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CATA exam > Chap 19 > Flashcards

Chap 19 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. After receiving a blow to the sternum, an athlete has difficulty swallowing, a diminished pulse, and hoarseness. What injury may have occurred?
    a. Glenohumeral dislocation
    b. Fracture of the sternum
    c. Fractured Clavicle
    d. Posterior displacement of the clavicle
A

D

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2
Q
  1. Dead arm syndrome is associated with:
    a. Shoulder impingement
    b. Frozen shoulder subluxation
    c. Recurrent anterior shoulder dislocation
    d. Acromioclavicular separation
A

C

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3
Q
  1. An individual reports numbness in the side of the neck, which extends across the shoulder and down the medial arm to the ulnar aspect of the hand, accompanied by weakness in grasp and atrophy of hand musculature. What injury should be suspected?
    a. Rotator cuff tear
    b. Cervical plexus injury
    c. Acromioclavicular separation
    d. Thoracic outlet syndrome
A

D

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4
Q
  1. Intra-articular swelling prevents
    a. Full shoulder adduction
    b. External rotation
    c. Internal rotation
    d. Shoulder abduction
A

A

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5
Q
  1. Crepitus about the shoulder could indicate all but which of the following?
    a. Inflamed subacromial bursa
    b. Biceps tenosynovitis
    c. Deltoid myositis ossificans
    d. Irregular articular surface
A

C

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a rotator cuff muscle?
    a. Teres Major
    b. Supraspinatus
    c. Subscapularis
    d. Rhomboid minor
    e. A and B
    f. A and C
    g. A and D
    h. B and C
    i. B and D
    j. C and D
A

G

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7
Q
  1. The middle portion of the deltoid is responsible for what motion?
    a. Flexion and horizontal adduction
    b. Extension and horizontal adduction
    c. Flexion and extension
    d. Abduction and horizontal abduction
A

D

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8
Q
  1. Most injuries to the rotator cuff occur during which phase of throwing?
    a. Cocking phase
    b. Deceleration
    c. Acceleration
    d. Stride phase
A

B

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9
Q
  1. While performing the Yergason test, the elbow is in:
    a. A neutral position
    b. Full flexion
    c. Flexed about 90°
    d. Full extension
A

C

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10
Q
  1. Speed’s test is used to test what condition of the shoulder area?
    a. Bicipital tendinitis
    b. Rotator cuff impingement
    c. AC sprain
    d. Rotator cuff tear
A

A

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11
Q
  1. At what age does the epiphyseal plate of the medial clavicle close?
    a. 25
    b. 18
    c. 16
    d. 15
A

A

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12
Q
  1. The biceps reflex include(s) which of the following dermatomes?
    a. C1–C3
    b. C5–C6
    c. C7
    d. C4
A

B

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13
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a closed kinetic chain exercise for the shoulder?
    a. Wall push ups
    b. Floor push ups
    c. Step ups
    d. Codman pendulum
A

D

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14
Q
  1. Which ligament resists independent upward movement of the distal clavicle?
    a. Acromioclavicular
    b. Coracoclavicular
    c. Costoclavicular
    d. Sternoclavicular
A

B

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15
Q
  1. What is the main function of the rotator cuff muscles?
    a. Hold the head of the humerus in the glenoid fossa
    b. Perform abduction and external rotation
    c. Perform abduction and internal rotation
    d. Facilitate scapulothoracic motions
A

A

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16
Q
  1. What is the most commonly injured bursa in the shoulder?
    a. Biceps
    b. Subacromial
    c. Subcoracoid
    d. Subscapularis
A

B

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17
Q
  1. The brachial plexus is made from what spinal nerves?
    a. C4–T2
    b. C5–T1
    c. C5–T2
    d. C6–T1
A

B

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18
Q
  1. Nearly all injuries at the SC joint result from:
    a. Bending
    b. Compression
    c. Shear
    d. Tension
A

B

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19
Q
  1. In a moderate AC joint sprain, what motion will cause increased pain and a snapping sound at the joint?
    a. Glenohumeral flexion
    b. Glenohumeral rotation
    c. Horizontal abduction
    d. Horizontal adduction
A

D

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20
Q
  1. In a glenohumeral dislocation, the glenoid labrum can be damaged or avulsed from the anterior lip of the glenoid fossa, leading to what type of injury?
    a. Anterior deformity
    b. Anterior stress lesion
    c. Bankart lesion
    d. Impingement lesion
A

C

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21
Q
  1. What nerve can be damaged in an anterior glenohumeral dislocation?
    a. Axillary nerve
    b. Median nerve
    c. Musculocutaneous nerve
    d. Radial nerve
A

A

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22
Q
  1. Which of the following structures is usually NOT injured with an impingement syndrome?
    a. Long head of biceps brachii
    b. Short head of biceps brachii
    c. Subacromial bursa
    d. Supraspinatus
A

B

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23
Q
  1. Nearly 80% of all clavicular fractures occur where?
    a. Acromion process
    b. Medial 1/3
    c. Middle third
    d. Distal 1/3
A

C

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24
Q
  1. A more effective method of testing the integrity of the biceps brachii tendon is
    a. The biceps brachii reflex test
    b. Neer impingement test
    c. Speed’s test
    d. Yergason test
A

C

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25
Q
  1. A condition in which nerves and/or vessels become compressed in the root of the neck or axilla, leading to numbness in the arm is called:
    a. Dead arm syndrome
    b. Impingement syndrome
    c. Little league elbow
    d. Thoracic outlet syndrome
A

D

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26
Q
  1. Circumduction and pendulum swings are examples of range of motion exercises collectively known as
    a. Closed chain
    b. Codman
    c. Thera-band
    d. T-bar
A

B

27
Q
  1. The nerve roots for the axillary nerve are
    a. C5–C6
    b. C5–C7
    c. C5–T1
    d. C6–C8
A

A

28
Q
  1. Normal ROM for shoulder lateral or external rotation is how many degrees?
    a. 50°–70°
    b. 60°–100°
    c. 80°–90°
    d. 100°–110°
A

C

29
Q
  1. Which of the following tests is used to assess a labral lesion?
    a. Speed’s
    b. Piano key
    c. Sulcus sign
    d. Clunk test
    e. All of the above
    f. A, B, C
    g. A, C, D
    h. B, C, D
    i. None of the above
A

D

30
Q
  1. Sprengel deformity presents as
    a. An undescended scapula
    b. An elevation of the distal clavicle
    c. A winged scapula
    d. A drooping of the shoulder girdle
A

A

31
Q
  1. Frontal plane movements of the humerus at the shoulder include:
    a. Flexion
    b. Abduction
    c. External rotation
    d. Horizontal adduction
A

B

32
Q
  1. A painful arc is characterized by:
    a. An inability to actively abduct the arm between 70° and 120°
    b. An inability to actively adduct the arm between 70° and 120°
    c. An inability to passively abduct the arm between 70° and 120°
    d. An inability to passively adduct the arm between 70° and 120°
A

A

33
Q
  1. The pitching error scoring system focuses on assessing how many indicators during throwing?
    a. 3
    b. 4
    c. 5
    d. 6
A

D

34
Q
  1. A patient diagnosed with upper cross syndrome would present with:
    a. Forward head posture
    b. Increased cervical lordosis
    c. Decreased thoracic kyphosis
    d. Protracted shoulders
    e. All of the above
    f. A, B, C only
    g. A, B, D only
    h. A, C, D only
    i. B, C, D only
    j. None of the above
A

G

35
Q
  1. In a patient with scapular overuse syndrome, which of the following statements are true?
    a. There is an increased prevalence in overhead throwing athletes
    b. Tight pectoral muscles are common
    c. Inferior-medial scapular border prominence is likely
    d. Pain commonly occurs deep to the acromion process
    e. All of the above
    f. A, B, C only
    g. A, B, D only
    h. A, C, D only
    i. B, C, D only
    j. None of the above
A

F

36
Q
  1. _________is a softening, absorption, and destruction of bony tissue
A

a. Osteolysis

37
Q
  1. A _________ is a small defect in the articular cartilage of the humeral head associated with an anterior dislocation of the glenohumeral joint.
A

a. Hill-Sachs lesion

38
Q
  1. The coracoclavicular joint is a ______ joint, formed by the binding together of the coracoid process of the scapula and the inferior surface of the clavicle by the coracoclavicular ligament.
A

a. Syndesmosis

39
Q
  1. The _____ bursa may be irritated when repeatedly compressed during the overhand throwing motion.
A

a. Subacromial

40
Q
  1. The _____ nerve is associated with serratus anterior weakness or winged scapula.
A

a. long thoracic

41
Q
  1. True or False: A possible sign of a moderate AC sprain is the inability to abduct the arm or horizontally adduct the arm across the chest without noticeable pain.
A

T

42
Q
  1. True or False: The mechanism of injury for a posterior glenohumeral dislocation is a fall on an outstretched arm that is forced into abduction and external rotation.
A

F

43
Q
  1. True or False: Most direct causes of anterior glenohumeral dislocations are situations in which the arm is forced into abduction and external rotation.
A

T

44
Q
  1. True or False: The subcoracoid bursa cushions the rotator cuff muscles from the overlying bony acromion.
A

F

45
Q
  1. True or False: During the first 90° of humeral elevation, the subclavius and pectoralis major muscle must contract to depress the clavicle 30° to 45° at the SC joint.
A

F

46
Q
  1. True or False: The biceps brachii exerts more force at the shoulder when the forearm is pronated with the elbow flexed.
A

F

47
Q
  1. True or False: Immediate surgical repair of a third-degree AC sprain is recommended to restore normal shoulder function the first year following injury.
A

F

48
Q
  1. True or False: Impingement syndrome is typically seen in individuals younger than 25 years of age.
A

F

49
Q
  1. True or False: Thoracic outlet compression syndrome is often aggravated in overhead rotational stresses while the muscles are loaded.
A

T

50
Q
  1. True or False: A complication from a scapular fracture is scarring and adhesions in the muscles overlying the scapula.
A

T

51
Q
  1. True or False: If the inferior angle of the scapula on the dominant arm is a greater distance from the spine, one should suspect weak rhomboids on the dominant arm side.
A

T

52
Q
  1. True or False: Active movement during an assessment for the shoulder region should always begin with neck motion.
A

T

53
Q
  1. True or False: To perform a MMT of the supraspinatus, the arm is placed in 90° abduction, 60° horizontal adduction, and the glenohumeral joint is externally rotated.
A

F

54
Q
  1. True or False: Closed chain exercises may be performed immediately after injury.
A

T

55
Q
  1. True or False: If untreated, a thoracic outlet compression syndrome could result in thrombophlebitis
A

T

56
Q
  1. True or False: The lesser tubercle is the most common site for proximal humeral fractures.
A

F

57
Q
  1. True or False: The Hawkins-Kennedy test is used to assess multidirectional instability of the shoulder.
A

F

58
Q
  1. True or False: A SLAP lesion may disrupt the attachment of the long head of the biceps tendon.
A

T

59
Q
  1. Following the first inning, a Little League pitcher complains of shoulder pain. He does not recall an acute injury but reports intermittent pain and soreness with activity for the past week. How would you manage this situation?
A

a. The management include: removing the pitcher from the game, applying ice to the painful area, and advising the parents that their son must be seen by a physician before returning to play.

60
Q
  1. A wrestler falls on an outstretched arm and sustains an anterior dislocation of the glenohumeral joint. What is the immediate management for this injury?
A

a. The management includes: checking for a distal pulse at the brachial artery and radial artery; checking for subcutaneous sensation at the axillary nerve; immobilizing the arm and applying ice; transporting to the nearest medical facility (The arm should be immobilized in a comfortable position. In order to prevent unnecessary movement of the humerus, a rolled towel or thin pillow can be placed between the thoracic wall and humerus prior to applying a sling).

61
Q
  1. What is impingement syndrome?
A

a. Impingement syndrome implies an actual mechanical abutment of the rotator cuff and the subacromial bursa against the coracoacromial ligament and acromion. This injury is caused from the force overload to the rotator cuff and bursa that occurs during the abduction, forward flexion, and medial rotation cycle of shoulder movements. In addition to injury to the supraspinatus tendon and subacromial bursa, the glenoid labrum and long head of the biceps brachii may also be injured.

62
Q
  1. At which part of the clavicle do most fractures occur?
A

a. The point at which the clavicle changes shape and contour presents a structural weakness, and the largest number of fractures to the bone occurs at this point.

63
Q
  1. What structures does a type II acromioclavicular sprain involve?
A

a. A rupture of the AC ligament and tear of the coracoclavicular ligament.

CATA exam (33 decks)

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