Chapter 2 Flashcards
(150 cards)
1
Q
Which age group is most at risk for foreign body aspiration? A. Adolescents B. Toddlers C. Elderly D. Teenagers
A
B. Toddlers
2
Q
What is the peak cause of adult airway obstruction? A. Food B. Tongue C. Dentures D. Secretions
A
B. Tongue
3
Q
Which condition results from gastric contents entering the lungs and triggering inflammation? A. Pulmonary embolism B. Aspiration pneumonitis C. COPD D. Epiglottitis
A
B. Aspiration pneumonitis
4
Q
What common symptom occurs with peritonsillar abscess? A. Bradycardia B. Painless cough C. Drooling D. Hemoptysis
A
C. Drooling
5
Q
Which bacteria was originally responsible for epiglottitis but is now less common? A. Streptococcus pneumoniae B. H. influenzae type B C. Group A Streptococcus D. MRSA
A
B. H. influenzae type B
6
Q
What treatment is vital before and after intubation in suspected aspiration? A. IV antibiotics B. Aggressive suctioning C. Bagging with 100% O2 D. CPAP
A
B. Aggressive suctioning
7
Q
Which upper airway condition is marked by sudden onset of stridor and drooling in children? A. Tonsillitis B. Croup C. Epiglottitis D. Bronchiolitis
A
C. Epiglottitis
8
Q
What does stridor typically indicate? A. Lower airway obstruction B. Bronchospasm C. Upper airway obstruction D. Pneumothorax
A
C. Upper airway obstruction
9
Q
In anaphylaxis, what immune mediator leads to bronchoconstriction and vasodilation? A. Acetylcholine B. Histamine C. Serotonin D. Dopamine
A
B. Histamine
10
Q
Which condition is characterized by an immune-mediated eosinophilic response? A. COPD B. Asthma C. Pulmonary fibrosis D. Pneumothorax
A
B. Asthma
11
Q
Which disease is often associated with wheezing and a productive cough? A. Emphysema B. Bronchitis C. Pneumonia D. Pulmonary embolism
A
B. Bronchitis
12
Q
What is the best initial treatment for a foreign body obstruction with coughing? A. BVM ventilation B. Heimlich maneuver C. Encourage coughing D. Needle cricothyrotomy
A
C. Encourage coughing
13
Q
Which symptom is characteristic of Ludwig’s angina? A. Pleural effusion B. Hot potato voice C. Submandibular swelling D. Cyanosis
A
C. Submandibular swelling
14
Q
Which upper airway condition is commonly caused by Group A Streptococcus? A. Tonsillitis B. Bronchitis C. Asthma D. Pneumothorax
A
A. Tonsillitis
15
Q
What condition involves a collection of pus behind the pharynx? A. Retropharyngeal abscess B. Peritonsillar abscess C. Epiglottitis D. Anaphylaxis
A
A. Retropharyngeal abscess
16
Q
Which finding is most likely in bacterial tracheitis? A. Silent chest B. Plugging of the ET tube C. Bradycardia D. Barrel chest
A
B. Plugging of the ET tube
17
Q
What is a classic sign of angioedema? A. Rash with itching B. Clear demarcated swelling C. Fever and chills D. Increased mucus production
A
B. Clear demarcated swelling
18
Q
Which treatment is emphasized in upper airway infections? A. Bronchodilators B. Corticosteroids C. Airway management D. Diuretics
A
C. Airway management
19
Q
Which medication class is most beneficial in asthma management? A. Diuretics B. Beta agonists C. Antibiotics D. Antihistamines
A
B. Beta agonists
20
Q
What condition presents with drooling, hot potato voice, and tripod positioning? A. Asthma B. Ludwig’s angina C. Epiglottitis D. Croup
A
C. Epiglottitis
21
Q
Which condition involves hypersensitivity and mast cell degranulation? A. Pneumonia B. Anaphylaxis C. Pneumothorax D. COPD
A
B. Anaphylaxis
22
Q
In asthma treatment, what is the purpose of using BiPAP? A. Deliver corticosteroids B. Prevent gastric distention C. Provide bronchodilators D. Improve ventilation
A
D. Improve ventilation
23
Q
Which treatment should be avoided in asthma to prevent barotrauma? A. Slow ventilatory rate B. CPAP C. Hyperventilation with BVM D. Steroids
A
C. Hyperventilation with BVM
24
Q
Which sign indicates hyperinflation on physical exam in asthma or COPD? A. Dullness to percussion B. Pulsus paradoxus C. Retractions D. Tripod positioning
A
B. Pulsus paradoxus
25
Which airway condition is most likely to complicate intubation due to distorted anatomy? A. Pneumonia B. Ludwig’s angina C. COPD D. Pulmonary embolism
B. Ludwig’s angina
26
Which of the following conditions may present with a 'silent chest'? A. COPD B. Pneumonia C. Severe asthma D. Bronchitis
C. Severe asthma
27
What diagnostic clue supports COPD exacerbation over asthma? A. Sudden onset B. Presence of fever C. Long smoking history D. Normal oxygen saturation
C. Long smoking history
28
What causes the 'pink puffer' appearance in emphysema? A. Cyanosis B. Pursed-lip breathing and cachexia C. Fluid overload D. Clubbing
B. Pursed-lip breathing and cachexia
29
Which physical finding suggests chronic bronchitis? A. Barrel chest B. Polycythemia C. Productive cough D. Stridor
C. Productive cough
30
What is the classic presentation of croup? A. Wheezing and prolonged expiration B. Barking cough and inspiratory stridor C. Tripod positioning and cyanosis D. Productive cough and rales
B. Barking cough and inspiratory stridor
31
What is a common bacterial cause of pneumonia? A. Streptococcus pneumoniae B. Haemophilus influenzae C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae D. All of the above
D. All of the above
32
Which sign indicates consolidation in pneumonia? A. Decreased breath sounds B. Hyperresonance C. Egophony D. Wheezing
C. Egophony
33
What is the most significant risk in patients with pneumonia? A. Dehydration B. Fever C. Hypoxia D. Rash
C. Hypoxia
34
Which population is most at risk for aspiration pneumonia? A. Athletes B. Children C. Stroke patients D. Healthy adults
C. Stroke patients
35
Which lung sound is most likely in pulmonary edema? A. Wheezing B. Rhonchi C. Crackles D. Stridor
C. Crackles
36
Which symptom is least likely in pulmonary embolism? A. Sudden chest pain B. Hemoptysis C. Wheezing D. Shortness of breath
C. Wheezing
37
What is the hallmark sign of pulmonary embolism? A. Chest pain radiating to back B. Refractory hypoxia C. Stridor D. Productive cough
B. Refractory hypoxia
38
Which test is most appropriate in the field to suspect PE? A. Chest X-ray B. EKG C. Capnography D. CT angiogram
C. Capnography
39
Which EKG finding is associated with PE? A. T wave inversion in V1–V3 B. ST elevation C. S1Q3T3 pattern D. Peaked T waves
C. S1Q3T3 pattern
40
Which type of breath sound would you expect in pneumothorax? A. Bilateral rales B. Diminished or absent breath sounds unilaterally C. Inspiratory stridor D. Rhonchi
B. Diminished or absent breath sounds unilaterally
41
What is a late sign of tension pneumothorax? A. Tracheal deviation B. Tachypnea C. Decreased SpO2 D. Anxiety
A. Tracheal deviation
42
What is the preferred prehospital treatment for suspected tension pneumothorax? A. CPAP B. Chest X-ray C. Needle decompression D. Intubation
C. Needle decompression
43
What is the purpose of capnography in respiratory emergencies? A. Measure lung capacity B. Detect airway resistance C. Monitor ventilation status D. Identify pleural effusion
C. Monitor ventilation status
44
Which waveform change indicates bronchospasm on capnography? A. Tall, narrow wave B. Shark-fin appearance C. Flat baseline D. Biphasic waveform
B. Shark-fin appearance
45
What does a sudden drop in ETCO2 suggest? A. Hypoventilation B. Hypercapnia C. Pulmonary embolism or cardiac arrest D. Alkalosis
C. Pulmonary embolism or cardiac arrest
46
Which condition may show wheezing but is not always responsive to bronchodilators? A. Asthma B. CHF C. COPD D. Bronchitis
B. CHF
47
What treatment is NOT recommended for pulmonary embolism prehospital? A. High-flow oxygen B. CPAP C. IV fluids for hypotension D. Anticoagulants
D. Anticoagulants
48
Which patient is at high risk for spontaneous pneumothorax? A. Obese diabetic B. Young tall male smoker C. Asthmatic child D. Elderly woman
B. Young tall male smoker
49
Which is the most dangerous consequence of untreated epiglottitis? A. Fever B. Sepsis C. Airway obstruction D. Dehydration
C. Airway obstruction
50
What best describes the onset of symptoms in a pulmonary embolism? A. Gradual cough and fatigue B. Sudden unexplained dyspnea C. Low-grade fever D. Night sweats
B. Sudden unexplained dyspnea
51
Which sign is most concerning in pediatric respiratory distress? A. Nasal flaring B. Grunting C. Mild wheezing D. Retractions
B. Grunting
52
What is the typical capnography reading in bronchospasm? A. Normal waveform B. Decreased ETCO2 C. Shark-fin pattern D. Flat line
C. Shark-fin pattern
53
Which of the following is a sign of early hypoxia? A. Cyanosis B. Bradycardia C. Restlessness D. Seizure
C. Restlessness
54
What is the mechanism of hypoxia in pulmonary edema? A. Ventilation-perfusion mismatch B. Hyperventilation C. Carbon monoxide poisoning D. Bronchospasm
A. Ventilation-perfusion mismatch
55
Which respiratory condition may present similarly to an MI? A. Croup B. Pulmonary embolism C. Asthma D. Pneumonia
B. Pulmonary embolism
56
Which condition often presents with orthopnea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea? A. COPD B. Pneumonia C. Pulmonary edema D. Asthma
C. Pulmonary edema
57
What is the significance of pursed-lip breathing in COPD? A. Decreases anxiety B. Increases CO2 retention C. Helps improve expiration and gas exchange D. Reduces coughing
C. Helps improve expiration and gas exchange
58
Which structure is involved in Ludwig’s angina? A. Tonsils B. Epiglottis C. Submandibular space D. Vocal cords
C. Submandibular space
59
What finding is most concerning in a patient with asthma? A. Increased wheezing B. Use of accessory muscles C. Silent chest D. Productive cough
C. Silent chest
60
Which disease process leads to a permanent loss of alveolar walls? A. Chronic bronchitis B. Emphysema C. Pneumonia D. Asthma
B. Emphysema
61
Which is a contraindication for CPAP? A. Moderate asthma B. COPD exacerbation C. Decreased level of consciousness D. Pulmonary edema
C. Decreased level of consciousness
62
What condition causes rapid respiratory distress due to fluid leakage into alveoli? A. Pulmonary embolism B. ARDS C. Bronchitis D. Hyperventilation syndrome
B. ARDS
63
What is the hallmark of ARDS? A. Productive cough B. Wheezing C. Non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema D. Bradycardia
C. Non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema
64
Which patient is most likely to develop ARDS? A. Post-stroke B. Post-trauma with aspiration C. Chronic asthma D. Dehydrated child
B. Post-trauma with aspiration
65
Which condition often improves with bronchodilators? A. Pulmonary edema B. Pulmonary embolism C. Asthma D. Pneumonia
C. Asthma
66
Which position should a patient with severe respiratory distress assume? A. Supine B. Trendelenburg C. Tripod D. Left lateral
C. Tripod
67
Which lung sound would be most likely in left-sided heart failure? A. Wheezing B. Stridor C. Crackles D. Rhonchi
C. Crackles
68
What is the primary treatment goal for respiratory failure? A. Control fever B. Reduce anxiety C. Ensure adequate oxygenation and ventilation D. Administer steroids
C. Ensure adequate oxygenation and ventilation
69
What symptom is common in patients with chronic bronchitis? A. Productive cough for ≥3 months/year B. High fever C. Trismus D. Stridor
A. Productive cough for ≥3 months/year
70
What is a red flag symptom in a patient with sore throat and muffled voice? A. Hoarseness B. Drooling C. Cough D. Nasal congestion
B. Drooling
71
What is the hallmark capnography feature of bronchospasm? A. Increased peak height B. Inverted baseline C. Prolonged expiratory upstroke D. Narrow waveform
C. Prolonged expiratory upstroke
72
Which infection is most likely to cause a high-pitched inspiratory stridor in a child? A. Asthma B. Pneumonia C. Croup D. Bronchiolitis
C. Croup
73
What distinguishes asthma from COPD? A. Rapid progression B. Irreversible airway obstruction in asthma C. Reversible airway obstruction in asthma D. Presence of fever in asthma
C. Reversible airway obstruction in asthma
74
Which of the following is a sign of upper airway obstruction? A. Crackles B. Rhonchi C. Stridor D. Wheezing
C. Stridor
75
What finding best supports pneumonia over bronchitis? A. Wheezing B. Productive cough C. Egophony and fever D. Nighttime symptoms
C. Egophony and fever
76
Which airway device is appropriate for a patient with intact gag reflex and respiratory distress? A. OPA B. NPA C. ET tube D. LMA
B. NPA
77
What is a key feature of asthma exacerbation that distinguishes it from pneumonia? A. Fever B. Stridor C. Bronchoconstriction responsive to beta-agonists D. Crackles
C. Bronchoconstriction responsive to beta-agonists
78
What is the most immediate concern in a patient with epiglottitis? A. Fever B. Dehydration C. Airway obstruction D. Vomiting
C. Airway obstruction
79
Which of the following respiratory conditions is typically viral in origin? A. Epiglottitis B. Bacterial pneumonia C. Croup D. Tuberculosis
C. Croup
80
Which capnographic trend might appear during hypoventilation? A. Shark-fin B. Decreased ETCO2 C. Elevated, rounded waveform D. Sudden drop to zero
C. Elevated, rounded waveform
81
What is the earliest sign of airway compromise in a trauma patient? A. Cyanosis B. No breath sounds C. Hoarseness D. Bradypnea
C. Hoarseness
82
Which infection is most commonly associated with barking cough and inspiratory stridor? A. Epiglottitis B. Bronchitis C. Croup D. Pneumonia
C. Croup
83
Which condition should be suspected with sudden-onset dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, and clear lungs? A. Pneumonia B. Pulmonary embolism C. Bronchitis D. Emphysema
B. Pulmonary embolism
84
What is a common auscultation finding in CHF-related pulmonary edema? A. Bilateral wheezing B. Diminished breath sounds C. Rales/crackles D. Pleural rub
C. Rales/crackles
85
Which physical finding is more consistent with COPD than asthma? A. Use of accessory muscles B. Barrel chest C. Audible wheezing D. Prolonged expiratory phase
B. Barrel chest
86
Which of the following is a potential complication of high-flow oxygen in COPD patients? A. Pneumothorax B. Oxygen-induced hypoventilation C. Hyperkalemia D. Tachycardia
B. Oxygen-induced hypoventilation
87
Which medication provides bronchodilation via beta-2 receptor stimulation? A. Albuterol B. Ipratropium C. Epinephrine D. Prednisone
A. Albuterol
88
What capnography value is typically used to guide adequate ventilation? A. 15–25 mmHg B. 25–35 mmHg C. 35–45 mmHg D. 45–60 mmHg
C. 35–45 mmHg
89
Which of the following is a typical sign of bronchiolitis in infants? A. Barking cough B. High-pitched stridor C. Nasal congestion and wheezing D. Rales
C. Nasal congestion and wheezing
90
What is a risk of aggressively bagging an asthmatic patient? A. Gastric reflux B. Improved airway tone C. Barotrauma and air trapping D. Bradycardia
C. Barotrauma and air trapping
91
What is the most critical intervention in anaphylaxis with airway compromise? A. Diphenhydramine B. Albuterol C. Epinephrine IM D. Corticosteroids
C. Epinephrine IM
92
Which condition is associated with decreased breath sounds, tracheal deviation, and JVD? A. CHF B. Asthma C. Tension pneumothorax D. Bronchitis
C. Tension pneumothorax
93
What lung sound is most associated with upper airway obstruction? A. Wheezing B. Stridor C. Crackles D. Rhonchi
B. Stridor
94
Which infection is commonly treated with racemic epinephrine in children? A. Bronchitis B. Epiglottitis C. Croup D. Pneumonia
C. Croup
95
What symptom is most suggestive of retropharyngeal abscess in a child? A. Headache B. Dysphagia and neck stiffness C. Ear pain D. Rhinitis
B. Dysphagia and neck stiffness
96
Which medication class reduces inflammation in asthma and COPD? A. Beta agonists B. Antihistamines C. Corticosteroids D. Diuretics
C. Corticosteroids
97
Which of the following conditions would benefit from positive pressure ventilation? A. Pneumothorax B. COPD with respiratory fatigue C. Asthma with wheezing D. Bronchitis
B. COPD with respiratory fatigue
98
What is the primary goal of CPAP in respiratory distress? A. Increase respiratory rate B. Lower blood pressure C. Recruit alveoli and improve oxygenation D. Sedate the patient
C. Recruit alveoli and improve oxygenation
99
Which symptom differentiates pneumonia from bronchitis? A. Productive cough B. Fever and localized crackles C. Dyspnea D. Wheezing
B. Fever and localized crackles
100
What is a hallmark finding in chronic asthma on lung exam? A. Egophony B. Tactile fremitus C. Hyperresonance D. Dullness to percussion
C. Hyperresonance
101
What is a key physical exam sign in patients with COPD exacerbation? A. Tracheal deviation B. JVD C. Use of accessory muscles D. Epistaxis
C. Use of accessory muscles
102
Which oxygen delivery device is ideal for a conscious COPD patient with mild hypoxia? A. Non-rebreather B. Nasal cannula C. Venturi mask D. CPAP
C. Venturi mask
103
Which of the following describes orthopnea? A. Difficulty breathing at rest B. Difficulty breathing when lying flat C. Increased respiratory rate D. Painful breathing
B. Difficulty breathing when lying flat
104
What clinical finding would most likely indicate pneumonia rather than bronchitis? A. Fever and localized crackles B. Wheezing C. Dyspnea D. Cough without sputum
A. Fever and localized crackles
105
Which condition is most commonly associated with hyperresonance on percussion? A. Pneumonia B. Asthma C. CHF D. Pulmonary embolism
B. Asthma
106
Which breath sound is most indicative of airway narrowing? A. Crackles B. Rhonchi C. Wheezing D. Stridor
C. Wheezing
107
Which emergency airway technique may be needed for complete upper airway obstruction? A. Intubation B. Suctioning C. Needle cricothyrotomy D. CPAP
C. Needle cricothyrotomy
108
Which structure is directly involved in gas exchange? A. Bronchi B. Alveoli C. Trachea D. Larynx
B. Alveoli
109
What is the typical presentation of a pulmonary embolism on auscultation? A. Bilateral crackles B. Diminished breath sounds C. Often clear lung sounds D. Rhonchi
C. Often clear lung sounds
110
Which medication provides rapid relief of acute bronchospasm? A. Prednisone B. Epinephrine C. Albuterol D. Ipratropium
C. Albuterol
111
What symptom is most consistent with respiratory acidosis? A. Hyperventilation B. Slow, shallow respirations C. Anxiety and tachypnea D. Normal ETCO2
B. Slow, shallow respirations
112
Which tool helps differentiate between pulmonary and cardiac causes of dyspnea? A. SpO2 monitor B. Capnography C. EKG D. Chest auscultation
B. Capnography
113
Which pediatric upper airway infection requires cautious handling to avoid agitation? A. Croup B. Epiglottitis C. Asthma D. Bronchiolitis
B. Epiglottitis
114
Which patient would benefit most from CPAP in the prehospital setting? A. Asthma with silent chest B. COPD with mild symptoms C. CHF with pulmonary edema D. Pneumothorax
C. CHF with pulmonary edema
115
What sign on lung exam suggests pleural effusion? A. Hyperresonance B. Decreased tactile fremitus C. Egophony D. Wheezing
B. Decreased tactile fremitus
116
Which of the following is the classic triad for asthma? A. Wheezing, fever, rales B. Bronchospasm, inflammation, mucus production C. Hemoptysis, wheezing, JVD D. Stridor, cyanosis, dyspnea
B. Bronchospasm, inflammation, mucus production
117
Which of the following best indicates effective CPAP treatment? A. Lower respiratory rate and increased SpO2 B. Increased ETCO2 C. Decreased heart rate D. Audible wheezing
A. Lower respiratory rate and increased SpO2
118
Which cause of dyspnea is most likely to present with fever and productive cough? A. PE B. CHF C. Pneumonia D. COPD
C. Pneumonia
119
Which finding supports upper airway obstruction? A. Wheezing B. Rhonchi C. Stridor D. Crackles
C. Stridor
120
Which of the following improves oxygenation in pulmonary edema? A. Albuterol B. Nitroglycerin and CPAP C. Antibiotics D. Fluids
B. Nitroglycerin and CPAP
121
Which of the following is not commonly associated with asthma? A. Dyspnea B. Wheezing C. Stridor D. Cough
C. Stridor
122
Which device can measure ventilation effectiveness continuously in the field? A. Pulse oximeter B. EKG C. Capnography D. Thermometer
C. Capnography
123
What is the most common symptom of chronic bronchitis? A. Intermittent wheezing B. Persistent productive cough C. Stridor D. Chest pain
B. Persistent productive cough
124
What effect does CPAP have on preload? A. Increases preload B. No effect C. Decreases preload D. Only affects afterload
C. Decreases preload
125
Which symptom is least likely in asthma? A. Audible wheezing B. Tripod positioning C. Fever D. Prolonged expiration
C. Fever
126
What does pulsus paradoxus indicate in severe asthma or COPD? A. Hypothermia B. Hypotension with inspiration C. Bradycardia D. Low SpO2 at rest
B. Hypotension with inspiration
127
Which condition is most likely to cause grunting in infants? A. Foreign body obstruction B. Upper airway infection C. Lower respiratory distress D. Hyperventilation
C. Lower respiratory distress
128
Which respiratory condition is often associated with sudden onset of chest pain and dyspnea in a healthy young male? A. COPD B. Tension pneumothorax C. Spontaneous pneumothorax D. Bronchitis
C. Spontaneous pneumothorax
129
Which feature is most specific to asthma compared to COPD? A. Progressive and irreversible symptoms B. Sudden onset and reversibility C. Cyanosis D. Clubbing
B. Sudden onset and reversibility
130
What is a typical sign of respiratory muscle fatigue? A. Increased breath sounds B. Silent chest C. Bradycardia D. Abdominal breathing
D. Abdominal breathing
131
Which of the following best describes bronchiolitis? A. Lower airway inflammation in infants B. Upper airway bacterial infection C. Viral croup D. Recurrent pneumonia
A. Lower airway inflammation in infants
132
What condition might cause retractions in pediatric patients? A. Bronchospasm B. Hyperventilation C. Nasal congestion D. Fatigue
A. Bronchospasm
133
Which feature distinguishes asthma from CHF in the prehospital setting? A. Presence of wheezing B. Response to bronchodilators C. Tachypnea D. Cyanosis
B. Response to bronchodilators
134
Which is the correct ETCO2 range for effective ventilation? A. 10–20 mmHg B. 20–30 mmHg C. 35–45 mmHg D. 45–55 mmHg
C. 35–45 mmHg
135
Which capnography finding is consistent with return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC)? A. Sudden drop to zero B. Flat waveform C. Sharp rise in ETCO2 D. Shark-fin
C. Sharp rise in ETCO2
136
What is the best position for a conscious patient in respiratory distress? A. Supine B. Trendelenburg C. Upright or semi-Fowler’s D. Left lateral
C. Upright or semi-Fowler’s
137
What does trismus suggest in a patient with a sore throat and fever? A. Allergic reaction B. Epiglottitis C. Retropharyngeal or peritonsillar abscess D. Bronchitis
C. Retropharyngeal or peritonsillar abscess
138
Which condition presents with fine crackles at the lung bases? A. Asthma B. Emphysema C. Pulmonary edema D. Bronchitis
C. Pulmonary edema
139
Which medication is most appropriate in acute bronchospasm? A. Diphenhydramine B. Albuterol C. Nitroglycerin D. Epinephrine IM
B. Albuterol
140
Which of the following is an obstructive airway disease? A. Pneumonia B. Emphysema C. ARDS D. Pulmonary embolism
B. Emphysema
141
Which sign may precede complete airway obstruction in Ludwig's angina? A. Wheezing B. Neck stiffness C. Submandibular swelling D. Cough
C. Submandibular swelling
142
What is a risk of using BVM with excessive tidal volume in asthma patients? A. Hyperoxia B. Barotrauma and worsening air trapping C. Tachycardia D. Vasodilation
B. Barotrauma and worsening air trapping
143
What does a 'hot potato voice' most likely indicate? A. Acute epiglottitis B. Asthma C. Laryngitis D. Bronchiolitis
A. Acute epiglottitis
144
Which diagnostic tool helps assess ventilation in the prehospital setting? A. Blood pressure cuff B. EKG C. Capnography D. Pulse oximetry
C. Capnography
145
Which condition presents with dyspnea, chest pain, and clear lungs on auscultation? A. Bronchitis B. Pulmonary embolism C. Pneumonia D. CHF
B. Pulmonary embolism
146
Which medication class reduces bronchial inflammation in asthma? A. Diuretics B. Beta agonists C. Corticosteroids D. Antihistamines
C. Corticosteroids
147
Which respiratory condition is commonly triggered by exercise or allergens? A. Pneumonia B. Bronchitis C. Asthma D. CHF
C. Asthma
148
What finding best distinguishes pneumonia from asthma? A. Presence of wheezing B. Productive cough with fever and localized crackles C. Tripod position D. Cyanosis
B. Productive cough with fever and localized crackles
149
Which upper airway condition may require advanced airway placement due to swelling? A. Asthma B. COPD C. Epiglottitis D. Bronchitis
C. Epiglottitis
150
What condition presents with elevated ETCO2 and a shark-fin waveform? A. Pulmonary embolism B. Bronchospasm C. CHF D. Pneumonia
B. Bronchospasm
