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NASM Section 4 > Chapter 11 > Flashcards

Chapter 11 Flashcards

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1
Q

Morbidity

A

The state of having a disease

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2
Q

Contraindication

A

A specific situation where a medication procedure or exercise should be avoided because it may prove to be harmful to the individual.

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3
Q

Physical Activity Readiness Questionaire (PAR-Q+)

A

A detailed questionnaire designed to assess an individual’s physical readiness to engage in structured exercise.

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4
Q

Thermoregulation

A

The physiological process by which the body maintains a relatively constant internal body temperature, including events like sweating to cool the body and shivering to warm the body.

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5
Q

Peripheral vasodilation

A

The action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body.

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6
Q

What are the four things a personal trainer should be aware of in regards to fitness assessments?

A

1.relevance
2. Appropriateness
3. Validity
4. Reliability

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7
Q

Which fitness assessments would the trainer want to make sure and do before exercise?

A

RHR (resting heart rate),
Blood pressure and skinfold body fat testing are all acutely affected by physical exertion, which may screw results.

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8
Q

Thermoregulation during exercise creates peripheral vasodilation at or around the skin to help remove heat, but this can do what to a skinfold body fat measurement score?

A

It can increase a skinfold body fat measurement score

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9
Q

Clients should avoid what things before an assessment?

A

Avoid heavy food, tobacco, alcohol, and caffeine at least 3 hours prior to testing. Avoid exercise or strenuous activity the day before or the day of the test and get adequate amounts of sleep the night before.

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10
Q

What are the steps in measuring a client’s RHR?

A
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11
Q

Blood pressure

A

The outward pressure exerted by the blood on the vessel walls; reported as systolic/diastolic.

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12
Q

Systolic blood pressure (SBP)

A

The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is contracting; the first (top) number recorded.

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13
Q

Diastolic blood pressure (DBP)

A

The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when heart is at rest or between beats; the second (bottom) number recorded.

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14
Q

Arterial system

A

The system of arteries carrying blood away from the heart

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15
Q

Brachial artery

A

The primary artery of the upper arm, which is often used as a site for measuring blood pressure.

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16
Q

What would be considered elevated blood pressure?

A

Systolic BP 120-129, diastolic BP <80mm Hg

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17
Q

How should you record BP for a client?

A
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18
Q

Anthropometry

A

The field of study of the measurement of living humans for purposes of understanding human physical variation in size, weight, and proportion.

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19
Q

What are the two BMI formulas?

A

Metric formula: BMI = weight (kg) divided by [hight (m)]^2

Imperial formula: BMI = 703 x weight (lb) divided by [height (in.)]^2

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20
Q

Someone with a bmi of 25-29.9 is considered?

A

Overweight with an increased disease risk

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21
Q

Someone with a 37 BMI is considered?

A

Obesity 2 with a very high risk of disease

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22
Q

What’s considered a very low risk category for woman’s waist circumference? And for men?

A

<70 cm (27.5 in) for woman
<80 cm (<31.5 in.) for men

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23
Q

What’s considered a very high risk category for waist circumference for woman? And for men?

A

> 110cm (> 43.3 in.) for woman
120 cm (> 47.2 in.)

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24
Q

What’s considered a low risk for waist to hip ratio for men and woman?

A

.95 or lower for men
.80 or lower for woman

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25
What’s considered a high health risk for waist to hip ratio for men and woman?
1.0 or higher for men .86 or higher for women.
26
How do you calculate the waist to hip ratio (WHR)?
WHR = Waist measurement divided by Hip measurement
27
Gluteal fold
The area where the fold of the buttocks joins the back of the thigh
28
Where does a personal trainer take the skinfold measurements?
8 places on the body:
29
What are some things to keep in mind when using calipers/skin fold measurements?
30
Jackson and pillock 7-site protocol
Measures the thickness of skin folds at seven different places within the body to estimate body fat percentage.
31
Jackson and pollock 3- site protocol
Measures the thickness of skin folds at three different places within the body to estimate body fat percentage.
32
Four-site Durnan- Womersley protocol
Measures the thickness of skin folds at four different places (biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac) within the body to estimate body fat percentage.
33
How is the body fat percentage calculated with the Durnin - Womersley skin folds measurement?
Add the totals of the four skin folds sites and then find the appropriate sex and age categories for the body composition in the Durnin-Womersley body fat percentage chart:
34
How do you find the body fat percentage for the Jackson and pollock seven site and three site protocol?
Once the sum of the SKFs (skin folds measurements) have been recorded, various online resources can be used for estimating body fat percentage.
35
When is the Durnin- Womersley formula best used?
For individuals between the ages of 17 and 49 years of age and may not be as applicable for older adults. A potential advantage is that it only requires measurements for the upper body; it does not require an individual to wear shorts for a thigh measurement.
36
What is SFM (skin fold measurement) is considered the most accurate?
The seven site method
37
Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA)
A body composition assessment technique that estimates body fat percentage by measuring the resistance to the flow of electrical currents introduced into the body.
38
What are the BIAs (bioelectrical impedance conduction) limitations?
These include any event where the body either retains or loses water. Examples: fluctuating hydration levels, dehydration, extreme temperatures, heavy sweat rates, the use of diuretic, and even the presence of urine in the bladder volume.
39
Archimedes’ principle
The assumption stating that the volume of fluid displaced is equivalent to the volume of an object, fully immersed in that fluid or to the specific fraction of the volume below the surface.
40
What is the field of study of the measurement of living humans for purposes or understanding human physical variation in size, weight and proportion?
Anthropometry
41
Which principle assumes that the volume of fluid displaced by an object is equivalent to the volume of the object, fully immersed in that fluid or to the specific fraction of the volume below the service?
Archimedes’ principle
42
Mitochondria
The part of the cell that uses the nutrients to create energy for the cell; commonly known as the powerhouse of the cell.
43
Vo2max
The most valid measurement of aerobic fitness is a VO2max test. Oxygen consumption (VO2) is a measure of body’s usage rate of oxygen; it’s the difference between inspired and expired oxygen. It reflects the body’s ability to deliver oxygen to the exercising muscles and use it in mitochondria to manufacture energy aerobically. VO2max, or maximal oxygen uptake, measures the body’s upper limit of oxygen use, which is sometimes called peak VO2. •a higher VO2 max score reflects greater oxygen utilization and a greater capacity for physical work. •VO2max usually peaks at around ages 25 years to the early 30s, but it is highly trainable, implying that an active person in their 40s could have a higher VO2max than during their sedentary 20s. •VO2max decreases by approximately 5% per decade in fit individuals (an average of .5% per year) and around 10% per decade in unfit individuals (an average of 1.0% per year)
44
Ratings of perceived exertion
A subjective rating of perceived exertion (RPE) is a technique used to express or validate how hard a client feels that they are working during exercise.
45
YMCA 3 min step test
Cardiorespiratory assessment that assesses the aerobic fitness of deconditioned clients by having them complete 3 mins of continuous stepping in and off a 12-in (30-cm) box. Considered suitable for low risk, apparently healthy, non athletic adults. Cardiorespiratory fitness is evaluated from the recovery heart rate (RHR) rather than from an estimate of VO2max.
46
Rockport walk test
An aerobic test for deconditioned individuals or those of low fitness levels in which they are instructed to walk as fast as possible and have their pulse taken immediately after completing 1 mile.
47
1.5-mile 2.4 km) run test
An aerobic test that measures cardiorespriatory endurance by having the participant cover the distance of 1.5 miles in a short a time as possible.
48
Talk test
An aerobic test that measures the participants ability to talk or hold a conversation during an activity at various intensity levels.
49
Ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1)
The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources
50
Steady-state (SS) heart rate
Any stage at which the physiological response of heart rate from the cardiovascular system becomes relatively constant in relation to the amount of work being performed. (The heart rate response matches the level of work being performed).
51
The Ventilatory threshold (VT1) Test
An incremental test performed on any device (treadmill, bicycle) that gradually progresses in intensity level and relies on the interpretation of the way a person talks to determine a specific event at which the body’s metabolism undergoes a significant change. Aerobic test that aims to estimate thru nest of the body’s usage of a balance of fuels (50% fat, 50% carbs). Because it is an aerobic test, Steady state (ss) heart rate must be attained before any assessment of talking is collected.
52
Ventilatory threshold 2 (VT2)
The point where glucose provides nearly all the energy of the activity.
53
Anaerobic energy systems
Energy systems used to perform work in which glycogen is converted to glucose and oxygen is insufficient to break down pyruvate and create adenosine triphosphate.
54
Ventilatory threshold 2 (VT2) talk test
Measures the level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for more than a few minutes. At this level the body relies heavily on the anaerobic energy systems that begin to overwhelm the blood’s lactic acid buffering capacity. At this level the individual cannot respond to a question responds “no”.
55
What is the most valid measurement of aerobic fitness?
VO2max
56
Which term defines the degree to which a test specifically measures what it is intended to measure?
Validity
57
What key term would best describe an overactive hip flexor complex decreasing neural drive to the hip extensor complex?
Altered reciprocal inhibition occurs when an overactive agonist muscle decreases the neural drive to its functional antagonist.
58
Which of these exercises targets the triceps musculature?
Close grip bench press. The proper hand position should be slightly inside shoulder-width apart during this exercise. Moving the hands inward places more emphasis on the triceps musculature, but the anterior shoulders and chest are still involved with this exercise.
59
SAQ training among seniors may help prevent which of the following conditions?
Osteopenia. Osteopenia is a condition where bone mineral density is lower than normal, but not low enough to be classified as osteoporosis. It's essentially an early stage of bone loss, and while it doesn't typically cause symptoms, it increases the risk of developing osteoporosis and fractures.
60
Which of the following would not be an example of core musculature to stabilize the trunk and pelvis?
Pectoral group. The pectoral group (major and minor) assist in upper-body shoulder flexion, therefore do not directly affect core stabilization. Although we want all muscles to work together in sync, the pectoral group does not directly affect the core.
61
Starting at what percentage of bone density loss does the risk of hip fracture increase by 2.5 times?
A 10% loss in bone density can increase risk of fracture by 2.5 times.
62
Agility plus which of the following concepts are separate but related concepts that both fit underneath the umbrella of agility training?
Change of direction
63
What phase of plyometric movement is also referred to as the electromechanical delay?
Amortization
64
Isometric Contractions:
Isometric contractions are what occur in the muscles during the amortization phase.
65
Which of the following markers of exercise intensity is considered to be the most subjective?
Ratings of perceived exertion
66
Maintaining one's balance while standing still on a single foot in contact with a firm surface can best be described as what type of balance?
Static balance
67
Which of the following best defines the base of support of the body?
The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface
68
The risk of which lower-extremity injury was decreased in female basketball athletes who participated in a 5-week balance training program that improved landing movement mechanics?
Anterior cruciate ligament injury
69
A client is performing a barbell squat exercise. How should the fitness professional spot their client?
The fitness professional should spot underneath the client's armpits.
70
When designing a 4-zone model for cardiorespiratory training, what range of intensity defines zone 2?
From VT1 to the midpoint between VT1 and VT2
71
What type of movements should be used before progressing to single-foot plyometric exercises?
Dual-foot drills
72
Which exercise is a total-body power-focused movement?
Two-arm push press
73
Which regions of the spine demonstrate lordotic curves?
Cervical and lumbar
74
What type of resistance training exercise best describes a kettlebell bottoms-up movement?
Stabilization-focused exercise
75
Which surface would be the most challenging for a new client starting a balance training program?
BOSU ball
76
Other than age, training history, and injury history, what screening tool is most beneficial in assessing whether a client is ready for plyometric training?
Movement Assessments
77
What concept allows a person to jump higher during plyometric exercises?
Eccentric loading
78
Which of the following has been used specifically as part of a protocol to improve balance?
Biomechanical ankle platform system
79
Which synergist would assist the upper-body pectoral muscles to enhance chest stabilization, strength, or power?
Triceps brachii
80
What is the superior boundary of the core?
Diaphragm
81
What is the primary function of the global muscles of the core?
Force production during dynamic whole-body movements
82

NASM Section 4 (4 decks)

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