Chapter 1 - Introduction & Chapter 2 - Current Paradigms Flashcards
(211 cards)
1
Q
The ‘Malleus Maleficarum’ was a
Select one:
A. ceremonial guide used by witches.
B. Freudian perspective on mental illness.
C. treatment manual used in early mental hospitals.
D. witch hunt manual.
A
D. witch hunt manual.
2
Q
The best definition of “mental disorder” takes all of the following into account EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. Syndromes
b. Violation of social norms
c. Disability
d. Personal distress
A
a. Syndromes
3
Q
The psychoanalytic theory rests upon the assumption that psychopathology is the result of
Select one:
a. ego defense mechanisms.
b. over control of the pleasure principle.
c. incomplete superego development.
d. unconscious conflicts.
A
d. unconscious conflicts.
4
Q
The ego operates according to the __________ principle.
Select one:
a. reality
b. Electra
c. pleasure
d. Oedipal
A
a. reality
5
Q
The basic energy source for the psyche is the
Select one:
a. Oedipus complex.
b. id.
c. superego.
d. ego.
A
b. id.
6
Q
Adler developed a theory of psychoanalytic thought oriented towards
Select one:
a. psychoticism.
b. doing things for the social good.
c. overt behavior change.
d. all of the above.
A
b. doing things for the social good.
7
Q
Fiona faints when her doctor begins to draw blood. What is the unconditioned response?
Select one:
a. blood
b. fainting
c. blood flow
d. the needle
A
b. fainting
8
Q
When discussing heritability it is important to keep in mind all of the following EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. heritability estimates range from 0.0 to 1.0.
b. the higher the heritability value, the greater the heritability.
c. heritability is relevant for a particular individual.
d. heritability is relevant for large populations.
A
c. heritability is relevant for a particular individual.
9
Q
A phenotype is illustrated by which of the following?
Select one:
a. Lisa’s chromosomes.
b. Lisa’s DNA structure.
c. Lisa’s eye colour.
d. Lisa’s mother’s hair colour
A
c. Lisa’s eye colour.
10
Q
A CNV is an abnormal copy of one or more sections of DNA. They occur due to all of the following EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. deletion of copies
b. addition of copies
c. mutation of copies
d. multiplication of copies
A
d. multiplication of copies
11
Q
The study of the pups born to high LG-ABN mothers or low LG-ABN mothers and raised by high LG-ABN mothers or low LG-ABN mothers provided support for the idea that
Select one:
a. adoption studies are a useful method for understanding genetic markers.
b. environments influence the expression of genes in psychopathology.
c. LG-ABN behaviours in mothers are not related to the expression of certain genes in pups.
d. environments do not play as important a role as genetics.
A
b. environments influence the expression of genes in psychopathology.
12
Q
Nick was born with a predisposition for aggression and impulsivity that has resulted in frequent trouble with the law. As a result of time spent in jail, Nick has developed alcohol dependence. This is an example of
Select one:
a. epigenetics.
b. reciprocal gene-environment interaction.
c. gene-environment interaction.
d. linkage analysis.
A
b. reciprocal gene-environment interaction.
13
Q
Neurotransmitters are chemical substances that
Select one:
a. repair neurons.
b. allow nerve impulses to reach the next neuron.
c. adjust the speed of neural transmissions.
d. let neurons adjust their sensitivity to new inputs.
A
b. allow nerve impulses to reach the next neuron.
14
Q
The autonomic nervous system is divided into two parts:
Select one:
a. the involuntary nervous system and the sympathetic nervous system.
b. the sympathetic nervous system and the somatic nervous system.
c. the somatic nervous system and the involuntary nervous system.
d. the sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system.
A
d. the sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system.
15
Q
Fred has schizophrenia and is taking a medication that works by blocking dopamine receptors. Fred is most likely taking which kind of drug?
Select one:
a. an antagonist
b. a second messenger
c. an agonist
d. an antidepressant
A
a. an antagonist
16
Q
The gray matter in the brain is made up of
Select one:
a. meninges.
b. fissures.
c. neurons.
d. sulci.
A
c. neurons.
17
Q
The thalamus is the part of the brain which
Select one:
a. recognizes spatial relations.
b. regulates body temperature and blood pressure.
c. controls movement.
d. relays sensory pathways for hearing and vision.
A
d. relays sensory pathways for hearing and vision.
18
Q
Jane is afraid of elevators. Her psychologist, Dr. Schwartz, teaches her how to relax deeply. Then Dr. Schwartz helps her develop a list of situations with elevators that vary in how frightening or anxiety- producing they are. Finally, while relaxed, Jane imagines the series of situations with elevators. Eventually Jane is able to tolerate imagining increasingly more difficult situations in elevators such as riding an elevator 100 floors alone. By the end of the 16th therapy session, Jane states that her fear of elevators has disappeared. Dr. Schwartz used
Select one:
a. brief psychodynamic therapy.
b. token economy.
c. systematic desensitization.
d. ego analysis.
A
c. systematic desensitization.
19
Q
Ted is a “workaholic;” he works 15 hours a day and never has time to spend with his family or on things he enjoys. Which of the following is a cognitive explanation of Ted’s behavior?
Select one:
a. Ted is imitating the behavior of his hard-working father.
b. Ted believes he can only be a good person if he excels in everything he does.
c. Ted lacks the assertiveness to stand up to his boss’ demands.
d. Ted is actually afraid of getting close to others.
A
b. Ted believes he can only be a good person if he excels in everything he does.
20
Q
The diathesis-stress paradigm emphasizes that psychopathology results from
Select one:
a. predisposition and environmental disturbances.
b. attachment and gestalt problems.
c. predisposition and the unconscious.
d. physiology and biochemistry.
A
a. predisposition and environmental disturbances.
21
Q
- The textbook chapter opens with a clinical case study about Jack, a young man who had been diagnosed with schizophrenia. In the scenario, Jack applied to get an apartment and the landlord
a) accepted him as long as he was on his medication.
b) denied him the apartment because he thought Jack might be violent.
c) denied him the apartment because Jack would be unsupervised.
d) accepted him as long as he had a guardian to look after him.
A
b) denied him the apartment because he thought Jack might be violent.
22
Q
The textbook chapter opens with a clinical case study about Felicia. In this scenario Felicia had very few friends and was often teased. What was it that eventually made her life easier?
a) Felicia was diagnosed as having ADHD and received effective treatment.
b) Felicia was taught to keep her mouth shut during class.
c) Felicia was diagnosed as having schizophrenia and was successfully treated and cured.
d) Felicia was transferred to a school for those with behavioral disorders.
A
a) Felicia was diagnosed as having ADHD and received effective treatment.
23
Q
The field concerned with the nature, development, and treatment of psychological disorders is called
a) psychopathology
b) psychotherapy
c) psychoanalysis
d) all of the above
A
a) psychopathology
24
Q
Students often have __________, which makes it difficult to remain objective when learning about psychopathology.
a) diagnoses
b) fears
c) insecurities
d) preconceived notions
A
d) preconceived notions
25
The destructive beliefs and attitudes held by a society that are ascribed to groups considered different in some manner, such as people with psychological illness, are called
a) disorders
b) stigmas.
c) typecasts
d) discriminative categories.
b) stigmas.
26
6. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of stigma?
a) A label applied to a group of people that distinguishes them from others.
b) A label applied to a group of people that breaks the law.
c) The label is linked to deviant or undesirable attributes by society.
d) People with the label face unfair discrimination.
b) A label applied to a group of people that breaks the law.
27
The 1996 __________ required that insurance companies cover mental illness at the same level as other illnesses.
a) Federal Mental Health Parity Act
b) Paul Wellstone Mental Health Parity Act
c) Addiction Equity Act
d) Americans with Disabilities Act
a) Federal Mental Health Parity Act
28
Which of the following acts is (are) the closest we have gotten to true parity?
a) Federal Mental Health Parity Act
b) Paul Wellstone Mental Health Parity Act
c) Addiction Equity Act
d) both b and c
d) both b and c
29
Which of the following is (are) our best hope for reducing the stigma against those diagnosed with a psychological disorder?
a) Increase contact
b) Increase education
c) Increase equality legislation
d) All of the above
d) All of the above
30
Which of the following is NOT an organization established to educate and offer support to those diagnosed with a psychological disorder?
a) National Alliance on Mental Illness
b) Mind Freedom
c) Patients Like Me
d) Mad4Life
d) Mad4Life
31
The best definition of mental disorder takes all of the following into account EXCEPT:
a) personal distress.
b) violation of social norms.
c) disability.
d) syndromes.
d) syndromes.
32
Defining mental disorder on the basis of personal distress is problematic for which reason?
a) High levels of distress and suffering are normal in modern society.
b) Some mental disorders do not involve personal distress.
c) It ignores the suffering that family members of disturbed people experience.
d) It does not apply to physiological disorders.
b) Some mental disorders do not involve personal distress.
33
Which is a limitation of “harmful dysfunction” as a definition of mental disorder?
a) It ignores the personal suffering of disturbed individuals.
b) Many dysfunctional mechanisms are not harmful.
c) Harmful dysfunction also has an impact on others.
d) The dysfunctional mechanisms are largely unknown
d) The dysfunctional mechanisms are largely unknown
34
The DSM-5’s definition of “mental disorder” involves all of the following criteria EXCEPT that it:
a) occurs within multiple individuals.
b) involves dysfunction.
c) is not primarily a result of social deviance.
d) is not culturally specific reaction to an event.
a) occurs within multiple individuals.
35
Cindy is an accomplished lawyer who sought psychological help in dealing with the stresses of balancing work and family responsibilities. Which definition of mental disorder applies to Cindy?
a) harmful dysfunction.
b) violation of social norms.
c) personal distress.
d) disability.
c) personal distress.
36
After presenting characteristics of mental disorder, the text concludes that
a) research is needed to identify which characteristic is best.
b) different characteristics apply to various psychopathologies.
c) personal distress is the most useful characteristic.
d) together the characteristics give a comprehensive definition of abnormality.
d) together the characteristics give a comprehensive definition of abnormality.
37
Demonology is the
a) . use of witchcraft to control the world around you.
b) devil worship and satanic cults that some believed to cause mental illness.
c) the idea that an evil being may live in a person and control his or her mind and body.
d) the practice of drilling a hole in a person’s head to allow evil spirits to escape.
c) the idea that an evil being may live in a person and control his or her mind and body.
38
Hippocrates’ early views on mental health contributed to an enduring emphasis on
a) natural causes.
b) spirituality.
c) humors.
d) classification.
a) natural causes.
39
Hippocrates suggested which of the following treatments for mental illness?
a) trephining
b) flogging
c) prayer and chants by faith healers.
d) care in choosing food and drink.
d) care in choosing food and drink.
40
Hippocrates influenced psychology by
a) distinguishing medicine from religion and magic.
b) debunking the notion that the four humors were related to disorders.
c) reforming mental hospitals.
d) suggesting that mental illness was punishment from God.
a) distinguishing medicine from religion and magic.
41
Which of the following best describes treatment of disordered people during the Dark Ages?
a) Monks in monasteries prayed over them.
b) They were chained in early asylums.
c) They were condemned as witches and tortured.
d) They were given bed rest, fed simple foods, and forced to subscribe to clean living.
a) Monks in monasteries prayed over them.
42
Edith was accused of being a witch in 1532. She most likely lived in
a) Russia.
b) China.
c) Europe.
d) Japan.
c) Europe
43
The ‘Malleus Maleficarum’ was a
a) witch-hunt manual.
b) ceremonial guide used by witches.
c) treatment manual used in early mental hospitals.
d) Freudian perspective on mental illness.
a) witch-hunt manual.
44
Which of the following suggests that many “witches” condemned during the Inquisition were, in fact, mentally disordered individuals?
a) The inquisitors themselves read letters from witches.
b) The witches were typically from lower social classes.
c) The witches “confessed” to delusions and hallucinations.
d) The witches were labeled insane by the courts of the times.
c) The witches “confessed” to delusions and hallucinations.
45
A detailed re-examination of the witch hunts during the Middle Ages revealed that
a) Most of the accused were not mentally ill.
b) Mental illness was more common during that time period.
c) Most witches were psychotic.
d) Many more men than women were accused, tortured and put to death.
a) Most of the accused were not mentally ill.
46
The word ‘lunacy’ comes from a theory espoused by Paracelsus, who attributed odd behavior to
a) the effects of a full moon.
b) drinking witches’ brew.
c) a misalignment of the moon and stars.
d) witchcraft.
c) a misalignment of the moon and stars.
47
Early asylums were developed
a) for the confinement and care of the mentally ill.
b) to protect people from witch hunts.
c) after the discovery of syphilis.
d) centuries before leprosy hospitals.
a) for the confinement and care of the mentally ill.
48
Bedlam
a) originated from observations of ritualistic chantings of ‘witches.’
b) was a common practice of witches that involved trances and casting spells.
c) is the term associated with the chaotic conditions at early asylums.
d) is the practice of prescribing total bed rest for mentally ill people.
c) is the term associated with the chaotic conditions at early asylums.
49
In 1791, John was committed to an asylum in the United States. Which treatment was he likely to experience there?
a) group therapy
b) bloodletting
c) moral treatment
d) hypnosis
b) bloodletting
50
Who is associated with creating more humane environments at mental hospitals?
a) Emil Kraepelin
b) Joseph Breuer
c) Philippe Pinel
d) John Watson
c) Philippe Pinel
51
Treatment for the mentally ill during the Moral Therapy era became more humane when
a) patients were given individual attention.
b) asylums were abolished.
c) specialty hospital wards were created for the mentally ill within general care facilities
d) . All of the above
d). All of the above
52
Moral treatment involved
a) herbal remedies that may have been toxic.
b) fighting social inequities.
c) encouraging patients to engage in purposeful activities.
d) frightening the individual.
c) encouraging patients to engage in purposeful activities.
53
Elizabeth was receiving moral treatment while in an early asylum. Which of the following treatments was she LEAST likely to receive?
a) medication
b) physical restraints
c) purposeful activities
d) work-related tasks
b) physical restraints
54
“Moral treatment” was largely abandoned because of the development of
a) psychoanalysis.
b) improved medications.
c) large impersonal hospitals.
d) scandals at retreat centers.
c) large impersonal hospitals.
55
Dorothea Dix is famous for
a) greatly improving the standard of care for people with mental illness.
b) overseeing the creation of thirty-two state hospitals for the mentally ill.
c) providing moral treatment to many people with mental illness.
d) all of the above.
d) all of the above.
56
Similar to the early asylums, present-day mental hospitals
a) provide a great deal of stimulation.
b) provide intensive individual therapy.
c) provide merely for basic needs and medication.
d) are well staffed with nurses and psychiatrists, but have few psychologists.
c) provide merely for basic needs and medication.
57
General paresis is best described as
a) an early term for schizophrenia.
b) hysterical paralysis with no medical cause.
c) a deterioration of mental and physical health associated with syphilis.
d) a bloodletting technique.
c) a deterioration of mental and physical health associated with syphilis.
58
The germ theory of disease, which states that disease is caused by infection of the body by tiny organisms, was put forth by
a) Emil Kraepelin.
b) Franz Anton Mesmer.
c) Jean Charcot.
d) Louis Pasteur.
d) Louis Pasteur.
59
The discovery of the cause of syphilis was important to the field of mental illness for which reason?
a) Syphilis was widely feared and exacerbated mental illness.
b) It increased interest in determining biological causes for mental illness.
c) More asylum patients were diagnosed with syphilis.
d) It highlighted the need for valid diagnostic systems.
b) It increased interest in determining biological causes for mental illness.
60
The germ theory of disease
a) showed the link between syphilis and mental illness.
b) explained the cause of schizophrenia and depression.
c) disproved the biological hypotheses.
d) showed the link between influenza and adjustment disorder.
a) showed the link between syphilis and mental illness.
61
An adherent for biological approaches would suggest which of the following treatments for depression?
a) antidepressant medication
b) psychotherapy
c) relaxation therapy
d) hypnosis
a) antidepressant medication
62
The eugenics movement
a) was a direct result of the germ theory of disease.
b) sought to cleanse society of people with undesirable characteristics.
c) classified mental disorders according to their genesis.
d) sought to abolish ECT treatments.
b) sought to cleanse society of people with undesirable characteristics.
63
Early work in behavior genetics led to
a) electroconvulsive therapy.
b) the cure for general paresis.
c) reduced interest in psychoanalysis.
d) forced sterilization of mental patients.
d) forced sterilization of mental patients.
64
Which of the following is true about ECT?
a) It is used today to treat patients with severe depression.
b) Today it is primarily used in the treatment of epilepsy.
c) It destroys the tracts connecting the frontal lobes to the lower centers of the brain.
d) ECT ceased to be used after the introduction of the lobotomy.
a) It is used today to treat patients with severe depression.
65
Hypnosis, as originally used by Mesmer, was used for
a) mild exorcism.
b) uncovering early child abuse.
c) acting as an anesthetic.
d) treating hysteria.
d) treating hysteria.
66
The reasoning behind hypnosis as developed by Mesmer was that
a) changing the magnetic fluid in his patients would result in symptom reduction.
b) relaxation was a sufficient treatment for alleviating symptoms.
c) frightening patients would result in symptom reduction.
d) faith in the healer caused healing.
a) changing the magnetic fluid in his patients would result in symptom reduction.
67
Esther was a patient of Mesmer, who was treating her for blindness. What was the likely scenario when she entered his treatment room?
a) a quiet room, with a soft reclining chair
b) a “bleeding device” used to drain the blood that, believed to be in excess, resulted in psychogenic blindness
c) a stock of chemical-filled rods, with Mesmer presiding over the room
d) a sterile, well-lit room with several doctors in white laboratory coats
c) a stock of chemical-filled rods, with Mesmer presiding over the room
68
Breuer observed an association between recalling past traumatic events and expression of the original emotion in hysterics. This resulted in
a) increased hysteria.
b) decreased hysteria.
c) the emergence of new symptoms.
d) the repression of emotions.
b) decreased hysteria.
69
Dr. Jones encourages her clients, under hypnosis, to recall childhood traumas and the emotions associated with them. This technique was developed by
a) Josef Breuer.
b) Carl Jung.
c) Fritz Perls.
d) Franz Mesmer.
a) Josef Breuer.
70
Which is TRUE regarding catharsis?
a) It is a moral therapy method.
b) It was initiated by Pinel.
c) It consists of drawing blood from a patient.
d) It encourages the release of emotional tension.
d) It encourages the release of emotional tension.
71
If you went to Josef Breuer for treatment of hysterical paralysis, which treatment would you probably NOT receive?
a) hypnosis
b) free association
c) talk therapy
d) medication
d) medication
72
The cathartic method was created by
a) Sigmund Freud.
b) Josef Breuer.
c) Jean Martin Charcot.
d) Richard von Krafft-Ebing.
b) Josef Breuer.
73
The psychoanalytic theory rests upon the assumption that psychopathology is the result of
a) incomplete superego development.
b) unconscious conflicts.
c) ego defense mechanisms.
d) over-control of the pleasure principle.
b) unconscious conflicts.
74
The id, ego, and superego are
a) structures of the mind.
b) orders in a developmental sequence.
c) biological drives.
d) brain structures.
a) structures of the mind.
75
The ego operates according to the __________ principle.
a) reality
b) Oedipal
c) Electra
d) pleasure
a) reality
76
The basic energy source for the psyche is the
a) id.
b) ego.
c) superego.
d) Oedipus complex.
a) id.
77
When you feel hungry and immediately seek out food, this is an example of the __________ acting.
a) superego
b) ego
c) id
d) projection
c) id
78
According to Freud’s theory, the superego develops from the
a) id.
b) ego.
c) emergence of defense mechanisms.
d) conflicts in the Oedipal stage.
b) ego.
79
Dealing with reality is the primary role of the
a) id.
b) ego.
c) superego.
d) preconscious.
b) ego.
80
Which structure involves only activity of the unconscious?
a) id
b) ego
c) superego
d) the psyche
a) id
81
While studying for an exam, Greg worked for 15 minutes before becoming tired. He decided that it would be better to work for another 30 minutes before taking a break. His behavior is being guided by which part of his personality?
a) id
b) ego
c) superego
d) ego defense
b) ego
82
When one refers to their conscience, they are also describing their
a) id.
b) ego.
c) superego.
d) ego defenses.
c) superego.
83
The superego allows us to
a) be capable of rational thought.
b) know right from wrong.
c) act in line with reality.
d) be spontaneous.
b) know right from wrong.
84
Carol is trying to decide whether to drink alcohol, knowing that her parents are strongly opposed to drinking. According to Freudian theory, Carol’s struggle is between her __________, which makes her want to drink, and her __________, which discourages her from drinking.
a) id; superego
b) ego; superego
c) id; ego
d) superego; ego
a) id; superego
85
The ego uses __________ to protect itself from anxiety.
a) the libido
b) defense mechanisms
c) the superego
d) the id
b) defense mechanisms
86
According to Freud, what is the most important determinant of behavior?
a) conscious
b) pre-conscious
c) unconscious
d) all of the above are equally important
c) unconscious
87
Conflicts from a particular stage of development, according to Freud, will
a) be completely ignored.
b) be unimportant in later stages.
c) continue to affect development.
d) be important only when one is informed of the specific conflict.
c) continue to affect development.
88
Fixation at a particular stage, according to Freud, results in
a) difficulties in determining the nature of the conflicts when the person enters analysis.
b) a sexually unresponsive individual.
c) an inability to develop further.
d) regression to that stage when stressed later in life.
d) regression to that stage when stressed later in life.
89
Which of the following is NOT a technique in psychoanalytic psychotherapy?
a) transference.
b) free association.
c) interpretation.
d) cognitive reappraisal.
d) cognitive reappraisal.
90
Dr. Smith argues that the desire to hunt is built into all men dating back to the times of cave men. Dr. Smith is relying on the concept of
a) positive reinforcement.
b) collective unconscious.
c) self-actualization.
d) sublimation.
b) collective unconscious.
91
Adler developed a theory of psychoanalytic thought oriented towards
a) psychoticism.
b) doing things for the social good.
c) overt behavior change.
d) all of the above.
b) doing things for the social good.
92
As part of therapy, you are asked to lie on a couch and say anything that comes to mind. This is called
a) interpretation.
b) transference.
c) real analysis.
d) free association.
d) free association.
93
```
You begin to think of your therapist in a similar way to your sister, so you begin to treat the therapist as you treat your sister. This is referred to as
A) countertransference.
B) identification.
C) transference.
D) projection.
```
C) transference.
94
According to the __________ theory, at each developmental stage a different part of the body is most sensitive to sexual excitation and, therefore, the most capable of satisfying the id.
a) psychosexual
b) psychodynamic
c) sexualization
d) none of the above
a) psychosexual
95
The correct developmental order of Freud’s psychosexual stages is
a) anal, oral, latency, phallic, genital
b) oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital
c) latency, anal, oral, genital, phallic
d) phallic, oral, genital, anal, latency
b) oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital
96
The psychosexual stage in which the id does not play a major role is the __________ stage.
a) anal
b) phallic
c) latency
d) oral
c) latency
97
Which of the following papers was drawn from Freud’s clinical observations of those suffering from depression?
a) “Mourning and Melancholia”
b) “Repression and Depression”
c) “Frustration of the Id”
d) “Depression Manifesto”
a) “Mourning and Melancholia”
98
During which psychosexual stage did Freud say the roots of depression were formed?
a) anal
b) latency
c) phallic
d) oral
d) oral
99
According to Freud, people who are fixated at the __________ stage are overly dependent upon others.
a) oral
b) anal
c) phallic
d) genital
a) oral
100
Which of the following psychodynamic assumptions is NOT considered true today?
a) Childhood experiences help shape adult personality.
b) There are unconscious influences on behavior.
c) The causes and purposes of human behavior are not always obvious.
d) Sexual drives are key in the development of the self.
d) Sexual drives are key in the development of the self.
101
Behaviorists advocate that
a) abnormal behavior arises from discussions of abnormal behavior.
b) abnormal behavior is learned.
c) insight is important in changing behavior.
d) defenses are associated with resolving anxiety.
b) abnormal behavior is learned.
102
The earliest experimental work on classical conditioning was conducted by
a) Bandura.
b) Tolman.
c) Skinner.
d) Pavlov.
d) Pavlov.
103
Anne experienced extreme pain at the dentist as a child. Now she goes to a different dentist, but feels her heart race when she arrives,and go down when she leaves. Her heart racing whenever she goes to the dentist is due to __________, and the calming feeling when she leaves is due to __________.
a) classical conditioning, operant conditioning.
b) operant conditioning, classical conditioning.
c) operant conditioning, meditational learning.
d) operant conditioning, modeling.
a) classical conditioning, operant conditioning.
104
Fiona faints when her doctor begins to draw blood. What is the unconditioned response?
a) the needle
b) blood
c) fainting
d) blood flow
c) fainting
105
The following type of response to behavior results in an increased probability of the behavior occurring again.
a) positive reinforcement
b) negative reinforcement
c) Positive punishment
d) both a and b
d) both a and b
106
A class conducted an experiment with its professor. The students paid attention as a group only when she was to the left of the blackboard. After this was established, they paid attention only when she was three feet from the blackboard, further to the left. Finally, they paid attention only when she was directly in the corner, to the left of the blackboard. This is an illustration of
a) shaping.
b) punishment.
c) habituation.
d) modeling.
a) shaping.
107
Mr. Smith is going to a therapist for help with a fear of heights. Over several sessions the therapist, Dr. Jones, provides deep muscle relaxation and gradual exposures to heights. Dr. Jones’s treatment approach is best identified as
a) free association.
b) systematic desensitization.
c) modeling.
d) positive reinforcement.
b) systematic desensitization.
108
Early behaviorist theories did not consider the critical role that __________ play in human behavior.
a) thoughts
b) emotions
c) memories
d) both a and b
d) both a and b
109
The study of cognition began to be prominent in the
a) 1950s
b) 1960s
c) 1970s
d) 1980s
b) 1960s
110
Which of the following theoretical approaches emphasizes the importance of how people construe themselves in the world?
a) Behaviorist
b) Psychodynamic
c) Humanistic
d) Cognitive
d) Cognitive
111
Cognitive therapists believe that if clients change their __________ they will be able to change their feelings, behaviors, and symptoms.
a) conscience
b) reactions
c) thoughts
d) actions
c) thoughts
112
According to Albert Ellis, __________ are caused by internal sentences that people repeat to themselves.
a) emotional reactions
b) irrational thoughts
c) disturbed perceptions
d) angry obsessions
a) emotional reactions
113
Rational-emotive behavior therapy was proposed by
a) Freud
b) Skinner
c) Piaget
d) Ellis
d) Ellis
114
Psychiatrists differ from clinical psychologists in that psychiatrists
a) receive training in scientific bases of behavior.
b) receive training in diagnosis of psychopathology.
c) undergo personal analysis as part of their training.
d) prescribe medication.
d) prescribe medication.
115
Which profession requires a research dissertation as a prerequisite for an advanced degree?
a) psychiatry
b) clinical psychology
c) psychiatric nursing
d) psychoanalysis
b) clinical psychology
116
96. Social workers primarily
a) perform psychological assessments.
b) conduct extensive research.
c) conduct psychotherapy.
d) prescribe medication.
c) conduct psychotherapy.
117
The doctor of psychology degree (Psy.D.) emphasizes
a) medication-based training.
b) psychodynamic training.
c) testing and measurement of mental illness.
d) clinical training more than research training.
d) clinical training more than research training.
118
Clinical psychologists, counseling psychologists, and social workers are all likely to be involved in
a) conducting research.
b) providing psychotherapy.
c) teaching.
d) prescribing psychoactive medication.
b) providing psychotherapy.
119
There has recently been a debate regarding whether clinical psychologists should be allowed to
a) focus on research rather than clinical practice.
b) study social factors influencing psychopathology.
c) admit patients to the hospital.
d) prescribe medication.
d) prescribe medication.
120
A set of basic assumptions that defines how to conceptualize and study a subject, how to gather and interpret relevant data, even how to think about a particular subject is known as a
a) theoretical perspective.
b) hypothetical stance.
c) paradigm.
d) none of the above.
c) paradigm.
121
Paradigms in the study of psychopathology
a) increase objectivity.
b) slow innovation.
c) increase confidence in our conclusions regarding mental illness.
d) enable us to gather knowledge in a systematic manner.
d) enable us to gather knowledge in a systematic manner.
122
When a scientist chooses a paradigm to understand psychopathology, it
a) has little effect on clinical practice.
b) leads to an overly narrow perspective.
c) is generally too narrow in focus.
d) specifies which problems they will investigate and how they will go about investigating them.
d) specifies which problems they will investigate and how they will go about investigating them.
123
Contemporary views on genetic and environmental factors in behavior emphasize that
a) genes are important for only some behaviors.
b) a good environment can overcome genetic limitations.
c) both factors influence each other.
d) the percentage of genetic influence on a behavior can be measured.
c) both factors influence each other.
124
The carriers of the genetic information passed from parent to child are called
a) nature.
b) genes.
c) zygotes.
d) DNA.
b) genes.
125
What makes us unique is the
a) number of genes we have.
b) the amount of DNA we inherit.
c) the number of genes we inherit.
d) the sequencing of our genes.
d) the sequencing of our genes.
126
The switching on and off of certain genes is called
a) gene expression
b) gene sequencing
c) DNA ordering
d) DNA display
a) gene expression
127
When discussing heritability it is important to keep in mind all of the following EXCEPT:
a) heritability estimates range from 0.0 to 1.0.
b) the higher the heritability value, the greater the heritability.
c) heritability is relevant for a particular individual.
d) heritability is relevant for large populations.
c) heritability is relevant for a particular individual.
128
According to behavior genetics research
a) nonshared experiences have much more to do with mental illness than shared experiences.
b) shared experiences have much more to do with mental illness than nonshared experiences.
c) shared and nonshared experiences are equally important for mental illness.
d) there is no way to differentiate between shared and nonshared contributions to mental illness.
a) nonshared experiences have much more to do with mental illness than shared experiences.
129
Psychopathology is polygenic which means that
a) there are several different paradigms to explain abnormal behavior.
b) there are several different genes operating at different times during development that influence vulnerability.
c) the human genome consists of around 30,000 genes.
d) if a person had a gene for a given disorder, they would most likely get that disorder.
b) there are several different genes operating at different times during development that influence vulnerability.
130
If the heritability of ADHD is around .70 then
a) 70% of ADHD is due to genes.
b) 30% of ADHD is due to genes.
c) individual heritability for ADHD is .70.
d) In a given population, approximately 70% of variation in ADHD is attributed to genes and approximately 30% is attributed to the environment.
d) In a given population, approximately 70% of variation in ADHD is attributed to genes and approximately 30% is attributed to the environment.
131
Which of the following statements is false?
a) Heritability is a population statistic ranging from 0.0 to 1.0.
b) Heritability is the extent to which variability in a particular behavior in a population can be accounted for by environmental factors.
c) Heritability is a measure of what varies in a population.
d) The higher the heritability statistic, the greater the particular behavior can be accounted for by genetic factors.
b) Heritability is the extent to which variability in a particular behavior in a population can be accounted for by environmental factors.
132
Research suggests that
a) shared environmental factors is what matters most for understanding genetic variability among siblings.
b) heritability is what determines a behavior in a population.
c) the effect of nonshared environmental events on siblings is what matters most for understanding genetic variability among siblings.
d) specific types of events determine genetic variability among siblings.
c) the effect of nonshared environmental events on siblings is what matters most for understanding genetic variability among siblings.
133
One's inherited genes are referred to as
a) phenotypes.
b) genotypes.
c) somatotypes.
d) allele types.
b) genotypes.
134
One's observable characteristics are called
a) fistulas.
b) genotypes.
c) genetic types.
d) phenotypes.
d) phenotypes.
135
A genotype is illustrated by which of the following?
a) panic disorder
b) depression
c) schizophrenia
d) none of the above
d) none of the above
136
A phenotype is illustrated by which of the following?
a) Lisa's level of anxiety.
b) Lisa's chromosomes.
c) The genes that code for Lisa's eye color.
d) Lisa's DNA structure.
a) Lisa's level of anxiety.
137
The behavior genetic view suggests which of the following relationships between genes and abnormal behavior?
a) Genetic predispositions increase the likelihood of abnormal behavior.
b) It is possible and reasonable to manipulate an individual's genes.
c) Twins are more likely to exhibit abnormal behavior.
d) None of the above.
a) Genetic predispositions increase the likelihood of abnormal behavior.
138
Any measure of intelligence is best viewed as an index of
a) genotype.
b) phenotype.
c) shared environment.
d) nonshared environment.
b) phenotype.
139
Turkheimer and colleagues’ study of IQ showed that
a) heritability for IQ is high.
b) heritability depends upon the environment.
c) achievement is highly heritable regardless of environment.
d) linkage analysis is a sound research method.
b) heritability depends upon the environment.
140
Different forms of the same gene are called
a) alleles.
b) polymorphisms.
c) chromosomes.
d) genotypes.
a) alleles.
141
A difference in DNA sequence that occurs in a population is called
a) an allele.
b) a genotype.
c) a phenotype.
d) a polymorphism.
d) a polymorphism.
142
“Knockout studies”
a) are used to learn about mating behaviors in mice.
b) are used to gain a better understanding of DNA sequences.
c) manipulate specific genes and observe the effects on behavior by “removing” certain genes from mice DNA.
d) manipulate specific genes by inserting artificial hormones into mice DNA.
c) manipulate specific genes and observe the effects on behavior by “removing” certain genes from mice DNA.
143
In genetics, SNPS refers to
a) single neurogenic proteins.
b) single nucleotide polymorphisms.
c) soluble nucleotide proteins.
d) soluble neurokinetic polymorphisms.
b) single nucleotide polymorphisms
144
Transcription factors recognize
a) promoters.
b) responders.
c) influencers.
d) recorders.
a) promoters.
145
A CNV is an abnormal copy of one or more sections of DNS. They occur due to all of the following EXCEPT:
a) addition of copies
b) deletion of copies
c) mutation of copies
d) multiplication of copies
d) multiplication of copies
146
“De novo” mutations are:
a) spontaneous
b) rapidly progressing
c) slow developing
d) systematic
a) spontaneous
147
The study of the pups born to high LG-ABN mothers or low LG-ABN mothers and raised by high LG-ABN mothers or low LG-ABN mothers provided support for the idea that
a) environments influence the expression of genes in psychopathology.
b) adoption studies are a useful method for understanding genetic markers.
c) environments do not play as important a role as genetics.
d) LG-ABN behaviors in mothers are not related to the expression of certain genes in pups.
a) environments influence the expression of genes in psychopathology.
148
Adoption studies are ideal studies for investigating
a) polymorphism.
b) gene-environment interactions.
c) genotypes.
d) alleles.
b) gene-environment interactions.
149
Nick was born with a predisposition for aggression and impulsivity that has resulted in frequent trouble with the law. As a result of time spent in jail, Nick has developed alcohol dependence. This is an example of
a) linkage analysis.
b) epigenetics.
c) gene-environment interaction.
d) reciprocal gene-environment interaction.
d) reciprocal gene-environment interaction.
150
A reciprocal gene-environment interaction
a) involves the idea that genes may predispose individuals to seek out certain environments.
b) involves how adopted children take on the characteristics of their adopted parents.
c) is a useful research method in adoption studies.
d) suggests that individuals who spend a lot of time in bars are more likely to develop alcohol dependence than those who do not frequent bars.
a) involves the idea that genes may predispose individuals to seek out certain environments.
151
A major current challenge for researchers within the genetic paradigm is to show the mechanism by which
a) genes for pathology remain after many generations.
b) genes and environments influence each other.
c) genes exert effects on highly complex behaviors.
d) drugs are able to effect genetic predispositions.
b) genes and environments influence each other.
152
The neuroscience paradigm
a) suggests that genes are responsible for most types of psychopathology.
b) suggests that dopamine is linked to most types of psychopathology.
c) asserts that mental disorders are linked to aberrant processes in the brain.
d) asserts that mental disorders are linked to environmental disturbances.
c) asserts that mental disorders are linked to aberrant processes in the brain.
153
The small gap between brain cells that is involved in message transmission is called the
a) neurotransmitter.
b) axon.
c) ganglion.
d) synapse.
d) synapse.
154
Neurotransmitters are chemical substances that
a) allow nerve impulses to reach the next neuron.
b) repair neurons.
c) let neurons adjust their sensitivity to new inputs.
d) adjust the speed of neural transmissions.
a) allow nerve impulses to reach the next neuron.
155
Neurotransmitters are pumped back into the presynaptic cell by
a) reintroduction.
b) reuptake.
c) reinstitution.
d) recall.
b) reuptake.
156
Which of the following neurotransmitters is NOT mentioned in the text as being implicated in psychopathology?
a) GABA
b) Dopamine
c) Serotonin
d) All of the above are mentioned
d) All of the above are mentioned
157
According to the neuroscience paradigm, mental disorders are likely the result of
a) an abundance of receptors on the postsynaptic neuron.
b) excesses of different neurotransmitters, such as dopamine.
c) deficiencies in different neurotransmitters, such as serotonin.
d) all of the above.
d) all of the above.
158
Second messengers play an important role in
a) moderating agonists.
b) moderating antagonists.
c) helping neurons adjust receptor sensitivity.
d) adjusting sensitivity of the thalamus.
c) helping neurons adjust receptor sensitivity.
159
__________ not only interact with neurons, but they also help to control how neurons work.
a) Glial cells
b) DNA strands
c) Genes
d) Agonists
a) Glial cells
160
Which of the following mechanisms adjust the sensitivity of postsynaptic receptors to dopamine, norepinephrine or serotonin?
a) second messengers
b) antagonists
c) neurotransmitters
d) nerve impulses
a) second messengers
161
Dr. Arthur and his colleagues are investigating a new drug for depression that stimulates serotonin receptors. Dr. Arthur is most likely investigating which kind of drug?
a) an antagonist
b) an agonist
c) a second messenger
d) a synaptic blocker
b) an agonist
162
Fred has schizophrenia and is taking a medication that works by blocking dopamine receptors. Fred is most likely taking which kind of drug?
a) an antagonist
b) an agonist
c) a second messenger
d) an antidepressant
a) an antagonist
163
The major connection between the two hemispheres in the brain is called
a) gray matter.
b) the parietal lobe.
c) the brain stem.
d) the corpus callosum.
d) the corpus callosum.
164
The gray matter in the brain is made up of
a) neurons.
b) fissures.
c) sulci.
d) meninges.
a) neurons.
165
The cortex consists of __________ layers of tightly packed neurons.
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
c) 6
166
The part of your brain closest to your ears that deals with sound discrimination is the __________ lobe.
a) frontal
b) occipital
c) parietal
d) temporal
d) temporal
167
The thalamus is the part of the brain which
a) recognizes spatial relations.
b) regulates body temperature and blood pressure.
c) controls movement.
d) relays sensory pathways for hearing and vision.
d) relays sensory pathways for hearing and vision.
168
The cerebellum is crucial for
a) balance
b) speech
c) sight
d) hearing
a) balance
169
Important structures of the limbic system include all of the following EXCEPT the:
a) anterior cingulate
b) cerebellum
c) amygdala
d) hypothalamus
b) cerebellum
170
In early adulthood, a process known as __________ occurs in which cell connections in the brain are eliminated.
a) honing
b) pruning
c) linkage analysis
d) a gene-environment interaction
b) pruning
171
Which of the following statements is true?
a) Starting in early adulthood, synaptic connections begin to be eliminated.
b) Connections in the brain become greater as an individual moves through adulthood.
c) Brain development begins in the second trimester.
d) All of the above.
a) Starting in early adulthood, synaptic connections begin to be eliminated.
172
Which of the following is central to the body's response to stress?
a) HPA axis
b) serotonin
c) dopamine
d) nerve impulses
a) HPA axis
173
When people are faced with threat, the hypothalamus releases __________, which then communicates with the pituitary gland.
a) serotonin
b) dopamine
c) Corticotrophin Releasing Factor (CRF)
d) norepinephrine
c) Corticotrophin Releasing Factor (CRF)
174
The autonomic nervous system is
a) mostly involuntary.
b) also known as the somatic nervous system.
c) mostly voluntary.
d) equally voluntary and involuntary.
a) mostly involuntary.
175
The autonomic nervous system is divided into two parts:
a) the somatic nervous system and the involuntary nervous system.
b) the sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system.
d) the sympathetic nervous system and the somatic nervous system.
c) the somatic nervous system and the sympathetic nervous system.
b) the sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system.
176
This part of the ANS accelerates the heart, dilates the pupils and initiates smooth muscle and glandular responses that prepare an organism for sudden activity and stress.
a) parasympathetic nervous system
b) sympathetic nervous system
c) somatic nervous system
d) HPA axis
b) sympathetic nervous system
177
Which of the following would be considered an implication of the neuroscience paradigm?
a) Using an antidepressant to inhibit the uptake of serotonin.
b) Changing one's schema by identifying false cognitions.
c) Studying gene-environment interactions to better understand how depression runs in families.
d) Studying the heritability of schizophrenia.
a) Using an antidepressant to inhibit the uptake of serotonin.
178
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
a) A person could hold a neuroscientific view about the nature of a psychological disorder, yet still recommend psychological intervention.
b) Reductionism refers to the view that whatever is being studied can and should be reduced to its more basic elements.
c) In recent decades, neuroscience research on causes and treatment of psychopathology has been proceeding quite slowly.
d) Most neurobiological interventions have not been derived from knowledge of what causes a given disorder.
c) In recent decades, neuroscience research on causes and treatment of psychopathology has been proceeding quite slowly.
179
The primary argument against reductionism is that
a) using multiple levels of analysis makes understanding needlessly complex.
b) certain phenomena may only emerge at specific levels of analysis.
c) it is impossible to identify the best level of analysis for some phenomena.
d) theoretical biases make it difficult to adjust levels of analysis.
b) certain phenomena may only emerge at specific levels of analysis.
180
Jane is afraid of elevators. Her psychologist, Dr. Schwartz, teaches her how to relax deeply. Then Dr. Schwartz helps her develop a list of situations with elevators that vary in how frightening or anxiety- producing they are. Finally, while relaxed, Jane imagines the series of situations with elevators. Eventually Jane is able to tolerate imagining increasingly more difficult situations in elevators such as riding an elevator 100 floors alone. By the end of the 16th therapy session, Jane states that her fear of elevators has disappeared. Dr. Schwartz used
a) brief psychodynamic therapy.
b) token economy.
c) systematic desensitization.
d) ego analysis.
c) systematic desensitization.
181
Systematically rewarding desirable behavior and extinguishing undesirable behavior is the centerpiece of which behavioral theory?
a) Operant conditioning
b) Systematic conditioning
c) Classical conditioning
d) Observational conditioning
a) Operant conditioning
182
Helping a person engage in tasks that provide an opportunity for positive reinforcement is called
a) observational learning
b) behavioral activation therapy
c) classical learning
d) operant learning
b) behavioral activation therapy
183
Joan tends to see everything on the 'bright side.' That is, she rarely feels that negative events occur in her life. According to the cognitive perspective, Joan's tendency to see things positively represents her
a) schema.
b) discriminative stimulus.
c) fixation.
d) conditioned response.
a) schema.
184
After the first day of class, Jack (who is always an optimist) decides the class will be fun while Jan (who struggles over grades) decides the class will be hard. Their different reactions illustrate the role of their
a) non-shared environment.
b) cognitive set.
c) previous exposures.
d) childhood experiences.
b) cognitive set.
185
The Stroop task was originally developed for researchers to study
a) attention.
b) the role of neurotransmitters.
c) emotion.
d) Alzheimer’s Disease.
a) attention.
186
What paradigm was used by this therapist? Joan was fired from her job, and her therapist attempts to help her see that this is not terrible, and that being fired does not mean she is a bad person.
a) learning paradigm
b) psychoanalytic paradigm
c) Beck’s cognitive paradigm
d) gestalt paradigm
c) Beck’s cognitive paradigm
187
Newer CBT treatments differ from the original CBT treatments in that they emphasize all of the following EXCEPT:
a) spirituality.
b) values.
c) emotions.
d) rational thoughts.
d) rational thoughts.
188
Ted is a "workaholic;" he works 15 hours a day and never has time to spend with his family or on things he enjoys. Which of the following is a cognitive explanation of Ted's behavior?
a) Ted is imitating the behavior of his hard-working father.
b) Ted believes he can only be a good person if he excels in everything he does.
c) Ted is actually afraid of getting close to others.
d) Ted lacks the assertiveness to stand up to his boss' demands.
b) Ted believes he can only be a good person if he excels in everything he does.
189
A distinctive facet of the cognitive behavioral paradigm is that thoughts
a) are a result of feelings.
b) are a direct result of past experiences.
c) are less important than behaviors.
d) cause feelings.
d) cause feelings.
190
__________ is the idea that a person can, without being aware of it, be influenced by prior learning.
a) Complicit memory
b) Implicit memory
c) Subconscious learning
d) Conscious remembrance
b) Implicit memory
191
The difference between emotions and moods are
a) emotions involve feelings, while moods involve behaviors.
b) emotions have been linked to psychological disorders, while moods have not.
c) emotions are long-lived experiences, while moods tend to be short-lasting.
d) emotions are fairly short-lived states, while moods tend to last for longer periods of time.
d) emotions are fairly short-lived states, while moods tend to last for longer periods of time.
192
Lindsey opened a letter saying that she got into her top choice medical school. She felt a rush of joy and began to jump up and down with excitement. Which of the following best describes Lindsey's state in the moment after opening the letter?
a) Lindsey is experiencing happy emotions.
b) Lindsey is in a happy mood.
c) Lindsey has a happy schema.
d) Lindsey has sad affect.
a) Lindsey is experiencing happy emotions.
193
When studying the role of emotions in different mental disorders, it is important to consider
a) which components of emotion are affected.
b) how sad the person is.
c) cardiovascular responses to stress.
d) which emotions have the largest effect on mood.
a) which components of emotion are affected.
194
Multinational studies on the role of gender in psychopathology have shown that
a) alcohol dependence is equally common among women and men.
b) depression is nearly twice as common among women than men.
c) antisocial personality disorder is more common among women than men.
d) childhood disorders affect more girls than boys.
b) depression is nearly twice as common among women than men.
195
Cultural and ethnic studies of psychopathology conducted around the world indicate that
a) most disorders are only prevalent in the United States.
b) all disorders in the DSM-5 can be identified in every culture studied.
c) treatments are universally effective for all disorders.
d) a number of disorders are indeed observed in diverse parts of the world.
d) a number of disorders are indeed observed in diverse parts of the world.
196
Studies of psychopathology among different cultures and ethnicities have shown that eating disorders are more common among __________, while schizophrenia is more common among __________.
a) African-Americans; Caucasians
b) Hispanics; Caucasians
c) Caucasians; African-Americans
d) African-Americans; Hispanics
c) Caucasians; African-Americans
197
The fields of behavioral medicine and health psychology focus on the impact of __________ on health.
a) gender
b) socioeconomic status
c) ethnicity
d) All of these are considered by behavioral medicine and health psychologists.
d) All of these are considered by behavioral medicine and health psychologists.
198
Why do women have poorer health in general than men?
a) Women live longer than men.
b) Women are more likely to be diagnosed than men.
c) Women are exposed to more stress than men.
d) All of the above.
d) All of the above.
199
Which of the following is responsible for the relationship between low SES and poor mental and physical health?
a) Environmental factor reinforce poor health behaviors.
b) Limited access to health services.
c) Greater exposure to stress.
d) All of the above.
d) All of the above.
200
The goal of __________ is to reduce the relationship stress and improve communication.
a) couples therapy
b) individual therapy
c) triad therapy
d) none of the above
a) couples therapy
201
__________ stresses the importance of long-standing patterns in close relationships, particularly within the family, that are shaped by the ways people think and feel.
a) subjective relations therapy
b) object relations therapy
c) relationship therapy
d) none of the above
b) object relations therapy
202
The first goal of family-focused treatment is to:
a) provide psychoeducation.
b) choose one problem to address.
c) generate potential solutions.
d) symptom management.
a) provide psychoeducation.
203
The clinical case about Clare was included in the chapter on Current Paradigms in Psychopathology to illustrate the principle of
a) rational-emotive therapy
b) family-focused therapy
c) couples therapy
d) group therapy
b) family-focused therapy
204
__________ grew out of object relations theory.
a) Differentiation theory
b) Subjective self-theory
c) Attachment theory
d) Subject relations theory
c) Attachment theory
205
Interpersonal therapy emphasizes the importance of __________ and how problems in these relationships contribute to psychological symptoms.
a) past relationships
b) current relationships
c) future relationships
d) both a and b
b) current relationships
206
IPT considers which of the following issues?
a) Resolved grief
b) Unresolved grief
c) Established roles
d) Social support
b) Unresolved grief
207
The diathesis-stress paradigm emphasizes that psychopathology results from
a) predisposition and the unconscious.
b) predisposition and environmental disturbances.
c) physiology and biochemistry.
d) attachment and gestalt problems.
b) predisposition and environmental disturbances.
208
Which of the following is NOT an example of a diathesis?
a) Chronic feelings of hopelessness, often found in people with depression.
b) The ability to be hypnotized often, seen in people with dissociative identity disorder.
c) Intense fear of becoming fat often, found in people with eating disorders.
d) Delusions often found in people with schizophrenia.
d) Delusions often found in people with schizophrenia.
209
According to the diathesis-stress model, if Linda inherited a predisposition that places her at high risk for schizophrenia,
a) given a certain amount of stress, it is likely she will develop schizophrenia.
b) Linda will most definitely develop schizophrenia.
c) Linda will only develop schizophrenia if she has also inherited a predisposition to be paranoid.
d) Linda also inherited a schema that predisposes her to experience stress more easily than most people.
a) given a certain amount of stress, it is likely she will develop schizophrenia.
210
Which of the following statements are TRUE about paradigms?
a) Data gathered by researchers subscribing to different paradigms are not necessarily incompatible with one another.
b) The genetic paradigm offers a “complete” conceptualization of psychopathology.
c) The diathesis stress model is not considered a paradigm.
d) Clinical cases are seldom conceptualized using more than one paradigm.
a) Data gathered by researchers subscribing to different paradigms are not necessarily incompatible with one another.
211
Most therapists today conceptualize a clinical case using
a) one paradigm
b) two primary paradigms
c) multiple paradigms
d) no paradigms
c) multiple paradigms
