Chapter 1,2,3 Flashcards

(143 cards)

1
Q

advanced lifesaving procedures, some of which are now being provided by the EMT

A

advanced life support (ALS)

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2
Q

comprehensive legislation that is designed to protect individuals with disabilities against discrimination

A

American With Disabilities ACT (ADA)

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3
Q

a device that detects treatable life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias (ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia) and delivers the appropriate electrical shock to the patient

A

automated external defibrillator (AED)

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4
Q

a process in which a person, an institution, or a program is evaluated and recognized as meeting certain predetermined standards to provide safe and ethical care

A

certification

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5
Q

a system of internal and external reviews and audits of all aspects of an EMS system

A

continuous quality improvement (CQI)

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6
Q

the first trained individual, such as a police officer, fire fighter, lifeguard, or other rescuer, to arrive at the scene of an emergency to provide initial medical assistance

A

emergency medical responder (EMR)

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7
Q

a multidisciplinary system that represents the combined efforts of several professionals and agencies to provide prehospital emergency care to the sick and injured

A

emergency medical services (EMS)

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8
Q

an individual who has training in basic life support, including automated external defibrillation, use of a definitive airway adjunct, and assisting patients with certain medications

A

emergency medical technician (EMT)

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9
Q

federal legislation passed in 1996; its main effect in EMS is in limiting of availability of patients’ health care information and penalizing violations of patient privacy

A

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPPA)

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10
Q

the delivery of medication directly into a vein

A

intravenous (IV) therapy

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11
Q

physician instructions that are given directly by radio or cell phone (online/direct) or indirectly by protocol/guidelines (off-line/indirect), as authorized by the medical director of the service program

A

medical control

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12
Q

the physician who authorizes or delegates to the EMT the authority to provide medical care in the field

A

medical director

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13
Q

efforts to prevent an injury from ever occurring

A

primary prevention

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14
Q

focused on examining the health needs of entire populations with the goal of preventing health problems

A

public health

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15
Q

an individual who has training in specific aspects of advanced life support, such as intravenous therapy, and the administration of certain emergency medicines

A

advanced EMT (AEMT)

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16
Q

a system that assists dispatchers in selecting appropriate units to respond to a particular call for assistance and in providing callers with vital instructions until the arrival of EMS crews

A

emergency medical dispatch (EMD)

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17
Q

the process whereby a competent authority, usually the state, allows individuals to perform a regulated act

A

licensure

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18
Q

a document created by the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) that outlines the skills performed by various EMT providers

A

National EMS Scope of Practice Model

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19
Q

an individual who has extensive training in advanced life support, including endotracheal intubation, emergency pharmacology cardiac monitoring, and other advanced assessment and treatment skills

A

paramedic

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20
Q

the designated area in which the EMS service is responsible for the provision of prehospital emergency care and transportation to the hospital

A

primary service area (PSA)

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21
Q

the responsibility of the medical director to ensure that the appropriate medical care standards are met by EMTs on each call

A

quality control

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22
Q

a call center, staffed by trained personnel who are responsible for managing requests for police, firefighting, and ambulance services

A

public safety access point

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23
Q

efforts to limit the effects of an injury or illness that you cannot completely prevent

A

secondary prevention

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24
Q

a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small, harmful organisms within the body

A

infectious disease

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25
reaction to stress that occurs during a stressful situation
acute stress reactions
26
the spread of an organism in aerosol form
airborne transmission
27
pathogenic microorganisms that are present in human blood and can cause disease in humans. These pathogens include, but are not limited to, hepatitis B virus and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
bloodborne pathogens
28
the primary federal agency that conducts and supports public health activities in the US; part of the US Department of Health and Human Services
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
29
a disease that can be spread from one person or species to another
communicable disease
30
the presence of infectious organisms or foreign bodies on or in objects such as dressings, water, food, needles, wounds, or a patient's body
contamination
31
the tactical use of an impenetrable barrier for protection
cover and concealment
32
a process that confronts the responses to critical incidents and defuses them, directing the emergency services personnel toward physical and emotional equilibrium
critical incident stress management (CISM)
33
prolonged or excessive stress
cumulative stress reactions
34
reaction to stress that occurs after a stressful situation
delayed stress reaction
35
the individual in the department who is charged with the responsibility of managing exposures and infection control issues
designated officer
36
exposure or transmission of a communicable disease from one person to another by physical contact
direct contact
37
a situation in which a person has had contact with blood, body fluids, tissues, or airborne particles in a manner that suggests disease transmission may occur
exposure
38
the contamination of food or water with an organism that can cause disease
foodborne transmission
39
the body's response to stress that begins with an alarm response, followed by a stage of reaction and resistance, and then recovery or, if the stress is prolonged, exhaustion
general adaptation syndrome
40
inflammation of the liver, usually caused by a viral infection, that causes fever, loss of appetite, jaundice, fatigue, and altered liver function
hepatits
41
the organism or individual that is attacked by the infecting agent
host
42
acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is caused by HIV, which damages the cells in the body's immune system so that the body is unable to fight infection or certain cancers
human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
43
the body's ability to protect itself from acquiring a disease
immune
44
exposure or transmission of disease from one person to another by contact with a contaminated object
indirect contact
45
the abnormal invasion of a host or host tissues by organisms such as bacteria, viruses, or parasites, with or without signs or symptoms of disease
infection
46
procedures to reduce transmission of infection among patients and health care personnel
infection control
47
the federal regulatory compliance agency that develops, publishes, and enforces guidelines concerning safety in the workplace
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
48
a microorganism that is capable of causing disease in a susceptible host
pathogen
49
clothing or specialized equipment that provides protection to the wearer
personal protective equipment (PPE)
50
a delayed stress reaction to a prior incident. The delayed reaction is often the result of one or more unresolved issues concerning the incident
posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
51
protective measures that have traditionally been developed by the CDC for use in dealing with objects, blood, body fluids, and other potential exposure risks of communicable disease
standard precautions
52
the way in which an infectious disease is spread: contact, airborne, by vehicles, or by vectors
transmission
53
the use of an animal to spread an organism from one person or place to another
vector-borne transmission
54
unilateral termination of care by the EMT without the patient's consent and without making provisions for transferring care to another medical professional with the skills and training necessary to meet the needs of the patient
abandonment
55
written documentation that specifies medical treatment for a competent patient should the patient become unable to make decisions; also called a living will or health care directive
advance directive
56
the manner in which principles of ethics are incorporated into professional conduct
applied ethics
57
unlawfully placing a patient in fear of bodily harm
assault
58
touching a patient or providing emergency care without consen
battery
59
the study of ethics related to issues that arise in health care
bioethics
60
disclosure of information without proper authorization
breach of confidentiality
61
damages awarded in a civil suit that are intended to restore the plaintiff to the same condition that he or she was in prior to the incident complained about in the lawsuit
compensatory damages
62
able to make rational decisions about personal well-being
competent
63
permission to render care
consent
64
a legal defense that may be raised when the defendant feels that the conduct of the plaintiff somehow contributed to any injuries or damages that were sustained by the plaintiff
contributory negligence
65
ability to understand and process information and make a choice regarding appropriate medical care
decision-making capacity
66
the communication of false information about a person that is damaging to that person's reputation or standing in the community
defamation
67
blood settling to the lowest point of the body, causing discoloration of the skin
dependent lividity
68
oral questions asked of parties and witnessed under oath
depositions
68
the phase of a civil suit where the plaintiff and defense obtain information from each other that will enable the attorneys to have a better understanding of the case, which will assist them in negotiating a possible settlement or in preparing for trial; includes depositions, interrogatories, and demands for production of records
discovery
69
written documentation by a physician giving permission to medical personnel to not attempt resuscitation in the event of cardiac arrest
do not resuscitate (DNR) orders
70
a type of advance directive executed by a competent adult that appoints another individual to make medical treatment decisions on his or her behalf in the event that the person making the appointment loses decision-making capacity
durable power of attorney for health care
71
a medicolegal term relating to certain personnel who either by statute or by function have a responsibility to provide care
duty to act
71
a person who is under the legal age in a given state but, because of other circumstances, is legally considered an adult
emancipated minors
72
the principle of law that permits a health care provider to treat a patient in an emergency situation when the patient is incapable of granting consent because of an altered level of consciousness, disability, the effects of drugs or alcohol, or the patient's age
emergency doctrine
72
a serious situation, such as injury or illness, that threatens the life or welfare of a person or group of people and requires immediate intervention
emergency
73
immediate care or treatment
emergency medical care
74
the philosophy of right and wrong, of moral duties, and of ideal professional behavior
ethics
75
a type of consent in which a patient gives express authorization for provision of care or transort
expressed consent
76
the confinement of a person without legal authority or the person's consent
false imprisonment
77
the act of physically preventing an individual from initiating any physical action
forcible restraint
78
statutory provisions enacted by many states to protect citizens from liability for errors and omissions in giving good faith emergency medical care, unless there is wanton, gross, or willful negligence
Good Samaritan laws
79
if your service is covered by immunity, it may mean that you cannot be sued or it may limit the amount of the monetary judgement that the plaintiff may recover; generally applies only to EMS services that are operated by municipalities or other governmental entities
governmental immunity
80
conduct that constitutes a willful or reckless disregard for a duty or standard of care
gross negligence
81
a written document that specifies medical treatment for a competent patient, should he or she become unable to make decisions; also known as an advance directive or a living will
health care directive
82
a type of advance directive executed by a competent adult that appoints another individual to make medical treatment decisions on his or her behalf in the event that the person making the appointment loses decision-making capacity; a.k.a. a durable power of attorney for health care
health care proxies
83
type of consent in which a patient who is unable to give consent is given treatment under the legal assumption that he or she would want treatment
implied consent
84
refers to the legal responsibility of a person or organization to take on some of the functions and responsibilities of a parent
in loco parentis
85
permission for treatment given by a competent patient after the potential risks, benefits, and alternatives to treatment have been explained
informed consent
86
written questions that the defense and plaintiff send to one another
interrogatories
87
the seizing, confining, abducting, or carrying away of a person by force, including transporting a competent adult for medical treatment without his or her consent
kidnapping
88
false and damaging information about a person that is communicated in writing
libel
89
the process whereby a competent authority, usually the state, allows individuals to perform a regulated act
licensure
90
a term relating to medical law or forensic medicine
medicolegal
91
a code of conduct that can be defined by society, religion, or a person, affecting character, conduct, and conscience
morality
92
failure to provide the care that a person with similar training would provide
negligence
93
a theory that may be used when the conduct of the person being sued is alleged to have occurred in clear violation of a statute
negligence per se
94
the right of a patient to make informed choices regarding his or her health care
patient autonomy
95
basing current action on lessons, rules, or guidelines derived from previous similar experiences
precedence
96
any information about health status, provision of health car, or payment for health care that can be linked to an individual; this is interpreted rather broadly and includes any part of a patient's medical record or payment history
protected health information (PHI)
97
damages that are sometimes awarded in a civil suit when the conduct of the defendant was intentional or constituted a reckless disregard for the safety of the public
punitive damages
97
when a person who has a duty abuses it, and causes harm to another individual; the EMT, the agency, and/or the medical director may be sued to negligence
proximate causation
98
decomposition of body tissues
putrefaction
99
when the EMT or an EMS service is held liable even when the plaintiff is unable to clearly demonstrate how an injury occured
res ipsa loquitor
100
stiffening of the body; a definitive sign of death
rigor mortis
101
most commonly defined by state law; outlines the care you are able to provide for the patient
scope of practice
102
false and damaging information about a person that is communicated by the spoken word
slander
103
written, accepted levels of emergency care expected by reason of training and profession; written by legal or professional organizations so that patients are not exposed to unreasonable risk or harm
standard of care
104
the time in which a case must be commenced
statute of limitations
105
a wrongful act that gives rise to a civil suit
tort
106
A healthcare model in which experience paramedics receive advanced training to equip them to provide additional services in the pre-hospital environment such as health evaluations, monitoring of chronic illness or conditions in patient advocacy
community paramedicine
107
And establish process to determine the qualifications necessary to be allowed to practice a particular profession or to function as an organization
credentialing
108
And approach the medicine where decisions are based on well conducted research classifying recommendations based on the strength of the scientific evidence also called science based medicine
Evidence based medicine EBM
109
A method of delivering healthcare that involves providing healthcare within the community rather than at a physicians office or hospital
Mobile integrated healthcare MIH
110
Documentation that specifies medical treatment for a competent patient should the patient become unable to make decisions also called the living will or healthcare directive
Advanced directive
111
Cooling of the body after death until the matches the ambient temperature
algor mortis
112
Treatments that increase the risk for transmission of infections that are spread through the air of droplets CPR is an example
Aerosol generating procedure
113
A combination of exhaustion CYNICISM and reduce performance resulting from long-term stresses in healthcare and other high stress professions
Burn out
114
Stress disorder characterized by gradual lessening of compassion overtime
Compassion fatigue
115
The use of objects to limit a persons ability to see you
Concealment
116
The presence of infectious organisms on or in object such as dressing, water, food, needles, wounds, or patient body
Contamination
117
Tactical use of impenetrable barrier for protection
Cover
118
A negative response to a stressor
Distress
119
A beneficial response to a stressor
eustress
120
Inflammation of the liver, usually caused by a viral infection, that causes fever, loss of appetite, fatigue, and altered liver function, jaundice
Hepatitis
121
They use an animal to spread an organ organism from one person to another
Vectorborne transmission
122
The active pursuit of a state of good health
Wellness
123
Scopes of practice Airway/ventilation/oxygen skills Paramedic (4)
1.)Endotracheal intubation 2.) Airway obstruction removal by direct laryngoscopy 3.)Cricothyrotomy 4.) High- flow nasal cannula
124
Scopes of practice Airway/ventilation/oxygen skills a EMT (3)
1.) Supraglottic airway 2.) tracheobronchial suctioning 3.) ETC02 Monitoring
125
Scopes of practice Airway/ventilation/oxygen skills EMT (4)
1.) Nasal airway 2.) CPAP 3.) Pulse oximetry 4.) Oxygen humidifiers
126
Scopes of practice Airway/ventilation/oxygen skills EMR (4)
1.) Oral airway 2.) Bag mask device 3.) Upper airway suctioning 4.) Nasal canal
127
Who can perform this at the lowest level?
128
Scopes of practice Cardiovascular/Circulation skills Paramedic (2)
1.) Cardioversion, electrical 2.) Manual defibrillation
129
Scopes of practice Cardiovascular/Circulation skills EMT (2)
1.) Mechanical CPR 2.) telemetry monitoring
130
Scopes of practice Cardiovascular/Circulation skills EMR (2)
1.) Manual CPR 2.) Auto/semi-auto defibrillation
131
Scopes of practice Medication Administration Routes Paramedic (2)
1.) Transdermal 2.) Rectal
132
Scopes of practice Cardiovascular/Circulation skills AEMT (2)
1.) Intravenous 2.) subcutaneous
133
Scopes of practice Cardiovascular/Circulation skills EMT (2)
1.) Oral 2.) Sublingual
134
Scopes of practice Cardiovascular/Circulation skills EMR (2)
1.) Intramuscular auto injector 2.) Internasal (premeasured)
135
Who can perform this at the lowest level?
136
Who can perform this at the lowest level?
137
Who can perform this at the lowest level?
138
Who can perform this at the lowest level?
139
Who can perform this at the lowest level?