Chapter 1 Flashcards by walter Maverick

What is the primary goal of the AMLS assessment model?
a) To identify trauma mechanisms
b) To complete an exam quickly
c) To identify and treat life-threatening medical conditions
d) To gather billing information

c) To identify and treat life-threatening medical conditions

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Which of the following is emphasized in the AMLS model?
a) Treating without diagnosis
b) Protocol-driven care only
c) Critical thinking and patient prioritization
d) Bypassing the primary survey

c) Critical thinking and patient prioritization

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The AMLS assessment begins with:
a) A full set of vital signs
b) A general impression and primary survey
c) Obtaining SAMPLE history
d) OPQRST evaluation

b) A general impression and primary survey

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What does the mnemonic OPQRST help evaluate?
a) Trauma mechanism
b) Vital signs
c) Pain or symptom assessment
d) Mental status

c) Pain or symptom assessment

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Which assessment tool provides insight into a patient’s consciousness?
a) SAMPLE
b) OPQRST
c) AVPU
d) ABC

c) AVPU

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Which of the following is most useful to determine perfusion?
a) Heart rate
b) Blood pressure
c) Mental status and skin signs
d) Oxygen saturation

c) Mental status and skin signs

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The primary assessment should identify:
a) The patient’s insurance provider
b) History of present illness
c) Immediate life threats
d) Any recent hospitalizations

c) Immediate life threats

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Which of the following symptoms is a red flag during assessment?
a) Runny nose
b) Low-grade fever
c) Sudden loss of consciousness
d) Mild headache

c) Sudden loss of consciousness

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Why is it important to consider a wide differential diagnosis?
a) To ensure transport
b) To avoid anchoring bias
c) To follow protocols precisely
d) To confirm allergies

b) To avoid anchoring bias

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What does the ‘E’ in SAMPLE stand for?
a) Environment
b) Events leading up to illness or injury
c) Evaluation
d) Edema

b) Events leading up to illness or injury

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The general impression includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Age and sex
b) Chief complaint
c) Mechanism of injury
d) Name of the patient

d) Name of the patient

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A critical component of scene size-up is:
a) Rechecking vitals
b) Determining NOI
c) Performing OPQRST
d) Checking medication bottles

b) Determining NOI

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A patient who moans when you apply painful stimuli is recorded as:
a) Alert
b) Responsive to verbal
c) Responsive to pain
d) Unresponsive

c) Responsive to pain

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What is a primary purpose of reassessment?
a) Finalizing your PCR
b) Monitoring changes in patient condition
c) Gathering billing data
d) Conducting a secondary survey

b) Monitoring changes in patient condition

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Which patients are more likely to have atypical presentations?
a) Pediatric
b) Athletic
c) Geriatric
d) Male

c) Geriatric

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A secondary assessment is indicated when:
a) The patient is critical and unresponsive
b) No obvious complaint exists
c) You’ve completed a SAMPLE history
d) The primary survey is completed and the patient is stable

d) The primary survey is completed and the patient is stable

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What is the BEST indicator of hypoperfusion?
a) Rapid pulse
b) Cool, clammy skin
c) Low oxygen saturation
d) Altered mental status

d) Altered mental status

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Which finding should prompt immediate intervention?
a) Mild pain with exertion
b) Sudden change in LOC
c) History of asthma
d) Stable vital signs

b) Sudden change in LOC

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When should treatment begin in the AMLS approach?
a) After full assessment is complete
b) During transport
c) As soon as life threats are found
d) Only after vitals are taken

c) As soon as life threats are found

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A working diagnosis is:
a) Your final field diagnosis
b) A list of possible causes
c) The most likely explanation used to guide treatment
d) Determined by hospital staff

c) The most likely explanation used to guide treatment

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What should be assessed first in the primary survey?
a) Airway
b) Circulation
c) Mental status
d) Blood pressure

a) Airway

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In which case is a focused assessment most appropriate?
a) Patient is unresponsive
b) Patient has specific localized complaint
c) Trauma with multiple injuries
d) Patient in cardiac arrest

b) Patient has specific localized complaint

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Which factor increases diagnostic error risk?
a) Multiple reassessments
b) Following structured models
c) Relying on a single symptom
d) Using differential diagnosis

c) Relying on a single symptom

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Which of the following is NOT part of the general impression?
a) Work of breathing
b) Chief complaint
c) Pulse quality
d) Patient position

c) Pulse quality

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Why is reassessment critical in unstable patients? a) They tend to exaggerate symptoms b) Hospital treatment is delayed c) Their condition can rapidly worsen d) It satisfies documentation requirements

c) Their condition can rapidly worsen

Which type of reasoning involves building a case from findings to a conclusion? a) Deductive b) Inductive c) Algorithmic d) Protocol-driven

b) Inductive

Which of the following is most indicative of a medical emergency? a) Mild headache b) Bruising c) Sudden confusion d) Previous stroke history

c) Sudden confusion

Why is it important to avoid anchoring bias? a) It reduces time on scene b) It helps confirm vitals c) It narrows your thinking too early d) It ensures protocol compliance

c) It narrows your thinking too early

What is the main purpose of the secondary assessment? a) To determine transport priority b) To find less obvious signs and symptoms c) To obtain billing information d) To recheck vitals

b) To find less obvious signs and symptoms

A reliable indicator of effective oxygenation is: a) Skin temperature b) Pulse rate c) Oxygen saturation d) Respiratory rate

c) Oxygen saturation

Which of the following is a true statement about reassessment? a) It should be skipped if vitals are stable b) It’s only done before transport c) It helps detect subtle changes d) It is completed after documentation

c) It helps detect subtle changes

Which acronym is commonly used to explore causes of altered mental status? a) OPQRST b) AVPU c) SAMPLE d) AEIOU-TIPS

d) AEIOU-TIPS

Which of the following is NOT part of the AEIOU-TIPS mnemonic? a) Trauma b) Infection c) Stroke d) Exercise

d) Exercise

A patient with sudden onset of severe dyspnea should be assessed for: a) GI obstruction b) Pulmonary embolism c) Diabetes d) Stroke

b) Pulmonary embolism

Which of the following is a red flag symptom? a) Mild nausea b) Occasional cough c) Sudden chest pain d) Headache relieved by rest

c) Sudden chest pain

Why is skin temperature assessed in circulation evaluation? a) To assess for fever b) It’s part of AVPU c) It helps determine perfusion d) It replaces the need for a blood pressure

c) It helps determine perfusion

A reassessment interval for an unstable patient should be: a) Every 5 minutes b) Every 15 minutes c) Only when new complaints arise d) Just prior to hospital arrival

a) Every 5 minutes

The AMLS approach emphasizes reassessment because: a) Patients rarely improve b) Protocols change rapidly c) Patient conditions evolve d) It’s a billing requirement

c) Patient conditions evolve

What is the most important component of the primary survey? a) Secondary complaints b) Identification of life threats c) Assessment of history d) Obtaining a Glasgow score

b) Identification of life threats

A patient who is confused and breathing 30 times per minute likely has: a) Stable respiratory status b) Severe anxiety c) Inadequate perfusion d) Normal findings

c) Inadequate perfusion

What is the most common cause of preventable prehospital death? a) Undocumented allergies b) Failure to recognize deterioration c) Delayed documentation d) Transportation errors

b) Failure to recognize deterioration

A patient with an SpO2 of 82%, RR 32, and accessory muscle use likely requires: a) Transport only b) Nebulizer treatment c) Immediate airway management d) Aspirin therapy

c) Immediate airway management

The ‘P’ in AVPU stands for: a) Posture b) Palpation c) Pain d) Pressure

c) Pain

What is a differential diagnosis? a) Your confirmed diagnosis b) A lab test result c) List of potential causes d) A treatment plan

c) List of potential causes

Which is a benefit of a structured assessment approach? a) Faster documentation b) Consistent care delivery c) Less reliance on skills d) Delays treatment decisions

b) Consistent care delivery

In SAMPLE history, 'S' stands for: a) Symptoms b) Stroke history c) Sugar levels d) Secondary complaint

a) Symptoms

Which statement best defines clinical reasoning? a) Applying protocols exactly b) Relying solely on vitals c) Integrating findings to form an impression d) Making decisions based on insurance

c) Integrating findings to form an impression

Which condition could present atypically in elderly patients? a) Migraine b) Appendicitis c) Stroke d) Epilepsy

c) Stroke

Which sign is MOST concerning in a medical patient? a) Alert but anxious b) Confused with unequal pupils c) Warm skin and mild tachycardia d) Complaint of mild pain

b) Confused with unequal pupils

An alert patient with pinpoint pupils and bradypnea likely has: a) Stroke b) Opioid toxicity c) Anxiety d) Asthma

b) Opioid toxicity

Which of the following best represents a red flag symptom? a) Diarrhea for 2 days b) Gradual onset headache c) Chest pain with shortness of breath d) Cough with sputum

c) Chest pain with shortness of breath

Why is a patient’s baseline mental status important to determine? a) It is required for documentation b) To calculate oxygen needs c) It helps identify subtle changes in condition d) It determines hospital destination

c) It helps identify subtle changes in condition

Which of the following tools helps identify a stroke? a) SAMPLE b) Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale c) AEIOU-TIPS d) OPQRST

b) Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale

Which action is appropriate when a patient becomes unresponsive during assessment? a) Continue SAMPLE history b) Repeat primary survey and intervene as needed c) Call for ALS intercept d) Begin chest compressions immediately

b) Repeat primary survey and intervene as needed

What does ‘scene safety’ include? a) Rapid assessment b) Ensuring crew, patient, and bystander safety c) Skipping PPE in medical calls d) Assuming all patients are stable

b) Ensuring crew, patient, and bystander safety

A patient with a rapid onset of hives and hypotension likely has: a) Myocardial infarction b) Heat stroke c) Anaphylaxis d) Hypoglycemia

c) Anaphylaxis

Which component is part of the general impression? a) Pupillary response b) Patient’s posture and distress level c) Capillary refill d) Blood glucose reading

b) Patient’s posture and distress level

What does the mnemonic OPQRST help you assess? a) Past medical history b) Trauma mechanism c) Pain or symptom characteristics d) Vital sign trends

c) Pain or symptom characteristics

What is the role of trending vital signs? a) To guide billing b) To confirm dispatch information c) To evaluate patient progression or deterioration d) To meet protocol

c) To evaluate patient progression or deterioration

In the AVPU scale, a patient who responds to a tap on the shoulder is: a) Alert b) Verbal c) Pain responsive d) Unresponsive

c) Pain responsive

The most reliable indicator of brain perfusion is: a) Blood pressure b) Respiratory rate c) Mental status d) Skin temperature

c) Mental status

What is a key goal of reassessment? a) To identify life threats missed earlier b) To provide backup to the transport crew c) To prepare for documentation d) To determine the chief complaint

a) To identify life threats missed earlier

What is the preferred method for evaluating mental status in children? a) Glasgow Coma Scale b) AVPU scale c) Pediatric Stroke Scale d) SAMPLE history

b) AVPU scale

Which of the following is NOT part of the primary survey? a) Circulation b) Airway c) History taking d) Breathing

c) History taking

Which of these is considered a red flag sign? a) Fever for two days b) Localized pain c) Syncope with exertion d) Minor laceration

c) Syncope with exertion

What does the ‘T’ in AEIOU-TIPS stand for? a) Thirst b) Toxins c) Tachycardia d) Trauma

d) Trauma

Which patient most likely requires rapid transport? a) Alert patient with isolated leg pain b) Patient with GCS of 15 and mild headache c) Confused patient with irregular breathing d) Patient with fever and cough

c) Confused patient with irregular breathing

When using clinical reasoning, you should: a) Focus on the most likely diagnosis only b) Eliminate alternate causes early c) Use a hypothesis to guide assessment and treatment d) Avoid deviation from protocol

c) Use a hypothesis to guide assessment and treatment

What is the best reason for performing a focused assessment? a) It’s quicker b) It saves oxygen c) The patient has a localized complaint d) The patient is unconscious

c) The patient has a localized complaint

What is the next best action after determining a patient is unresponsive and apneic? a) Apply nasal cannula b) Insert a supraglottic airway c) Check for a pulse d) Call for backup

c) Check for a pulse

What does the general impression help determine? a) Differential diagnosis b) Airway placement c) Initial patient acuity and priority d) Protocol pathway

c) Initial patient acuity and priority

Which part of the body is best for assessing skin perfusion? a) Abdomen b) Chest c) Extremities d) Back

c) Extremities

What is an example of a medical condition with atypical presentation in women? a) Stroke b) Cardiac ischemia c) Diabetes d) Appendicitis

b) Cardiac ischemia

Why is reassessment especially important in the prehospital setting? a) EMS providers are often undertrained b) Hospitals require it c) Conditions can rapidly evolve en route d) It replaces the primary assessment

c) Conditions can rapidly evolve en route

What is a common mistake in prehospital medical assessment? a) Doing a full head-to-toe b) Overreliance on vital signs without context c) Documenting too much d) Using structured tools

b) Overreliance on vital signs without context

Which of the following signs should raise concern during a general impression? a) Patient speaking in full sentences b) Warm and dry skin c) Tripod positioning and cyanosis d) Alert and oriented to person

c) Tripod positioning and cyanosis

What is the most appropriate initial intervention for a patient with inadequate breathing? a) Obtain vital signs b) Administer oral glucose c) Provide positive pressure ventilation d) Conduct a head-to-toe assessment

c) Provide positive pressure ventilation

Which situation best describes a red flag scenario? a) Persistent cough for 3 days b) Mild dyspnea with fever c) Chest pain with exertion d) Mild headache relieved with rest

c) Chest pain with exertion

Which vital sign is most likely to change early in a hypoxic patient? a) Heart rate b) Respiratory rate c) Blood pressure d) Temperature

b) Respiratory rate

A normal mental status suggests: a) There is no need to reassess the airway b) Likely normal cerebral perfusion c) Low oxygen saturation d) A high risk of deterioration

b) Likely normal cerebral perfusion

Why should providers avoid relying solely on protocol-based decision making? a) Protocols are often incorrect b) Critical thinking is discouraged c) It may miss atypical presentations d) Hospitals require differential diagnoses

c) It may miss atypical presentations

What is the best reason to obtain a thorough SAMPLE history? a) It is required by billing b) It provides context for your findings c) It replaces physical assessment d) It increases on-scene time

b) It provides context for your findings

Which of the following best describes 'deductive reasoning'? a) Making decisions based on one symptom b) Moving from general principles to specific conclusions c) Avoiding differential diagnosis d) Listing every possible cause

b) Moving from general principles to specific conclusions

What is an important aspect of patient positioning in the AMLS approach? a) Lying flat during assessment b) Supine position for airway protection c) Position of comfort unless contraindicated d) Trendelenburg for all hypotensive patients

c) Position of comfort unless contraindicated

A 65-year-old diabetic patient with slurred speech should be suspected of: a) Appendicitis b) Stroke or hypoglycemia c) Asthma exacerbation d) Sepsis

b) Stroke or hypoglycemia

Which tool would be most useful for determining level of responsiveness? a) AVPU b) SAMPLE c) OPQRST d) AEIOU-TIPS

a) AVPU

Which finding most suggests sepsis? a) Sudden chest pain with clear lungs b) Fever, hypotension, and tachycardia c) Slow heart rate with pale skin d) Seizure activity without trauma

b) Fever, hypotension, and tachycardia

Which component is part of the AMLS initial assessment? a) Complete set of vital signs b) Family medical history c) Primary survey with red flag identification d) Full head-to-toe physical exam

c) Primary survey with red flag identification

What does the 'L' in SAMPLE stand for? a) Last known normal b) Last oral intake c) Location of pain d) Level of consciousness

b) Last oral intake

Which factor should raise concern in a patient presenting with dizziness? a) Dizziness after standing quickly b) Dizziness while lying down c) Dizziness accompanied by slurred speech d) Dizziness improved by water intake

c) Dizziness accompanied by slurred speech

What is a likely cause of altered mental status in a patient with pinpoint pupils? a) Stroke b) Opioid overdose c) Sepsis d) Head trauma

b) Opioid overdose

Why is identifying red flag symptoms important? a) They always require ALS b) They often indicate life-threatening conditions c) They help verify allergies d) They are only seen in trauma

b) They often indicate life-threatening conditions

Which reassessment finding requires immediate attention? a) Increase in blood pressure by 10 mmHg b) Slight increase in respiratory rate c) Change in mental status d) Complaint of fatigue

c) Change in mental status

What is the significance of a working diagnosis? a) It confirms all findings b) It guides immediate treatment decisions c) It is used only in hospital settings d) It replaces full assessment

b) It guides immediate treatment decisions

Why is early intervention critical in the AMLS model? a) It improves documentation b) It reduces reassessment needs c) It improves patient outcomes d) It meets quality metrics

c) It improves patient outcomes

A patient presents with confusion, warm flushed skin, and rapid pulse. You suspect: a) Stroke b) Heat exhaustion c) Sepsis d) Opioid overdose

c) Sepsis

Which element is essential when developing a differential diagnosis? a) Scene size-up b) List of possible conditions based on the patient’s findings c) Pre-arrival dispatch notes d) Oxygen administration

b) List of possible conditions based on the patient’s findings

Why is ongoing reassessment emphasized in AMLS? a) Patients may change en route b) It satisfies protocol c) It increases scene time d) It reduces hospital admission

a) Patients may change en route

Which patient should receive high-priority transport? a) Alert patient with nausea b) Confused patient with rapid respiratory rate c) Stable patient with toe pain d) Patient with chronic back pain

b) Confused patient with rapid respiratory rate

What should you do if a patient’s condition deteriorates en route? a) Notify the receiving facility only b) Document the changes after arrival c) Reassess and update treatment based on findings d) Wait until hospital to adjust treatment

c) Reassess and update treatment based on findings

Chapter 1 Flashcards

(100 cards)