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Medical Terminology > Chapter 11 > Flashcards

Chapter 11 Flashcards

1
Q

opt/i, opt/o, optic/o, opthalm/o

A

eyes; receptor organs for the sense of sight

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2
Q

ir/i, ir/o, iris/o, iris/o

A

Iris; controls the amount of light entering the eye

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3
Q

phac/o, phak/o

A

lens; focuses rays of light on the retina

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4
Q

retin/o

A

retina; converts light images into electrical impulses and transmits them to the brain

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5
Q

acous/o, acoust/o, audi/o, audit/o, ot/o

A

ears; receptor organs for the sense of hearing; also help maintain balance

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6
Q

pinn/i

A

outer ear; transmits sound waves to the middle ear

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7
Q

myring/o, tympan/o

A

middle ear; transmits sound waves to the inner ear

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8
Q

labyrinth/o

A

inner ears; receives sound vibrations and transmits them to the brain

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9
Q

blephar/o

A

eyelid

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10
Q

-cusis

A

hearing

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11
Q

irid/o

A

iris, colored part of eye

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12
Q

kerat/o

A

horny, hard, cornea

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13
Q

-opia

A

visual condition

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14
Q

presby/o

A

old age

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15
Q

scler/o

A

sclera, white of eye, hard

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16
Q

trop/o

A

turn, change

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17
Q

tympan/o

A

tympanic membrane, eardrum

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18
Q

adnexa

A

The appendages or accessory structures of an organ. In the eye, these are the structures outside the eyeball, including the orbit, eye muscles, eyelids, eyelashes, conjunctiva, and lacrimal apparatus.

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19
Q

amblyopia

A

Dimness of vision or the partial loss of sight, especially in one eye, without detectable disease of the eye.

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20
Q

ametropia

A

Any error of refraction in which images do not focus properly on the retina.

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21
Q

anisocoria

A

A condition in which the pupils are unequal in size.

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22
Q

astigmatism (AS)

A

A condition in which the eye does not focus properly because of uneven curvatures of the cornea.

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23
Q

audiometry

A

The use of an audiometer to measure hearing acuity.

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24
Q

cataract (CAT)

A

The loss of transparency of the lens of the eye that causes a progressive loss of visual clarity.

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25
Q

chalazion

A

A nodule or cyst, usually on the upper eyelid, caused by obstruction in a sebaceous gland.

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26
Q

cochlear implant

A

An electronic device that bypasses the damaged portions of the ear and directly stimulates the auditory nerve.

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27
Q

conjunctivitis (CI)

A

Inflammation of the conjunctiva, usually caused by an infection or allergy; also known as pinkeye.

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28
Q

dacryoadenitis

A

An inflammation of the lacrimal gland that can be a bacterial, viral, or fungal infection.

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29
Q

diplopia

A

The perception of two images of a single object; also known as double vision.

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30
Q

ectropion

A

The eversion (turning outward) of the edge of an eyelid.

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31
Q

emmetropia (EM, em)

A

The normal relationship between the refractive power of the eye and the shape of the eye that that enables light rays to focus correctly on the retina.

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32
Q

entropion

A

The inversion (turning inward) of the edge of an eyelid.

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33
Q

esotropia

A

Strabismus characterized by an inward deviation of one eye or both eyes; also known as cross-eyes.

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34
Q

exotropia

A

Strabismus characterized by the outward deviation of one eye relative to the other; also known as walleye.

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35
Q

fluorescein angiography

A

A photographic study of the blood vessels in the back of the eye following the intravenous injection of a fluorescein dye that acts as a contrast medium.

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36
Q

glaucoma (G, clc)

A

A group of eye diseases characterized by increased intraocular (IOP) that causes damage to the optic nerve and retinal nerve fibers.

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37
Q

hemianopia

A

Blindness in one-half of the visual field (VF).

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38
Q

hordeolum

A

A pus-filled and often painful lesion on the eyelid resulting from an infection in a sebaceous gland; also known as a stye.

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39
Q

hyperopia

A

A vision defect in which light rays focus beyond the retina; also known as farsightedness.

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40
Q

infectious myringitis

A

A contagious inflammation associated with a middle-ear infection that causes painful blisters on the eardrum.

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41
Q

iridectomy

A

The surgical removal of a portion of the iris tissue.

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42
Q

iritis

A

Inflammation of the uvea affecting primarily structures in the front of the eye.

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43
Q

keratitis

A

Inflammation of the cornea.

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44
Q

labyrinthectomy

A

The surgical removal of all or a portion of the labyrinth of the inner ear.

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45
Q

laser trabeculoplasty

A

Treatment of open-angle glaucoma in which a laser is used to create an opening in the trabecular meshwork to allow fluid to drain properly.

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46
Q

mastoidectomy

A

The surgical removal of mastoid cells.

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47
Q

mydriasis

A

The dilation of the pupil.

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48
Q

myopia

A

A vision defect in which light rays focus in front of the retina; also known as nearsightedness.

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49
Q

myringotomy

A

A small surgical incision into the eardrum to relieve pressure from excess pus or fluid or to create an opening for the placement of ear tubes.

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50
Q

nyctalopia

A

A condition in which an individual with normal daytime vision has difficulty seeing at night; also known as night blindness.

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51
Q

nystagmus

A

Involuntary, constant, rhythmic movement of the eyeball.

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52
Q

ophthalmoscopy

A

The visual examination of the fundus (back part) of the eye with an ophthalmoscope; also known as funduscopy.

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53
Q

optometrist

A

A specialist who holds a Doctor of Optometry degree and provides primary eye care, including diagnosing eye diseases and conditions and measuring the accuracy of vision to determine if corrective lenses are needed.

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54
Q

otitis media

A

Inflammation of the middle ear.

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55
Q

otomycosis

A

A fungal infection of the external auditory canal; also known as swimmer’s ear.

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56
Q

otopyorrhea

A

The flow of pus from the ear.

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57
Q

otorrhea

A

Any discharge from the ear.

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58
Q

otosclerosis

A

Ankylosis of the bones of the middle ear, resulting in a conductive hearing loss.

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59
Q

papilledema

A

Swelling and inflammation of the optic nerve at the point of entrance into the eye through the optic disk; also known as choked disk.

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60
Q

periorbital edema

A

Swelling of the tissues surrounding the eye or eyes.

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61
Q

photophobia

A

Excessive sensitivity to light.

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62
Q

presbycusis

A

A gradual sensorineural hearing loss that occurs as the body ages.

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63
Q

presbyopia

A

Decline of near vision that occurs with age as the lens becomes less flexible and the muscles of the ciliary body become weaker.

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64
Q

ptosis

A

Drooping of the upper eyelid that is usually due to paralysis.

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65
Q

radial keratotomy (RK)

A

A surgical procedure to treat myopia.

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66
Q

retinopexy

A

Treatment to reattach the detached area in a retinal detachment using a laser

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67
Q

scleritis

A

Inflammation of the sclera of the eye.

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68
Q

sensorineural hearing loss

A

Deafness that develops when the auditory nerve or hair cells in the inner ear are damaged.

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69
Q

stapedectomy

A

The surgical removal of part of the stapes bone and its replacement with a small prosthetic device.

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70
Q

strabismus

A

A disorder in which the eyes point in different directions or are not aligned correctly because the eye muscles are unable to focus.

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71
Q

tarsorrhaphy

A

The partial or complete suturing together of the upper and lower eyelids.

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72
Q

tinnitus

A

A ringing, buzzing, or roaring sound in one or both ears.

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73
Q

tonometry

A

The part of a routine eye examination in which intraocular pressure (IOP) is measured.

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74
Q

tympanometry

A

The use of air pressure in the ear canal to test for disorders of the middle ear.

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75
Q

vertigo

A

A sense of whirling, dizziness, and the loss of balance, often combined with nausea and vomiting.

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76
Q

vitrectomy

A

The removal of the vitreous fluid of the posterior chamber of the eye and its replacement with a clear solution.

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77
Q

xerophthalmia

A

Drying of the eye surfaces, including the conjunctiva; also known as dry eye.

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78
Q

The Joint Commission

A

the largest American standards-setting and accrediting body in health care, recommends writing out these terms instead of using abbreviations

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79
Q

adnexa of the eyes

A

also known as adnexa oculi, are the structures outside the eyeball. These include the orbit, eye muscles, eyelids, eyelashes, conjunctiva, and lacrimal apparatus

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80
Q

orbit

A

also known as the eye socket, is the bony cavity of the skull that contains and protects the eyeball and its associated muscles, blood vessels, and nerves

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81
Q

eye muscles

A

arranged in three pairs, are attached to each eye; These are the:

Superior and inferior oblique muscles
Superior and inferior rectus muscles
Lateral and medial rectus muscles

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82
Q

Binocular vision

A

occurs when the muscles of both eyes work together in coordination to make normal depth perception possible. Depth perception is the ability to see things in three dimensions

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83
Q

canthus

A

the angle where the upper and lower eyelids meet

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84
Q

cilia

A

are small hairs, make up the eyebrows and eyelashes. Cilia are also present in the nose to prevent foreign matter from being inhaled.

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85
Q

tarsus

A

also known as the tarsal plate, is the framework within the upper and lower eyelids that provides the necessary stiffness and shape

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86
Q

conjunctiva

A

the transparent mucous membrane that lines the underside of each eyelid and continues to form a protective covering over the exposed surface of the eyeball.

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87
Q

lacrimal apparatus

A

also known as the tear apparatus, consists of the structures that produce, store, and remove tears.

88
Q

lacrimal glands

A

which secrete lacrimal fluid (tears), are located on the underside of the upper eyelid just above the outer corner of each eye

89
Q

lacrimal fluid

A

commonly known as tears, is to maintain moisture on the anterior surface of the eyeball. Blinking distributes the lacrimal fluid across the eye.

90
Q

lacrimal canal

A

consists of a duct at the inner corner of each eye. These ducts collect tears and empty them into the lacrimal sacs. Crying is the overflowing of tears from the lacrimal canals.

91
Q

lacrimal sac

A

also known the tear sac, is an enlargement of the upper portion of the lacrimal duct.

92
Q

lacrimal duct

A

also known as the nasolacrimal duct, is the passageway that drains excess tears into the nose.

93
Q

eyeball

A

also known as the globe, is a 1-inch sphere with only about one-sixth of its surface visible

94
Q

optic

A

means pertaining to the eye or sight

95
Q

Ocular

A

means pertaining to the eye

96
Q

Extraocular

A

means outside the eyeball

97
Q

Intraocular

A

means within the eyeball

98
Q

sclera

A

also known as the white of the eye, maintains the shape of the eye and protects the delicate inner layers of tissue. This tough, fibrous tissue forms the outer layer of the eye, except for the part covered by the cornea.

99
Q

choroid

A

also known as the choroid coat, is the opaque middle layer of the eyeball that contains many blood vessels and provides the blood supply for the entire eye. Opaque means that light cannot pass through this substance.

100
Q

retina

A

the sensitive innermost layer that lines the posterior segment of the eye. The retina receives nerve impulses and transmits them to the brain via the optic nerve. This is also known as the second cranial nerve

101
Q

Aqueous humor

A

which is also known as aqueous fluid, fills both of these chambers. The term aqueous means watery or containing water. As used here, the term humor describes any clear body liquid or semifluid substance

102
Q

Intraocular pressure (IOP)

A

a measurement of the fluid pressure inside the eye. This pressure is regulated by the rate at which aqueous humor enters and leaves the eye.

103
Q

posterior segment

A

which makes up the remaining two-thirds of the eyeball, is lined with the retina and filled with vitreous humor

104
Q

vitreous humor

A

Also known as vitreous gel, this is a soft, clear, jelly-like mass that contains millions of fine fibers.

105
Q

macula

A

also known as the macula lutea, is the clearly defined light-sensitive area in the center of the retina that is responsible for sharp central vision.

106
Q

fovea centralis

A

a pit in the middle of the macula. Color vision is best in this area because it contains a high concentration of cones and no rods.

107
Q

optic disk

A

also known as the blind spot, is a small region in the eye where the nerve endings of the retina enter the optic nerve. This is called the blind spot, because it does not contain any rods or cones to convert images into nerve impulses.

108
Q

optic nerve

A

transmits these nerve impulses from the retina to the brain.

109
Q

uvea

A

the pigmented layer of the eye. It has a rich blood supply and consists of the choroid, ciliary body, and iris

110
Q

ciliary body

A

is located within the choroid, is a set of muscles and suspensory ligaments that adjust the thickness of the lens to refine the focus of light rays on the retina

111
Q

cornea

A

the transparent outer surface of the eye covering the iris and pupil. It is the primary structure focusing light rays entering the eye

112
Q

pupil

A

the black circular opening in the center of the iris that permits light to enter the eye.

113
Q

lens

A

the clear, flexible, curved structure that focuses images on the retina. The lens is contained within a clear capsule located behind the iris and pupil.

114
Q

Accommodation

A

the process whereby the eyes make adjustments for seeing objects at various distances. These adjustments include contraction (narrowing) and dilation (widening) of the pupil, movement of the eyes, and changes in the shape of the lens

115
Q

Convergence

A

the simultaneous inward movement of the eyes toward each other. This occurs in an effort to maintain single binocular vision as an object comes nearer.

116
Q

Emmetropia

A

the normal relationship between the refractive power of the eye and the shape of the eye that enables light rays to focus correctly on the retina

117
Q

Refraction

A

also refractive power, is the ability of the lens to bend light rays so they focus on the retina

118
Q

Visual acuity (VA)

A

the ability to distinguish object details and shape at a distance. Acuity means sharpness

119
Q

ophthalmologist

A

a physician who specializes in diagnosing and treating the full spectrum of diseases and disorders of the eyes, from vision correction to eye surgery

120
Q

optician

A

a health care practitioner who designs, fits, and dispenses lenses for vision correction

121
Q

Blepharitis

A

swelling of the eyelid, often at the location of the eyelash hair follicles

122
Q

Subconjunctival hemorrhage

A

bleeding between the conjunctiva and the sclera. This condition, which is usually caused by an injury, creates a red area over the white of the eye

123
Q

Uveitis

A

an inflammation of the uvea causing swelling and irritation

124
Q

corneal abrasion

A

an injury, such as a scratch or irritation, to the outer layers of the cornea

125
Q

corneal ulcer

A

a pitting of the cornea caused by an infection or injury. Although these ulcers heal with treatment, they can leave a cloudy scar that impairs vision.

126
Q

Diabetic retinopathy

A

damage to the retina as a complication of uncontrolled diabetes.

127
Q

Keratoconus

A

occurs when the cornea becomes irregular and cone-shaped, causing blurring and distortion of vision.

128
Q

Floaters

A

also known as vitreous floaters, are particles of cellular debris that float in the vitreous humor and cast shadows on the retina. Floaters often occur normally but may be an indication of retinal detachment, especially when accompanied by photopsi

129
Q

Photopsia

A

the presence of what appears to be flashes of light, or flashers

130
Q

Miosis

A

the contraction of the pupil, normally in response to exposure to light but also possibly due to the use of prescription or illegal drugs

131
Q

Mydriasis

A

the dilation of the pupil, is the opposite of miosis

132
Q

Nystagmus

A

an involuntary, constant, rhythmic movement of the eyeball that can be congenital or caused by a neurological injury or drug use.

133
Q

Retinal detachment (RD)

A

also known as a detached retina, and retinal tears are the separation of some or all of the light-sensitive retina from the choroid. If not treated, the entire retina can detach, causing blindness. These conditions can be caused by head trauma, aging, or the vitreous humor separating from the retina

134
Q

Retinitis pigmentosa

A

a progressive degeneration of the retina that affects night and peripheral vision. It can be detected by the presence of dark pigmented spots in the retina.

135
Q

Open-angle glaucoma

A

also known as chronic glaucoma, is by far the most common form of this condition. The trabecular meshwork gradually becomes blocked, causing a buildup of pressure. Symptoms of this condition are not noticed by the patient until the optic nerve has been damaged; however, it can be detected earlier through regular eye examinations, including tonometry and visual field testing

136
Q

closed-angle glaucoma

A

also known as acute glaucoma, the opening between the cornea and iris narrows so that fluid cannot reach the trabecular meshwork. This narrowing can cause a sudden increase in the intraocular pressure that produces severe pain, nausea, redness of the eye, and blurred vision. Without immediate treatment, blindness can occur in as little as two days.

137
Q

Macular degeneration (MD)

A

a gradually progressive condition in which the macula at the center of the retina is damaged, resulting in the loss of central vision but not in total blindness
Age-related macular degeneration occurs most frequently in older people and is the leading cause of severe vision loss in those over 60.
Dry macular degeneration, which accounts for 90% of all AMD cases, is caused by the slow deterioration of the cells of the macula.
Wet macular degeneration is an advanced form of dry AMD. New blood vessels growing beneath the retina leak blood and fluid, damaging the retinal cells. These small hemorrhages usually result in rapid and severe vision loss.

138
Q

Monochromatism

A

also known as color blindness, is the inability to distinguish certain colors in a normal manner

139
Q

refractive disorder

A

a focusing problem that occurs when the lens and cornea do not bend light so that it focuses properly on the retina

140
Q

Scotoma

A

also known as blind spot, is an abnormal area of diminished vision surrounded by an area of normal vision

141
Q

Snellen chart (SC)

A

used to measure visual acuity
The results for each eye are recorded as a fraction with 20/20 being considered normal.

The first number indicates the standard distance from the chart, which is 20 feet.
The second number indicates the deviation from the norm based on the ability to read progressively smaller lines of letters on the chart

142
Q

refraction test

A

done to determine an eye’s refractive error so that the best corrective lenses can be prescribed. This term also refers to the ability of the lens to bend light rays so they focus on the retina.

143
Q

diopter

A

the unit of measurement of a lens’s refractive power.

144
Q

cover test

A

an examination of how the two eyes work together and is used to assess binocular vision. One eye at a time is covered while the patient focuses on an object across the room.

145
Q

Visual field testing

A

also known as perimetry, is performed to determine losses in peripheral vision. Peripheral means occurring away from the center. Blank sections in the visual field can be symptomatic of glaucoma or an optic nerve disorder. This test is done by having the patient look straight ahead and indicate whether or not they can see an object or flash of light when it is presented in their periphery.

146
Q

Dilation

A

of the eyes is required in preparation for the ophthalmoscopic examination of the interior of the eye. Artificial enlargement of the pupils is achieved through the use of mydriatic drops.

147
Q

Mydriatic drops

A

placed into the eyes to produce temporary paralysis, forcing the pupils to remain dilated even in the presence of bright light.

148
Q

Slit-lamp ophthalmoscopy

A

a diagnostic procedure in which a narrow beam of light is focused onto parts of the eye to permit the ophthalmologist to examine the structures at the front of the eye, including the cornea, iris, and lens

149
Q

Fluorescein staining

A

the application of fluorescent dye to the surface of the eye via eye drops or a strip applicator. This dye causes a corneal abrasion to temporarily appear bright green.

150
Q

Fluorescein angiography

A

a photographic study of the blood vessels in the back of the eye following the intravenous injection of a fluorescein dye as a contrast medium. The resulting angiograms are used to determine whether there is proper circulation in the retinal vessels.

151
Q

PERRLA

A

an acronym meaning Pupils are Equal, Round, Responsive to Light and Accommodation. This is a diagnostic observation, and any abnormality here could indicate a head injury or damage to the brain.

152
Q

orbitotomy

A

a surgical incision into the orbit

153
Q

Tarsorrhaphy

A

the partial or complete suturing together of the upper and lower eyelids to protect the eye when the lids are paralyzed and unable to close normally

154
Q

corneal transplant

A

also known as keratoplasty , is the surgical replacement of a scarred or diseased cornea with clear corneal tissue from a donor.

155
Q

Enucleation

A

the removal of the eyeball, leaving the eye muscles intact

156
Q

ocular prosthesis

A

also known as an artificial eye, may be fitted to wear over a malformed eye or to replace an eyeball that is either congenitally missing or has been surgically removed. A prosthesis is an artificial substitute for a diseased or missing body part.

157
Q

scleral buckle

A

a silicone band or sponge used to repair a detached retina. The detached layers are brought closer together by attaching this band onto the sclera, or outer wall, of the eyeball, creating an indentation or buckle effect inside the eye.

158
Q

Lensectomy

A

the general term used to describe the surgical removal of a cataract-clouded lens

159
Q

Phacoemulsification

A

the use of ultrasonic vibration to shatter and remove the lens clouded by a cataract. This is performed through a very small opening, and the same opening is used to slide the intraocular lens into place.

160
Q

intraocular lens (IOL)

A

a surgically implanted replacement for a natural lens that has been removed

161
Q

laser iridotomy

A

uses a focused beam of light to create a hole in the iris of the eye

162
Q

LASIK

A

the acronym for Laser-Assisted in Situ Keratomileusis

163
Q

Photocoagulation

A

the use of a laser to treat some forms of wet macular degeneration by sealing leaking or damaged blood vessels. This technique is also used to repair small retinal tears by intentionally forming scar tissue to seal the holes.

164
Q

auditory

A

means pertaining to the sense of hearing

165
Q

Acoustic

A

means pertaining to sound or hearing

166
Q

pinna

A

also known as the auricle or the outer ear, is the external portion of the ear. The pinna captures sound waves and transmits them into the external auditory canal

167
Q

external auditory canal

A

transmits these sound waves to the tympanic membrane (eardrum) of the middle ear.

168
Q

Cerumen

A

also known as earwax, is secreted by ceruminous glands that line the auditory canal. This sticky yellow-brown substance has protective functions because it traps small insects, dust, debris, and some bacteria to prevent them from entering the middle ear.

169
Q

middle ear

A

which is located between the outer ear and the inner ear, transmits sound across the space between these two parts

170
Q

tympanic membrane

A

also known as the eardrum, is located between the outer and middle ear

171
Q

mastoid process

A

the temporal bone containing hollow air space that surrounds the middle ear. As used here, a process is a projection on a structure such as a bone.

172
Q

auditory ossicles

A

three small bones located within the middle ear
Malleus (MAL-ee-us), also known as the hammer
Incus (ING-kus) , also known as the anvil
Stapes (STAY-peez), also known as the stirrup

173
Q

eustachian tubes

A

also known as the auditory tubes, are narrow tubes that lead from the middle ear to the nasal cavity and the throat. The purpose of these tubes is to equalize the air pressure within the middle ear with that of the outside atmosphere.

174
Q

inner ear

A

contains the sensory receptors for hearing and balance. The structures of the inner ear are a maze-like system known as the labyrinth

175
Q

oval window

A

which is located under the base of the stapes, is the membrane that separates the middle ear from the inner ear. Vibrations enter the inner ear through this structure.

176
Q

cochlea

A

the snail-shaped structure of the inner ear and is where sound vibrations are converted into nerve impulses. Located within the cochlea are the cochlear duct, the organ of Corti, the semicircular canals, and the acoustic nerves

177
Q

organ of Corti

A

receives the vibrations from the cochlear duct and relays them to the auditory nerve fibers. These fibers transmit the sound impulses to the auditory center of the brain’s cerebral cortex, where they are heard and interpreted.

178
Q

semicircular canals

A

connected to the cochlea by the vestibule, contain the liquid endolymph and sensitive hair cells. The bending of these hair cells in response to the movements of the head sets up impulses in nerve fibers to help maintain equilibrium. Equilibrium is the state of balance.

179
Q

acoustic nerves

A

also called auditory nerves, transmit this information to the brain. The acoustic nerves are made up of two parts: cochlear nerves that transmit sound for hearing, and vestibular nerves that sense balance and head position.

180
Q

Air conduction (AC)

A

the process by which sound waves enter the ear through the pinna and then travel down the external auditory canal until they strike the tympanic membrane, which is located between the outer ear and middle ear.

181
Q

Bone conduction

A

occurs as the eardrum vibrates and causes the auditory ossicles of the middle ear to vibrate. The vibration of these bones transmits the sound waves through the middle ear to the oval window of the inner ear.

182
Q

Sensorineural conduction

A

occurs when these sound vibrations reach the inner ear. The structures of the inner ear receive the sound waves and relay them to the auditory nerve for transmission to the brain.

183
Q

audiologist

A

specializes in the measurement of hearing function and in the rehabilitation of persons with hearing impairments

184
Q

speech-language pathologist (SLP)

A

can be involved in numerous medical areas including audiology. These practitioners help patients who have problems related to swallowing, speech, and communication disorders.

185
Q

Impacted cerumen

A

an accumulation of earwax that forms a solid mass by adhering to the walls of the external auditory canal.

186
Q

Otalgia

A

also known as an earache, is pain in the ear

187
Q

Otitis

A

any inflammation of the ear

188
Q

Otorrhagia

A

bleeding from the ear

189
Q

Barotrauma

A

a pressure-related ear condition

190
Q

cholesteatoma

A

also known as a pearly tumor, is a destructive epidermal cyst in the middle ear and/or the mastoid process made up of epithelial cells and cholesterol

191
Q

Mastoiditis

A

an inflammation of any part of the mastoid bone

192
Q

Otitis media

A

is an inflammation of the middle ear.

Acute otitis media is usually associated with an upper respiratory infection and is most commonly seen in young children. This condition can lead to a ruptured eardrum due to the buildup of pus or fluid in the middle ear.
Serous otitis media is a fluid buildup in the middle ear without symptoms of an infection. This condition can follow acute otitis media or can be caused by obstruction of the eustachian tube

193
Q

Labyrinthitis

A

an inflammation of the labyrinth that can result in vertigo and deafness

194
Q

Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)

A

a common cause of vertigo that occurs when there is a shift in the location of small crystals in the semicircular canals. BPPV, labyrinthitis, and Ménière’s disease are examples of vestibular disorders, which are disorders of the body’s balance-controlling vestibular system in the inner ear.

195
Q

Ménière’s disease

A

a rare chronic disorder in which the amount of fluid in the inner ear increases intermittently, producing attacks of vertigo, a fluctuating hearing loss (usually in one ear), and tinnitus.

196
Q

acoustic neuroma

A

a brain tumor that develops adjacent to the cranial nerve running from the brain to the inner ear

197
Q

Deafness

A

the complete or partial loss of the ability to hear. It can range from the inability to hear sounds of a certain pitch or intensity, to a complete loss of hearing.

198
Q

Conductive hearing loss

A

occurs when sound waves are prevented from passing from the air to the fluid-filled inner ear. Causes of this hearing loss include a buildup of earwax, infection, fluid in the middle ear, a punctured eardrum, otosclerosis, and scarring. This type of hearing loss can often be treated.

199
Q

Sensorineural hearing loss

A

also known as nerve deafness, develops when the auditory nerve or hair cells in the inner ear are damaged. This is usually due to age, noise exposure, or an acoustic neuroma. The source of this hearing loss can be located in the inner ear, in the nerve from the inner ear to the brain, or in the brain.

200
Q

noise-induced hearing loss (NIHL)

A

a type of nerve deafness caused by repeated exposure to extremely loud noises such as a gunshot or to moderately loud noises that continue for long periods of time.

201
Q

decibel (dB)

A

commonly used as the measurement of the loudness of sound.

202
Q

audiological evaluation

A

also known as speech audiometry, is the measurement of the ability to hear and understand speech sounds based on their pitch and loudness. This testing is best achieved in a sound-treated room with earphones. The resulting graph is an audiogram that represents the ability to hear a variety of sounds at various loudness levels.

203
Q

otoscope

A

an instrument used to examine the external ear canal

204
Q

Monaural testing

A

involves one ear

205
Q

Binaural testing

A

involves both ears

206
Q

Acoustic reflectometry

A

measures how much sound is reflected back from the eardrum, a way to test how much fluid is in the middle ear to diagnose otitis media.

207
Q

Weber and Rinne test

A

use a tuning fork to distinguish between conductive and sensorineural hearing losses. The patient’s perception of the tuning fork’s vibrations helps evaluate his or her hearing ability by air conduction compared to that of bone conduction.

208
Q

Otoplasty

A

the surgical repair, restoration, or alteration of the pinna of the ear

209
Q

Ear tubes

A

formally known as tympanostomy tubes, are tiny ventilating tubes placed through the eardrum to provide ongoing drainage for fluids and to relieve pressure that can build up after childhood ear infections

210
Q

Tympanoplasty

A

the surgical correction of a damaged middle ear, either to cure chronic inflammation or to restore function

211
Q

Vestibular rehabilitation therapy (VRT)

A

a form of physical therapy designed to treat a wide variety of balance disorders, the majority of which are caused by problems in the inner ear and vestibular nerve

212
Q

assistive listening device (ALD)

A

transmits, processes, or amplifies sound and can be used with or without a hearing aid

213
Q

cochlear implant

A

an electronic device that bypasses the damaged portions of the ear and directly stimulates the auditory nerve

214
Q

Fenestration

A

a surgical procedure in which a new opening is created in the labyrinth to restore lost hearing

215
Q

Hearing aids

A

electronic devices that are worn to correct a hearing loss. Sometimes a sensorineural hearing loss can be corrected with a hearing aid

Medical Terminology (15 decks)

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