearing ability by air conduction compared to that of bone conduction

Answer 373

is the surgical repair, restoration, or alteration of the pinna of the ear. This is sometimes done as cosmetic surgery called ear pinning to bring protruding ears closer to the head

Answer 374

means surgical repair

Answer 375

formally known as tympanostomy tubes, are tiny ventilating tubes placed through the eardrum to provide ongoing drainage for fluids and to relieve pressure that can buildup after childhood ear infections

Answer 376

is the surgical removal of mastoid cells. This procedure is used to treat mastoiditis that cannot be controlled with antibiotics or in preparation for the placement of a cochlear implant

Answer 377

means surgical removal

Answer 378

is a small surgical incision in the eardrum to relieve pressure from excess pus or fluid or to create an opening for the placement of ear tubes

Answer 379

means eardrum

Answer 380

means surgical incision

Answer 381

is the surgical removal of the top portion of the stapes bone and the insertion of a small prosthetic device known as a piston that conducts sound vibrations to the inner ear

Answer 382

means stapes

Answer 383

is the surgical correction of a damaged middle ear, either to cure chronic inflammation or to restore function.

Answer 384

means eardrum

Answer 385

is the surgical removal of all or a portion of the labyrinth. This procedure is performed to relieve uncontrolled vertigo; however, it causes complete hearing loss in the affected ear

Answer 386

is a form of physical therapy designed to treat a wide variety of balance disorders, the majority of which are caused by problems in the inner ear and vestibular nerve

Answer 387

means an enterance

Answer 388

transmits, processes, or amplifies sound and can be used with or without a hearing aid. An ALD can be helpful in eliminating distracting background noise. The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) requires that many public places provide assisted listening devices

Answer 389

is an electronic device that bypasses that damaged portions of the ear and directly stimulates the auditory nerve. The external speech processor captures sounds and converts them into digital signals. Electrodes that are implanted into the cochlea receive the signals and stimulate the auditory nerve. The brain receives these signals and perceives them as sound; however, it may take several months to adjust to the difference in speech when it is received in this manner

Answer 390

is a surgical procedure in which a new opening is created in the labyrinth to restore lost hearing

Answer 391

means window

Answer 392

means process

Answer 393

are electronic devices that are worn to correct a hearing loss. Sometimes a sensorineural hearing loss can be corrected with a hearing aid

Answer 394

is an external electronic device that uses a microphone to detect and amplify sounds

Answer 395

uses a computer chip to convert the incoming sound into a code that can be filtered before being amplified. This is designed to best compensate for a specific type of hearing loss. Hearing aid technology has steadily advanced, and some are even programmable from a smart phone or tablet

Answer 396

behind the ear (BTE), in the ear (ITE), in the canal (ITC) or completely in the canal (CIC)

Answer 397

conjunctivitis

Answer 398

emmetropia

Answer 399

fluroescein angiography

Answer 400

macular degeneration

Answer 401

radial keratotomy

Answer 402

retinal detachment

Answer 403

slit-lamp examination

Answer 404

visual acuity

Answer 405

visual field

Answer 406

hearing, sound

Answer 407

surrounding

Answer 408

to measure

Answer 409

vision condition

Answer 410

surgical fixation

Answer 411

instrument for visual examination

Answer 412

surgical incision

Answer 413

extraocular movements intact

Answer 414

head, eyes, ears, nose, throat

Answer 415

laser-assisted in situ keratomileusis

Answer 416

otitis externa

Answer 417

otitis media

Answer 418

Pupils Equal, Round, Reactive to Light and Accommodation

Answer 419

tympanic membrane, eardrum

Ch.11 Special senses - eyes and ears Flashcards

(463 cards)