CHAPTER 10: HOW DO WE HEAR, SPEAK AND MAKE MUSIC? Flashcards
(94 cards)
1
Q
Neanderthals:
A) did not bury their dead with artifacts.
B) were assumed to have complex language.
C) left evidence that they may have had musical instruments.
D) did not use tools.
A
C) left evidence that they may have had musical instruments.
2
Q
Research into the evolution of music suggests that:
A) all singing primates are monogamous.
B) music may be related to sexual behavior.
C) music is processed by the right temporal lobe.
D) All of the answers are correct.
A
D) All of the answers are correct.
3
Q
3. Sound waves are created by: A) the compression of air molecules B) the rarefaction of air molecules. C) undulating displacement of air molecules caused by pressure changes. D) None of the answers is correct.
A
C) undulating displacement of air molecules caused by pressure changes.
4
Q
4. Sound travels at a speed of: A) 700 feet/second. B) 1100 feet/second. C) 1000 feet/second. D) 800 feet/second.
A
B) 1100 feet/second.
5
Q
5. Twenty-five cycles per second is equivalent to: A) 5 Hz. B) 25 Hz. C) 50 Hz. D) 100 Hz.
A
B) 25 Hz.
6
Q
6. Frequency of sound waves roughly corresponds to our perception of: A) timbre. B) complexity. C) loudness. D) pitch.
A
D) pitch.
7
Q
- The range for the perception of sound in humans is:
A
B) 20 to 20,000 Hz.
8
Q
8. Which of the following species is said to have a narrow range of auditory frequency perception? A) birds B) whales C) humans D) bats
A
A) birds
9
Q
9. Another word for sound quality or complexity is: A) pitch. B) timbre. C) loudness. D) prosody.
A
B) timbre.
10
Q
10. If we increase the amount of air that is compacted in each sound wave but keep the same number of waves, then we have changed the: A) timbre. B) pitch. C) sound amplitude. D) frequency.
A
C) sound amplitude.
11
Q
11. Decibels are a measure of: A) sound amplitude. B) pitch. C) frequency. D) timbre.
A
A) sound amplitude.
12
Q
12. Normal speech sounds are around: A) 30 dB. B) 40 dB. C) 50 dB. D) 60 dB.
A
B) 40 dB.
13
Q
13. Sounds that are louder than \_\_\_\_\_\_ are considered by most people to be loud. A) 50 dB B) 90 dB C) 100 dB D) 70 dB
A
D) 70 dB
14
Q
14. Exposure to sounds louder than \_\_\_\_\_\_ is likely to cause hearing damage. A) 50 dB B) 70 dB C) 120 dB D) 100 dB
A
D) 100 dB
15
Q
15. Rock musicians frequently show loss of sensitivity to sound in the: A) 4000-Hz range. B) 5000-Hz range. C) 6000-Hz range. D) 7000-Hz range.
A
C) 6000-Hz range.
16
Q
16. Pure tones are sounds: A) that are not amplified. B) with a single frequency. C) that have a unique timbre. D) with a pitch between 5000 and 10,000Hz.
A
B) with a single frequency.
17
Q
17. Complex tones are: A) low-frequency tones. B) high-frequency tones. C) a combination of frequencies. D) half tones.
A
C) a combination of frequencies.
18
Q
18. In order to break a complex tone down into its constituent pure tones, perform a: A) Fourier analysis. B) regression analysis. C) pattern analysis. D) spectral analysis
A
A) Fourier analysis.
19
Q
19. The rate at which a complex waveform repeats is called its: A) resonant frequency. B) Fourier frequency. C) fundamental frequency. D) repetition frequency.
A
C) fundamental frequency.
20
Q
- Overtones are:
A) high-frequency tones.
B) half increments of the fundamental frequency.
C) multiples of the fundamental frequency.
D) restricted only to speech sounds.
A
C) multiples of the fundamental frequency.
21
Q
21. \_\_\_\_\_\_ are examples of complex tones. A) Notes played by musical instruments B) Bird songs C) Human speech sounds D) All of the answers are correct
A
D) All of the answers are correct.
22
Q
22. Aperiodic tones are considered to be: A) noise. B) pure tones. C) complex tones. D) overtones
A
A) noise.
23
Q
23. Nonspeech and nonmusical noise are perceived as a buzz at a rate of about: A) 3 segments per second. B) 5 segments per second. C) 7 segments per second. D) 10 segments per second
A
B) 5 segments per second.
24
Q
24. We are capable of understanding speech at rates of \_\_\_\_\_\_ segments per second. A) 30 B) 40 C) 50 D) 60
A
A) 30
25
```
25. Frequency is described in:
A) decibels.
B) hertz.
C) pitch.
D) segments per second.
```
B) hertz.
26
```
26. Musical sounds differ from one another in:
A) loudness.
B) quality.
C) pitch.
D) loudness, quality, and pitch.
```
D) loudness, quality, and pitch.
27
```
27. Timbre refers to:
A) our perception of loudness.
B) our perception of pitch.
C) a sound’s perceived uniqueness.
D) None of the answers is correct.
```
C) a sound’s perceived uniqueness.
28
```
28. Prosody means the same as:
A) tone of voice.
B) speech amplitude.
C) speed of language.
D) frequency.
```
A) tone of voice.
29
```
29. It is likely that speech and music perception is located in the:
A) frontal lobes.
B) parietal lobes.
C) temporal lobes.
D) frontal and temporal lobes.
```
C) temporal lobes.
30
```
30. The auditory system has:
A) one type of receptor.
B) three types of receptors.
C) a different type of receptor for each frequency.
D) four types of receptors.
```
A) one type of receptor.
31
31. The purpose of the pinna is to:
A) transduce sound waves into neural firing.
B) protect the inner ear.
C) funnel sound waves into the ear canal.
D) vibrate in response to sound waves.
D) vibrate in response to sound waves.
32
```
32. The correct order of the middle ear bones from nearest to the eardrum to nearest the oval window
is:
A) stirrup, anvil, hammer.
B) anvil, hammer, stirrup
C) hammer, stirrup anvil
D) hammer, anvil, stirrup
```
D) hammer, anvil, stirrup
33
```
33. The auditory receptors are:
A) on the basilar membrane.
B) on the tectorial membrane.
C) outer hair cells.
D) on the basilar membrane and outer hair cells.
```
A) on the basilar membrane.
34
```
34. The stirrup sits against the:
A) eardrum.
B) oval window.
C) round window.
D) cochlea.
```
B) oval window.
35
```
36. ______ act as auditory receptor cells.
A) Inner hair cells
B) Outer hair cells
C) Auditory nerves
D) Both inner and outer hair cells
```
A) Inner hair cells
36
```
37. Which of the following frequencies is likely to be coded closest to the apex of the cochlea?
A) 15,000 Hz
B) 18,000 Hz
C) 300 Hz
D) 1000 Hz
```
C) 300 Hz
37
```
35. ______ are attached to the basilar membrane.
A) Inner hair cells
B) Semicircular canals
C) Outer hair cells
D) Both inner and outer hair cells
```
D) Both inner and outer hair cells
38
```
38. In the human cochlea, the part of the basilar membrane nearest the oval window codes:
A) middle frequencies.
B) low frequencies.
C) high frequencies.
D) low and middle frequencies.
```
C) high frequencies.
39
```
39. In the human cochlea there are approximately ______ inner hair cells.
A) 2000
B) 3500
C) 12,000
D) 15,500
```
B) 3500
40
```
40. ______ are attached to the tectorial membrane.
A) Inner hair cells
B) Outer hair cells
C) The auditory nerves
D) Both inner and outer hair cells
```
B) Outer hair cells
41
```
41. Movement of hair-cell cilia in a direction toward the tallest cilia results in:
A) hyperpolarization.
B) polarization.
C) depolarization.
D) None of the answers is correct.
```
C) depolarization.
42
```
42. Movement of hair-cell cilia in a direction toward the shortest cilia results in:
A) hyperpolarization.
B) polarization.
C) depolarization.
D) None of the answers is correct.
```
A) hyperpolarization.
43
```
43. Bipolar cells receive input from:
A) many hair cells.
B) many ganglion cells.
C) one hair cell.
D) one ganglion cell.
```
C) one hair cell.
44
44. Which of the following sequences is the correct auditory route to the cortex?
A) cochlear nucleus, olivary complex, inferior colliculus, medial geniculate, auditory cortex
B) cochlear nucleus, inferior colliculus, olivary complex, medial geniculate, auditory cortex
C) cochlear nucleus, olivary complex, medial geniculate, inferior colliculus, auditory cortex
D) cochlear nucleus, medial geniculate, olivary complex, inferior colliculus, auditory cortex
A) cochlear nucleus, olivary complex, inferior colliculus, medial geniculate, auditory cortex
45
```
45. The thalamic relay nucleus for the auditory system is the:
A) pulvinar nucleus.
B) lateral geniculate nucleus.
C) medial geniculate nucleus.
D) ventrolateral nucleus.
```
C) medial geniculate nucleus.
46
```
46. Damage to the left auditory cortex would lead to:
A) deafness in the left ear.
B) deafness in the right ear.
C) deafness in both ears.
D) None of the answers is correct.
```
D) None of the answers is correct.
47
```
47. The recognition of objects by sound is accomplished by the:
A) dorsal auditory pathway.
B) ventral auditory pathway.
C) anterior auditory pathway.
D) lateral auditory pathway.
```
B) ventral auditory pathway.
48
48. The planum temporale is:
A) the same as Heschl’s gyrus.
B) smaller on the left than on the right in right-handed people.
C) also known as Wernicke’s area on the left side.
D) All of the answers are correct.
C) also known as Wernicke’s area on the left side.
49
```
49. The human A1 auditory area is found in:
A) the planum temporale.
B) Wernicke’s area.
C) Broca’s area.
D) Heschl’s gyrus.
```
D) Heschl’s gyrus.
50
```
50. The left planum temporale is generally larger in:
A) left-handed individuals.
B) right-handed individuals.
C) bilingual speakers.
D) females.
```
B) right-handed individuals.
51
51. _____ has a special role in processing music.
A) The left planum temporale
B) The right planum temporale
C) Heschl’s gyrus in the left hemisphere
D) Heschl’s gyrus in the right hemisphere
D) Heschl’s gyrus in the right hemisphere
52
52. A study by Thaler and colleagues examined the brain regions involved in human echolocation in
blind individuals. Their study found that echolocation in blind individuals seemed to rely on
activation in:
A) Broca’s area.
B) Wernicke’s area.
C) primary auditory cortex.
D) visual cortex.
D) visual cortex.
53
```
53. Damage to the ______ can cause problems with both language and taste perception.
A) left planum temporale
B) insula
C) left Wernicke’s area
D) right parietal cortex
```
B) insula
54
54. Research on the tuning curves of individual inner hair cells indicates that:
A) each hair cell responds only to a single frequency.
B) each hair cell responds to all possible frequencies in the human hearing range.
C) each hair cell responds maximally to a single frequency but also responds somewhat to nearby
frequencies.
D) only outer hair cells respond to different frequencies.
C) each hair cell responds maximally to a single frequency but also responds somewhat to nearby
frequencies.
55
55. Increases in loudness are coded by:
A) the activation of more hair cells.
B) the activation of more bipolar cells.
C) an increased rate of firing in bipolar cells.
D) activation of loudness detectors in the medial geniculate nucleus.
C) an increased rate of firing in bipolar cells.
56
56. Gerald is walking through the forest at night, and he hears what sounds like an animal walking
somewhere to his left. Gerald localized the source of this sound using ______, which relies on
neurons in the ______.
A) differences in arrival time between the two ears; medial superior olive
B) differences in loudness between the two ears; medial superior olive
C) differences in arrival time between the two ears; lateral superior olive
D) differences in loudness between the two ears; lateral superior olive
A) differences in arrival time between the two ears; medial superior olive
57
57. Barn owls’ ears are at different heights on the left and right sides of their head. This unique feature
helps them better locate sounds that are:
A) to the left or right.
B) above or below.
C) in front or behind.
D) All of these answers are correct.
B) above or below.
58
58. Studies with humans have shown that if two sounds presented through earphones are separated by
as little as ______ microseconds, the sound will be perceived as being on the side of the leading
ear.
A) 5
B) 10
C) 15
D) 20
B) 10
59
```
59. The computation for detecting location of sound by comparing the time difference between the two
ears occurs at the:
A) auditory cortex.
B) superior olivary complex.
C) medial geniculate.
D) inferior colliculus.
```
B) superior olivary complex.
60
```
60. In the world today there are approximately ______ languages.
A) 2000
B) 4000
C) 6000
D) 8000
```
B) 4000
61
```
61. Children in all cultures begin to combine words around ______ months of age.
A) 12
B) 14
C) 18
D) 36
```
C) 18
62
```
62. The sensitive period (i.e., critical period) for learning language is probably between:
A) 2 and 7 years of age.
B) 1 and 6 years of age.
C) 1 and 10 years of age.
D) 2 and 10 years of age.
```
B) 1 and 6 years of age.
63
```
63. The development of new languages is sometimes described as:
A) pidginization.
B) creolization.
C) lingualization.
D) None of the answers is correct.
```
B) creolization.
64
64. Eric is a 10-year-old boy who learned English and German at the same time as a child. Eric
suffered a recent head injury and has damage to Broca’s area in the left hemisphere. This means
that Eric will most likely have Broca’s aphasia:
A) for English only.
B) for German only.
C) for both English and German.
D) only if Broca’s area is damaged in both hemispheres.
C) for both English and German.
65
```
65. Broca’s area is located in the:
A) temporal lobe.
B) parietal lobe.
C) frontal lobe.
D) limbic lobe.
```
C) frontal lobe.
66
```
66. Wernicke’s area is located in the:
A) anterior temporal lobe.
B) posterior temporal lobe.
C) anterior frontal lobe.
D) posterior frontal lobe.
```
B) posterior temporal lobe.
67
67. Broca’s aphasia is associated with:
A) deficits in initiating the motor programs for speech.
B) deficits in the comprehension of language.
C) impaired facial movements.
D) impaired auditory perception.
A) deficits in initiating the motor programs for speech.
68
68. Wernicke’s aphasia is associated with:
A) deficits in initiating the motor programs for speech.
B) deficits in the comprehension of language.
C) impaired facial movements.
D) impaired auditory perception.
B) deficits in the comprehension of language.
69
```
69. Wernicke’s area is connected to Broca’s area via the:
A) fasciculus.
B) temporal fasciculus
C) frontal bundle.
D) corona radiate.
```
A) fasciculus.
70
70. Since James’s recent stroke he has had a lot of difficulty speaking meaningful sentences. For
example, the other day when a nurse asked him how he was doing, he said, “Colorful bicycles
sleep furiously.” It appears James may have damage to his:
A) right frontal lobe.
B) left temporal lobe.
C) left frontal lobe.
D) right temporal lobe.
B) left temporal lobe.
71
71. Stimulation of Broca’s area by Penfield produced:
A) comprehension deficits.
B) language-expression deficits.
C) both comprehension deficits and language expression deficits.
D) None of the answers is correct.
C) both comprehension deficits and language expression deficits.
72
72. Using electrical stimulation, Penfield was able to show that stimulation of what later became
known as the supplementary speech area caused:
A) auditory hallucinations (i.e., hearing voices).
B) the patient to produce meaningless sentences.
C) speech arrest.
D) sensations in the mouth and tongue.
C) speech arrest.
73
```
73. Mapping of language sites using electrical stimulation was first accomplished by:
A) Paul Broca.
B) Karl Wernicke.
C) Wilder Penfield.
D) John Hughlings Jackson.
```
C) Wilder Penfield.
74
```
74. Stimulation of the A1 area of the auditory cortex by Penfield produced:
A) elicitation of words.
B) hearing voices.
C) simple tones.
D) slurring of speech.
```
C) simple tones.
75
75. When the patient Susan S. (described in the text) lost her left temporal lobe, she could no longer:
A) recognize melodies.
B) write or read music.
C) read.
D) pick up tiny mistakes in performed music.
C) read.
76
76. Joanne had to have her entire left hemisphere removed to treat her severe epilepsy. Since the
removal of her left hemisphere Joanne:
A) can no longer understand language.
B) can no longer understand music.
C) can no longer understand language but can still understand music.
D) can no longer understand language or music.
C) can no longer understand language but can still understand music.
77
```
77. Positron emission tomography (PET):
A) uses radioactively labeled water.
B) measures local blood flow.
C) involves the use of a camera.
D) All of the answers are correct.
```
D) All of the answers are correct.
78
```
78. A mass of enlarged and tortuous cortical blood vessels that forms congenitally is called an:
A) embolism.
B) AV malformation.
C) aneurysm.
D) thrombosis.
```
B) AV malformation.
79
79. Simple auditory stimuli such as tones are processed in ______, whereas complex sounds (e.g.,
speech syllables) are processed in ______.
A) A1; secondary auditory areas
B) secondary auditory areas; A1
C) A1; Broca’s area
D) A1; the parietal cortex
A) A1; secondary auditory areas
80
```
80. Discriminating between speech sounds (e.g., “ba” vs. “ga”) activates:
A) Wernicke’s area.
B) Broca’s area.
C) A1.
D) the insula.
```
B) Broca’s area.
81
```
81. A ballooning of an arterial wall is called an:
A) embolism.
B) blood clot.
C) aneurysm.
D) angioma.
```
D) angioma.
82
```
82. The left hemisphere may play a role in the ______ of music.
A) perception
B) production
C) understanding
D) None of the answers is correct.
```
B) production
83
83. Evidence would suggest that melodies primarily activate:
A) Heschl’s gyrus on the left side.
B) Heschl’s gyrus on the right side.
C) the area in front of Heschl’s gyrus on the left side.
D) the area in front of Heschl’s gyrus on the right side.
D) the area in front of Heschl’s gyrus on the right side.
84
84. PET imaging studies have revealed that comparing different pitches of sound activates:
A) the left frontal lobe.
B) the right frontal lobe.
C) the left auditory cortex.
D) Heschl’s gyrus in the right hemisphere.
B) the right frontal lobe.
85
85. Compared to nonmusicians, musicians have:
A) thicker frontal and parietal areas.
B) thicker temporal and frontal areas.
C) thicker temporal areas but thinner parietal areas.
D) thinner frontal but thicker temporal areas.
B) thicker temporal and frontal areas.
86
86. Music therapy has been shown to have beneficial effects for patients with:
A) depression.
B) Parkinson’s disease.
C) Huntington’s disease.
D) both depression and Parkinson’s disease.
D) both depression and Parkinson’s disease.
87
87. Which of the following statements about birdsong is correct?
A) Birdsong varies between species but not within a species.
B) Birdsong is used to mark territories.
C) Birdsong is used to attract a mate.
D) All of the answers are correct.
A) Birdsong varies between species but not within a species.
88
88. Research into the acquisition of birdsong has indicated that birdsongs are:
A) learned from other birds.
B) genetically determined.
C) learned specifically from parents.
D) genetically determined and learned from other birds.
D) genetically determined and learned from other birds.
89
89. Subsong refers to:
A) songs that are not completely learned.
B) noises that would be like babbling in humans.
C) songs that are below the perceived human auditory threshold.
D) syrinx movements not accompanied by sound.
B) noises that would be like babbling in humans.
90
90. The major structure(s) involved in birdsong is(are):
A) the higher vocal control center.
B) the nucleus robustus archistriatalis.
C) the area postrema.
D) both the higher vocal control center and the nucleus robustus archistriatalis.
D) both the higher vocal control center and the nucleus robustus archistriatalis.
91
```
91. Birdsong structures are:
A) larger in male than in female birds.
B) influenced entirely by genetics.
C) unaffected by hormones.
D) All of the answers are correct.
```
A) larger in male than in female birds.
92
92. The higher vocal control center and nucleus robustus archistriatalis are to birdsong as:
A) V1 and IT are to seeing.
B) A1 and A2 are to hearing.
C) Broca’s area and Wernicke’s area are to human language.
D) M1 and premotor cortex are to movement.
C) Broca’s area and Wernicke’s area are to human language.
93
```
93. _____ is(are) the ability to identify and locate objects by bouncing sound waves off of the object.
A) Sonar
B) Echolocation
C) Radar
D) Both sonar and echolocation
```
B) Echolocation
94
```
94. An echolocating bat can emit cries in the range of:
A) 13,000 to 20,000 Hz.
B) 20,000 to 50,000 Hz.
C) 5000 to 100,000 Hz.
D) 12,000 to 200,000 Hz.
```
D) 12,000 to 200,000 Hz.
