Chapter 13 Flashcards
(100 cards)
1
Q
Which of the following statements are true regarding NTP when implemented on Cisco devices? (Select two.)
- NTP packets are sent every 100 milliseconds to provide extremely accurate time synchronization.
- When NTP is enabled, NTP packets are received on all interfaces.
- NTP runs over UDP port 123.
- The NTP protocol uses TCP packets to send time data .
- By default, NTP services are enabled on all interfaces.
A
- When NTP is enabled, NTP packets are received on all interfaces.
- NTP runs over UDP port 123.
2
Q
You check the time on a router and find that it is off by several minutes. To fix this issue, you configure NTP on the router to get time from a Stratum 2 time provider on the internet.
The time difference is large, and it is taking some time for NTP to synchronize the time on the local router. To speed synchronization, you use NTP commands to immediately synchronize the time on the router with the time on the time provider.
Which NTP term best describes this process?
- Skew
- Slew
- Jitter
- Slam
A
Slam
3
Q
You check the time on a router and find that it is off by about 10 minutes. To fix this issue, you configure NTP on the router to get time from a Stratum 2 time provider on the internet.
It is taking some time for NTP to synchronize the time on the local router. After about 15 minutes, the time finally synchronizes.
Which NTP term best describes this process?
- Slew
- Slam
- Skew
- Jitter
A
Slew
4
Q
You check the time on a router and find that it is behind by several minutes. To fix this issue, you decide to configure NTP on the router to get time from a Stratum 2 time provider on the internet with a hostname of 0.pool.ntp.org.
Which command should you use?
- ntp status
- ntp server 0.pool.ntp.org
- feature ntp 0.pool.ntp.org
- ntp master 0.pool.ntp.org
A
ntp server 0.pool.ntp.org
5
Q
You check the time on a router and find that it is out of sync with the time on the other routers and switches in your network. To fix this issue, you decide to configure NTP on the router to get time from an internal authoritative (master) NTP server with an IP address of 172.17.8.254.
Which command should you use?
- ntp status
- ntp server 172.17.8.254
- ntp master 172.17.8.254
- feature ntp 172.17.8.254
A
ntp server 172.17.8.254
6
Q
Currently, all of the routers in your network are configured to use NTP to synchronize time with a public Stratum 2 time provider on the internet. To reduce redundant network traffic, you decide to configure one internal router as an authoritative NTP time provider with a stratum value of 5 and then configure all other routers to synchronize time with it. This router has an IP address of 172.17.8.254 assigned.
Which commands should you use? (Select two. Each response is a part of the complete solution.)
- ntp master 5 172.17.8.254 on all routers except the time provider.
- ntp master 5 on the NTP time provider router.
- ntp server 172.17.8.254 on the NTP time provider router.
- ntp server 172.17.8.254 on all routers except the time provider.
- ntp master on the NTP time provider router.
A
ntp master 5 on the NTP time
ntp server 172.17.8.254 on all routers except the time provider. provider router.
7
Q
You need to verify that time is synchronized on a router.
Which commands could you use to do this? (Select two. Each response is a complete solution.)
- clock summer-time
- ntp server <address></address>
- show ntp associations
- show ntp status
- feature ntp
A
- show ntp associations
- show ntp status
8
Q
You have noticed that every two weeks or so, a client’s clock is off by two minutes, even after you have adjusted it. What is this issue known as?
- Stratum level
- Slew
- Time drift
- Jitter
A
Time drift
9
Q
You need to set the time zone for Pacific Daylight Time. Which two of the following commands will allow you to do this?
- Clock timezone -8
- Clock timezone -6
- Clock timezone PST
- Clock timezone UTC
A
Clock timezone PST
Clock timezone -8
10
Q
How many packets per minutes are required to keep two machines synchronized to an accuracy of a millisecond of each other?
- 1
- 5
- 10
- 2
A
1
11
Q
What is true regarding the following partial output in the running configuration file? (Select two.)
Router#show run
!interface fa 0/0
ip address 10.2.30.2 255.255.255.224
!
!
logging on
logging host 10.2.30.253
logging trap 4
logging source-interface fa 0/0
!
- A syslog server will receive debug messages sent from 10.2.30.2.
- A syslog server will receive warning messages sent from 10.2.30.2.
- A syslog server will receive alert messages sent from 10.2.30.253.
- A syslog server will receive notification messages sent from 10.2.30.2.
- A syslog server will receive error messages sent from 10.2.30.2.
A
A syslog server will receive warning messages sent from 10.2.30.2.
A syslog server will receive error messages sent from 10.2.30.2.
12
Q
Consider the following log message generated by a router:
*Aug 8 11:18:12.081: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/0, changed state to down
What facility generated this message?
- -5-
- UPDOWN
- %LINEPROTO
- FastEthernet0/0
A
%LINEPROTO
13
Q
Consider the following log message generated by a router:
*Aug 8 11:18:12.081: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/0, changed state to down
What is the severity level of this message?
%LINEPROTO
-5-
UPDOWN
FastEthernet0/0
A
-5-
14
Q
Your router generates a log message with a severity level of 1.
What does this indicate?
- Immediate action is needed.
- The message is only informational in nature.
- A critical condition exists.
- The system is unusable.
A
Immediate action is needed.
15
Q
Your router generates a log message with a severity level of 6.
What does this indicate?
Immediate action is needed.
A critical condition exists.
An informational message only.
The system is unusable.
A
An informational message only.
16
Q
You want to redirect log messages from a router to a Syslog server. The IP address of the Syslog server is 172.17.8.5. You want only serious log messages with a severity level of emergency, alert, critical, error, or warning to be redirected. Notifications and informational messages as well as debug messages should not be redirected.
You just entered the logging on command. Which other commands must be used to accomplish this task? (Select two. Both responses are part of the complete solution.)
- logging trap 4
- logging server 172.17.8.5
- logging severity 4
- logging severity warning
- show logging
- logging host 172.17.8.5
A
- *logging trap 4**
- *logging host 172.17.8.5**
17
Q
You want to redirect log messages from a router to a Syslog server. The IP address of the Syslog server is 192.168.1.2. You want only serious log messages with a severity level of Emergency, Alert, or Critical to be redirected. Notification, Error, Warning, Informational, and Debug messages should not be redirected.
Which commands are used to accomplish this? (Select three. All responses are part of the complete solution.)
- logging server 192.168.1.2
- logging severity 2
- logging source-interface < interface>
- logging trap 2
- logging host 192.168.1.2
- logging on
A
- logging trap 2
- logging host 192.168.1.2
- logging on
18
Q
You are configuring a router to redirect and consolidate log messages to a Syslog server. The router has multiple interfaces. However, you want all log messages being sent to the Syslog server to be seen as coming from the same IP address on the router, regardless of which interface the message actually exits the router from.
Which command is used to accomplish this?
- show logging
- logging trap
- logging host <address></address>
- logging source-interface
A
logging source-interface
19
Q
Consider the following log message generated by a router:
*00019: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/0, changed state to down
What is being used to identify when the message is generated?
- Facility
- Sequence number
- Timestamp
- Mnemonic
A
Sequence number
20
Q
What happens to the history table and log files when the device loses power?
- Everything is retained in the system memory.
- The history table remains, but log files are lost.
- The history table is cleared, but the logs remain.
- The history table and log files are all lost.
A
The history table and log files are all lost.
21
Q
Which of the following are true regarding SNMP? (Select two.)
- SNMPv2 implements message integrity verification to ensure that an SNMP packet has not been modified during transit.
- SNMPv2 implements encryption to obscure data during transmission.
- SNMPv2 requires authentication for the SNMP manager and agents to communicate with each other.
- SNMPv3 employs the encryption of packets to prevent unauthorized sources from snooping.
- SNMPv2c can be compromised because the community string for authentication is sent in clear text.
A
- SNMPv3 employs the encryption of packets to prevent unauthorized sources from snooping.
- SNMPv2c can be compromised because the community string for authentication is sent in clear text.
22
Q
Which component is responsible for collecting and consolidating data from network devices that are being monitored with SNMP?
- SNMP Manager
- SNMP Management Information File (MIF)
- SNMP Management Information Base (MIB)
- SNMP Agent
A
SNMP Manager
23
Q
Which SNMP component monitors individual network devices?
- SNMP Agent
- SNMP MIB
- SNMP Trap
- SNMP Manager
A
SNMP Agent
24
Q
Which method is used by the SNMP manager when it contacts an SNMP agent and requests information about a monitored network device?
- Poll
- Broadcast
- Interrupt
- Trap
A
Poll
Polling is used when an SNMP manager contacts an SNMP agent and requests information about a monitored network device.
25
Which method is used when an SNMP agent detects that the system it monitors has exceeded a configured threshold and sends an event to the SNMP manager?
1. Interrupt
2. Poll
3. Broadcast
4. Trap
Trap
26
A configured threshold has been exceeded by a network host that is being monitored by an SNMP agent. The agent sends a trap to its SNMP manager with a notification that the threshold has been exceeded.
Which IP port does the agent use to send the trap?
1. 123
2. 80
3. 162
4. 161
5. 389
162
27
You implemented SNMPv2 as a part of your overall network management plan. You configured an SNMP manager to gather traps from SNMP agents that run on monitored network devices. To secure communications between the manager and the agents, you configured a trap community name of **abc123**.
After running the system for some time, you notice that traps containing questionable events are being sent to the SNMP manager. Upon investigation, you discover that a malicious insider has been spoofing these events, attempting to cover her tracks as she tried to compromise several network hosts.
What could have been done to prevent this from happening?
1. SNMPv3 should have been implemented instead of SNMPv2.
2. SNMPv2 message integrity verification should have been enabled.
3. Traps should have been disabled in favor of polling.
4. A stronger community name should have been used.
*Mark this question for review*
SNMPv3 should have been implemented instead of SNMPv2.
SNMPv3 should have been implemented instead of SNMPv2. SNMPv2 can be compromised easily because the community name is sent in clear text during communications. SNMPv3 implements the following features to make it more secure than earlier versions:
* Authentication
* Encryption
* Message integrity verification
Because the community name is sent clear text, using a stronger community name would have no effect on the situation in this scenario.
28
Which SNMPv3 security level requires authentication with a username, but does not implement encryption?
1. authPriv
2. authNoPriv
3. Community Name
4. noAuthnoPriv
noAuthnoPriv
29
Which SNMPv3 security level requires MD5 or SHA authentication and implements DES encryption?
1. authNoPriv
2. authPriv
3. Community Name
4. noAuthnoPriv
authPriv
30
The following image shows a standard Object Identifier Tree structure. Based on this structure, what would the OID be for a Microsoft device?
4. 1.9
1. 3.6.1.4.1.311
311
1.3.6.1.311
1.3.6.1.4.1.311
31
Which fields in an IP packet header are examined by NetFlow to determine whether or not a given packet is part of a flow? (Select two.)
1. Time To live
2. Source address
3. Type of service
4. Fragment offset
5. Header checksum
Source address
Type of service
32
You are configuring NetFlow on a router. You want to monitor both incoming and outgoing traffic on an interface.
You've used the **interface** command to allow you to configure the interface. What commands should you use next? (_Select two_. Both responses are part of the complete solution.)
1. **ip flow ingress**
2. **ip flow-export source** ***\< interface\>***
3. **ip flow-import source**
4. **ip flow egress**
5. **ip flow-export destination** ******
**ip flow ingress**
**ip flow egress**
33
Currently, your NetFlow router is configured to redirect records to a NetFlow Collector with an IP address of 172.17.8.25 on UDP port 2055.
By default, NetFlow uses the IP address of the interface that packets are sent from as the source IP address for records. However, for security reasons, you want to obscure the source address of the NetFlow router by specifying that all NetFlow records originate from the loopback interface of the router.
Which command should you use?
1. **ip flow egress loopback 0**
2. **ip flow-export source loopback 0**
3. **ip flow-export version loopback 0**
4. **ip flow-export destination loopback 0**
**ip flow-export source loopback 0**
34
![]()
Consider the following output from the **show ip cache flow** command.
Which type of service was accessed on the destination host?
1. DNS server
2. Standard HTTP web server
3. Email server
4. Secure HTTP web server
Secure HTTP web server
35
Consider the output from the **show ip cache flow** command shown.
Which statements are true regarding the flow represented in the statistics? (Select two.)
1. 128 incoming packets were monitored.
2. 255 packets were monitored.
3. 128 outgoing packets were monitored.
4. Most of the packets monitored were 1536 bytes in size.
5. Most of the packets monitored were 1024 bytes in size.
255 packets were monitored.
Most of the packets monitored were 1536 bytes in size.
36
Which of the following cannot be analyzed using the data collected by NetFlow?
1. Departmental billings for network usage
2. CPU usage
3. Potential security issues
4. Network baselines
CPU usage
37
Which device does NetFlow operate on?
1. Network adapter
2. Host device
3. Operating system
4. Network device
Network device
38
The storage area where NetFlow data is stored on a device is known as what?
1. Export or transport mechanism
2. NetFlow management collector
3. NetFlow Ccche
4. Packet header
NetFlow Ccche
39
Your NetFlow records are currently formatted for version 5. You need to change to version 9. Which of the following commands would you use?
1. **ip flow-export destination 5**
2. **ip flow-export destination 9**
3. **ip flow-export version 9**
4. **ip flow-export version 5**
**ip flow-export version 9**
40
You have set up a NetFlow collector using IP address 172.17.8.25 on UDP port 2055. Which of the following commands will redirect records to the new collector?
1. **ip flow-export destination 172.17.8.25 2055**
2. **ip flow-export source 172.17.8.25 2055**
3. **ip flow ingress 172.17.8.25 2055**
4. **ip flow-export interface 172.17.8.25 2055**
**ip flow-export destination 172.17.8.25 2055**
41
Queue schedulers are used for congestion management and define how a device will work through its queue.
Match the names of the most commonly used queue schedulers on the left with the appropriate description on the right. (Each name can only be used once.)
Round Robin----Labels one queue as priority. Rotates through the queues and sends out multiple packets from the priority queue.
Class-Based Weighted Fair ----Queuing Labels one queue as priority. Rotates through the queues and sends out multiple packets from the priority queue.
Weighted Round Robin----Assigns each queue a minimum bandwidth percentage.
Weighted Round Robin=Labels one queue as priority. Rotates through the queues and sends out multiple packets from the priority queue.
Round Robin=Rotates through each queue and processes and sends the next available packet.
Class-Based Weighted Fair Queuing=Assigns each queue a minimum bandwidth percentage.
42
Many queue schedulers are able to identify a low-latency queue. What do queue schedulers do when processing low-latency queues?
1. As the scheduler rotates through the queues, packets in the low-latency queue must be streamed to the buffer.
2. Before the scheduler moves on to other queues, the low-latency queue must first be cleared.
3. The scheduler labels these queues as high priority. When the scheduler gets to one of these queues, it sends out multiple packets instead of just one.
4. The scheduler labels these queues as low priority. The scheduler processes packets in these queues last.
Before the scheduler moves on to other queues, the low-latency queue must first be cleared.
43
Quality of Service (QoS) is particularly important when implementing Voice over IP (VoIP), Video over IP, online gaming, or unified communications, in which delay or data loss make the overall experience unacceptable. QoS uses certain metrics to determine communication quality.
Match the names of the metrics on the left with the appropriate description on the right. (Each metric name can only be used once.)
The amount of time that passes from when a packet is sent to when it arrives.
**Delay**
The percentage of packets that do not arrive at their destination.
**Loss**
The variation in delay when sending multiple packets from the same device.
**Jitter**
The capacity of a connection between two or more devices.
**Bandwidth**
The amount of time that passes from when a packet is sent to when it arrives.
**Delay**
The percentage of packets that do not arrive at their destination.
**Loss**
The variation in delay when sending multiple packets from the same device.
**Jitter**
The capacity of a connection between two or more devices.
**Bandwidth**
44
During a heavy network traffic period, the maximum traffic rate is exceeded. To handle this, QoS drops all incoming traffic.
Which QoS method is being used?
1. Shaping
2. Policing
3. Queuing
4. Marking
Policing
45
Real-time voice and video communications require a minimum level of quality in order to provide adequate services. The tables shown below contain the minimum metric specifications for real-time voice and video.
From the drop-down lists below each table, select the communication type that the table pertains to.
Video/VoIP
**Metric**
**Description**
Bandwidth\> 384 KbpsDelay\< 400 msJitter\< 50 msLoss\< .1%-1%
**Metric**
**Description**
BandwidthN/ADelay\< 150 msJitter\< 30 msLoss\< 1%
**Metric**
**Description**
Bandwidth\> 384 KbpsDelay\< 400 msJitter\< 50 msLoss\< .1%-1%
Video
**Metric**
**Description**
BandwidthN/ADelay\< 150 msJitter\< 30 msLoss\< 1%
VoIP
46
Data on the network is being processed as it comes in. Which QoS method is being used?
1. Classification and Marking
2. Differentiated Services
3. Integrated Services
4. Best Effort
Best Effort
47
A user is playing an online game. When they press a key to perform an action, it takes at least one second for the action to be performed on screen.
Which QoS metric is having issues?
1. Jitter
2. Delay
3. Bandwidth
4. Loss
Delay
48
You have implemented a QoS model where each application must request network resources. The router will approve or deny the request based on available resources.
Which QoS model is being used?
1. Differentiated Services
2. Classification and Marking
3. Integrated Services
4. Best Effort
Integrated Services
49
Which of the following are common network traffic types that QoS is used to manage? (_Select two_.)
1. Streaming video
2. Email
3. Data migration
4. Interactive applications
5. Server backups
Streaming video
Interactive applications
50
Quality of Service (QoS) prioritizes traffic from different data streams by using two classification systems.
Match the name of the QoS classification system on the left with the appropriate descriptions on the right. (Each classification system may be used once, more than once, or not at all.)
Individual frames are marked and classified at Layer 2.
**Class of Service (COS)**
Classification occurs at Layer 3.
**Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP)**
Precedence values are inserted in the DiffServ field of an IP packet.
**Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP)**
A priority value between 0 and 7 is assigned to a 3-bit field.
**Class of Service (COS)**
Up to 64 different classifications are possible.
**Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP)**
**Class of Service (COS)**
Classification occurs at Layer 3.
**Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP)**
Precedence values are inserted in the DiffServ field of an IP packet.
**Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP)**
A priority value between 0 and 7 is assigned to a 3-bit field.
**Class of Service (COS)**
Up to 64 different classifications are possible.
**Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP)**
51
Match each component of the software-defined network (SDN) model on the left with the appropriate description on the right. Each component may be used more than once.
**Northbound controller interface**
**Southbound controller interface**
**API**
1. Used by the applications on the controller to obtain information about the network.
2. Performs the function of monitoring network traffic.
3. Used to communicate with all of the physical network devices on the network.
4. Used by software applications on the controller to obtain information about the network.
5. Performs the function of learning about the network topology.
6. Controller
7. Designates the accepted method of communication between the controller, network devices, and installed applications.
1. Used by the applications on the controller to obtain information about the network.
1. **Northbound controller interface**
2. Performs the function of monitoring network traffic.
1. **Controller**
3. Used to communicate with all of the physical network devices on the network.
1. **Southbound controller interface**
4. Performs the function of learning about the network topology.
1. **Controller**
5. Designates the accepted method of communication between the controller, network devices, and installed applications.
1. **API**
6. Used by software applications on the controller to obtain information about the network.
1. **API**
52
Packet switching, packet routing, and packet interpretation are examples of network communications. On which plane do these network communications occur?
1. The data plane
2. The management plane
3. The distributed plane
4. The control plane
The data plane
53
In traditional networking models, the data plane, control plane, and management plane are all contained within the firmware of networking devices.
This is known as what kind of architecture?
distributed
54
Enterprise networks are simplifying network management by moving away from the distributed architecture model for managing network communications.
What is the name of the network management model that replaces the distributed architecture model?
1. Software-defined networking (SDN)
2. Graphical network usability (GNU)
3. Automated management programming (AMP)
4. Centralized network control (CNC)
Software-defined networking (SDN)
55
Software-defined networking (SDN) works by using software to configure and control the network, rather than relying on device-specific static configurations. The SDN model creates a centralized architecture that replaces the distributed architecture model.
How does this shift to a centralized architecture affect the three planes of network communication?
1. The data plane and control plane have to be combined into one data-control plane.
2. The data plane and control plane have to be separated.
3. The three planes are flattened into one central management plane.
4. The planes of network communication become obsolete.
The data plane and control plane have to be separated.
56
rag each network plane on the left to the appropriate troubleshooting task on the right. Each plane may be used once, more than one, or not at all.
Determine how traffic moves from one place to another.
**Management plane**
**Control plane**
**Data plane**
1. Determine whether VLANs are configured on each switch.
2. Examine the forwarding logic on each device.
3. Use SNMP to monitor network switches.
4. Isolate filtering and port security problems.
5. Determine how traffic moves from one place to another.
Determine whether VLANs are configured on each switch. **Data plane**
Examine the forwarding logic on each device. **Data plane**
Isolate filtering and port security problems. **Data plane**
Use SNMP to monitor network switches. **Management plane**
Determine how traffic moves from one place to another. **Control plane**
57
You have a small network as shown. You are troubleshooting connectivity issues at Wrk1.
From Wrk1, you are able to ping hosts Wrk2 and Wrk3. A ping to any host in the main office fails. From Wrk2, you can ping any host in the branch office, but you cannot ping any host in the main office.
What is the most likely cause of the problem? (_Select two_.)
1. Incorrect IP address or subnet mask setting on the switch.
2. Bad cable between the switch and the SFO router.
3. Incorrect default gateway address on the switch.
4. Fa0/24 on the switch is bad.
5. Incorrect default gateway address on Wrk1.
Bad cable between the switch and the SFO router.
Fa0/24 on the switch is bad.
58
You have a small network as shown.
Wrk1 is unable to communicate with Wrk2. Wrk1 can ping the router and all internet hosts. Wrk2 can ping Wrk3.
What is the most likely cause of the problem?
1. Port security is configured for Fa0/2.
2. The cable connecting Wrk2 to Fa0/2 is bad.
3. An access list on the switch prevents communications between Wrk1 and Wrk2.
4. Wrk1 and Wrk2 are on separate VLANs.
5. Wrk2 is configured with an incorrect default gateway address.
1. Wrk1 and Wrk2 are on separate VLANs.
59
Put the 7-step troubleshooting process in order.
1. Define the problem
2. Gather information
3. Analyze information
4. Eliminate probable causes
5. Propose hypothesis
6. Test hypothesis
7. Solve the problem
1. Define the problem
2. Gather information
3. Analyze information
4. Eliminate probable causes
5. Propose hypothesis
6. Test hypothesis
7. Solve the problem
60
Which of the following troubleshooting methods is based on the troubleshooting experience and the ability of the technician?
1. Divide-and-Conquer
2. Educated Guess
3. Substitution
4. Bottom-Up
Educated Guess
61
In reference to cloud computing, what does the term *cloud* mean?
1. It is a metaphor for a data storage service with an ever-growing capacity, like storm clouds.
2. It refers to the virtual hardware that cloud computing is built on.
3. It is a metaphor for the internet based on the basic cloud drawing used to represent the telephone network.
4. It is the name of an operating system that is very flexible and easy to use so anyone can design, build, and provide cloud services, such as Infrastructure as a Service, Platform as a Service, and Software as a Service.
It is a metaphor for the internet based on the basic cloud drawing used to represent the telephone network.
62
Cloud resources are implemented in several ways.
Match the cloud implementations listed on the left with the appropriate descriptions on the right. (Each implementation type may be used once, more than once, or not at all.)
Designed to be shared by several organizations.
**Community cloud**
Examples: Gmail and Google Docs.
**Public cloud**
Provides resources to a single organization.
**Private cloud**
Accessible to everyone.
**Public cloud**
Accessible only by users within the single organization.
**Private cloud**
Designed to be shared by several organizations.
**Community cloud**
Examples: Gmail and Google Docs.
**Public cloud**
Provides resources to a single organization.
**Private cloud**
Accessible to everyone.
**Public cloud**
Accessible only by users within the single organization.
**Private cloud**
63
Cloud resource service models include Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), Platform as a Service (PaaS), and Software as a Service (SaaS).
Match each service model listed on the left with the appropriate description on the right. (Each service model may be used once, more than once, or not at all.)
Provider delivers everything a developer needs to build an application.
**PaaS**
Providers deliver processing, storage, networks, and virtualized environment services.
**IaaS**
Clients deploy and run software without purchasing servers, data center space, or network equipment.
**IaaS**
Provider delivers applications to the client either over the internet or on a local area network.
**Saas**
Client avoids the cost and complexity of buying and managing the underlying hardware and software layers.
**PaaS**
Provider delivers everything a developer needs to build an application.
**PaaS**
Providers deliver processing, storage, networks, and virtualized environment services.
**IaaS**
Clients deploy and run software without purchasing servers, data center space, or network equipment.
**IaaS**
Provider delivers applications to the client either over the internet or on a local area network.
**Saas**
Client avoids the cost and complexity of buying and managing the underlying hardware and software layers.
**PaaS**
64
What type of resources offer the following advantages?
* Flexibility of access
* Ease of use
* Self-service provisioning of resources
* API availability
* Metering of services
* Ability to try out software applications
Cloud
65
Which of the following allows multiple virtual machines to exist on the same physical machine and share its underlying physical resources?
1. Cloud
2. Hypervisor
3. Virtualization
4. Operating system
Virtualization
66
When additional resources are needed on a virtual machine, the hypervisor increases available resources up to the maximum set amount. What is this process called?
1. Resource pooling
2. Rapid elasticity
3. On-demand self service
4. Thin provisioning
Thin provisioning
67
What are the main types of cloud services? (Select two.)
1. Infrastructure cloud services
2. External cloud services
3. Platform cloud services
4. Internal cloud services
5. Software cloud services
Internal cloud services
External cloud services
68
Cloud services can also offer virtual network infrastructures, which include a variety of virtual components.
Match each virtual component on the left with the appropriate description on the right. (Each component may be used only once.)
Uses Ethernet standards to transmit and receive frames on the network.
**Virtual network interface**
Implemented within the hypervisor to monitor and filter traffic on the virtual network as it flows between virtual machines.
**Virtual firewall**
Can be defined within the virtual switch and associated with specific hosts.
**Virtual VLAN**
Can support multiple networks on each of its interfaces, unlike the physical version.
**Virtual router**
Builds a table that identifies which MAC addresses are connected to each of its ports.
**Virtual switch**
Uses Ethernet standards to transmit and receive frames on the network.
**Virtual network interface**
Implemented within the hypervisor to monitor and filter traffic on the virtual network as it flows between virtual machines.
**Virtual firewall**
Can be defined within the virtual switch and associated with specific hosts.
**Virtual VLAN**
Can support multiple networks on each of its interfaces, unlike the physical version.
**Virtual router**
Builds a table that identifies which MAC addresses are connected to each of its ports.
**Virtual switch**
69
Which of the following solutions can help with security when you are implementing an external cloud service?
1. Private WAN connection
2. Intercloud exchange
3. VPN
4. VLAN
VPN
70
The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) has established five characteristics that a true cloud service must have.
Match each characteristic to its description.
Seamlessly increasing and decreasing resources as needed.
**Rapid elasticity**
The service needs to be provided over a network and be available in multiple platforms.
**Broad network access**
Resources can be controlled and optimized automatically.
**Measured service**
On-demand self service users must be able to dynamically obtain resources.
**On-demand self service**
Multiple resources can be used by multiple users and can scale dynamically.
**Resource pooling**
Seamlessly increasing and decreasing resources as needed.
**Rapid elasticity**
The service needs to be provided over a network and be available in multiple platforms.
**Broad network access**
Resources can be controlled and optimized automatically.
**Measured service**
On-demand self service users must be able to dynamically obtain resources.
**On-demand self service**
Multiple resources can be used by multiple users and can scale dynamically.
**Resource pooling**
71
You are providing a VPN solution for employees who work remotely. When these employees change locations, they lose their VPN connection, so you want them to automatically reconnect if the VPN connection is lost or disconnected.
Which VPN security protocol supports VPN reconnect functionality?
1. PPTP
2. IKEv2
3. L2TP
4. SSTP
IKEv2
72
A VPN (Virtual Private Network) is primarily used for which purpose?
1. Allow remote systems to save on long distance charges.
2. Allow the use of network-attached printers.
3. Support secured communications over an untrusted network.
4. Support the distribution of public web documents.
Support secured communications over an untrusted network.
73
You need to implement a solution for the sales reps who complain that they are unable to establish VPN connections when they travel because the hotel or airport firewalls block the necessary VPN ports.
Which VPN security protocol can you use to resolve this issue?
1. IPsec
2. PPTP
3. SSTP
4. L2TP
SSTP
74
Which of the following provides a VPN gateway that encapsulates and encrypts outbound traffic from a site and sends the traffic through the VPN tunnel to the VPN gateway at the target site?
1. SSL VPN
2. Remote access VPN
3. GRE over IPsec
4. Site-to-site IPsec VPN
Site-to-site IPsec VPN
75
Which of the following are benefits a VPN provides? (Select two.)
1. Cost savings
2. Faster connection
3. Easy setup
4. Compatibility
Cost savings
Compatibility
76
In addition to AH, IPsec is composed of which other service?
Extended Authentication Protocol (EAP)
Encryption File System (EFS)
Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)
Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)
77
Which IPsec subprotocol provides data encryption?
1. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
2. Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)
3. Authentication Header (AH)
4. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)
78
IPsec is implemented through two separate protocols. What are these protocols called? (_Select two_.)
L2TP
SSL
AH
ESP
EPS
AH
ESP
79
IPSec uses which method for key exchange?
1. Tunnel Mode
2. Rivest-Shamir-Adleman
3. SSL
4. Diffie-Hellman
Diffie-Hellman
80
Which of the following are IPsec methods of operation? (Select two.)
1. Tunnel Mode
2. Single Mode
3. Secure Mode
4. Multimode
5. Transport Mode
Tunnel Mode
Transport Mode
81
Which of the following gateway redundancy protocols are Cisco proprietary? (Select **_two_**.)
1. PoE
2. GLBP
3. HSRP
4. STP
5. VRRP
1. GLBP
2. HSRP
82
A router serving as the AVG in a GLBP group has which of the following responsibilities? (Select two.)
1. The AVG forwards all ARP requests to the default virtual gateway.
2. The AVG assigns a virtual MAC address to each router of the GLBP group.
3. The AVG dynamically configures the host with the GLBP group's virtual IP address.
4. The AVG is responsible for answering Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) requests for the virtual IP address.
5. The AVG cannot assume the responsibilities of an AVF.
The AVG assigns a virtual MAC address to each router of the GLBP group
The AVG is responsible for answering Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
83
What happens when an HSRP active router fails? (Select two.)
1. The virtual IP address is cleared from the virtual router's ARP cache and repopulated with the standby router's virtual IP address.
2. Additional HSRP member routers transition from the listen state after the holdtime expires on the hello message.
3. The HSRP original active router cannot be preempted.
4. The active router returns to service within the holdtime amount on the hello message.
5. The HSRP standby router becomes the active router after the holdtime expires on the hello message.
Additional HSRP member routers transition from the listen state after the holdtime expires on the hello message.
The HSRP standby router becomes the active router after the holdtime expires on the hello message.
84
What effect does the **standby 2 track serial 0/0 25** interface configuration command have? (Select two.)
It decrements the HSRP group priority by 10 if the interface goes down.
Changes the default standby priority value from 100 to 25 for the interface.
The HSRP standby router will become the active router if the active router has default configurations and the standby router is configured with a group priority of 150.
It decrements the HSRP group priority by 25 if the interface goes down.
The HSRP standby router will become the active router if both routers have default configurations.
It decrements the HSRP group priority by 25 if the interface goes down.
The HSRP standby router will become the active router if both routers have default configurations.
85
You have two routers that should be configured for gateway redundancy. The following commands are entered for each router:
Which of the following is true? (Select two.)
1. Router B needs to be configured with the virtual IP address for the group.
2. Router B will serve as active router, and Router A will serve as standby router.
3. Router A will serve as master router, and Router B will serve as backup router.
4. The virtual IP address is 172.16.0.1.
5. Router A will serve as active router, and Router B will serve as standby router.
Router B will serve as active router, and Router A will serve as standby router.
The virtual IP address is 172.16.0.1.
86
You have two routers that should be configured for gateway redundancy. The following commands are entered for each router.
Which of the following is true? (**_Select two_**.)
1. Router B will serve as the active router for HSRP group 2 and the backup router for HSRP group 5.
2. Router A will serve as the active router for GLBP group 5 and the backup router for GLBP group 2.
3. Router B will serve as the active router for HSRP group 5 and the backup router for HSRP group 2.
4. Router A will serve as the active router for HSRP group 5 and the backup router for HSRP group 2.
5. Router A will serve as the active router for HSRP group 2 and the backup router for HSRP group 5.
Router B will serve as the active router for HSRP group 5 and the backup router for HSRP group 2.
Router A will serve as the active router for HSRP group 2 and the backup router for HSRP group 5.
87
Which of the following best describes the various HSRP group roles? (Select two.)
1. An active router defers forwarded traffic through the *master* router if it is destined for a virtual IP address.
2. An active router forwards traffic destined to the virtual IP address.
3. A master router forwards traffic destined to the virtual IP address.
4. A standby router will become the active router should the existing active router fail.
5. A backup router will become the master router should the existing master router fail.
A standby router will become the active router should the existing active router fail.
An active router forwards traffic destined to the virtual IP address.
88
How does standby preemption affect the router configured with the highest priority in the HSRP group? (Select two.)
1. If the active router fails and then regains service, it does not become the active router again when preemption is not enabled.
2. If the standby router fails and then regains service, it becomes the active router if preemption is enabled.
3. If the active router fails and then regains service, it becomes the active router again if preemption is enabled.
4. If the active router fails and then regains service, it becomes the active router again, regardless of whether preemption is enabled.
5. If preemption is disabled, the standby router takes over as the active router.
If the active router fails and then regains service, it does not become the active router again when preemption is not enabled.
If the active router fails and then regains service, it becomes the active router again if preemption is enabled.
89
In which of the following scenarios would a router send a resign message?
1. If an active router fails, the standby router becomes the active router. If the former active router regains service and does not have preemption enabled, it sends a coup message. The current active router sends the resign message after receiving the coup message.
2. If a preempted active router fails, the standby router becomes the active router. If the preempted active router regains service, it sends a hello message. The current active router will continue to send hello messages, indicating that the router states will remain the same.
3. If an active router fails, the standby router becomes the active router. If the former active router regains service, it sends a hello message. The current active router sends the resign message after receiving the hello message.
4. If a preempted active router fails, the standby router becomes the active router. If the preempted active router regains service, it sends a coup message. The current active router sends the resign message after receiving the coup message.
If a preempted active router fails, the standby router becomes the active router. If the preempted active router regains service, it sends a coup message. The current active router sends the resign message after receiving the coup message.
90
Which effect does the **standby 2 priority 110** interface configuration command have?
The priority is decreased below the default.
The interface will participate in HSRP group 110.
The interface will participate in HSRP.
The group priority is increased above the default.
The group priority is increased above the default.
91
Which of the following are configuration management tools? (**_Select two_**.)
1. Manifest
2. SaltStack
3. Ansible
4. Cookbook
5. Playbook
SaltStack
Ansible
92
Which data format is the following snippet in?
success 1560789260
25. 9990
- 132.6992
1. Python
2. XML
3. JSON
4. YAML
XML
93
Which data format is the following snippet in?
message: success
timestamp: 1560789260 iss\_position:
latitude: '25.9990' longitude: '-132.6992'
1. XML
2. YAML
3. Python
4. JSON
YAML
94
Arranging multiple automated tasks together to create a workflow is known as what?
1. Orchestration
2. Configuration management
3. API
4. Automation
Orchestration
95
Which of the following API types can be used with no restrictions?
1. Internal
2. Open
3. Partner
4. Private
Open
96
When you request a web page from a server, which type of HTTP command is sent?
1. **PUT**
2. **POST**
3. **GET**
4. REST
**GET**
97
Any API that follows the rules of the REST architecture is considered RESTful. Which of the following features must an API have to be considered RESTful? (Select three.)
Stateful
Agentless
Stateless
Server-only
Client-server
Cacheable
Agent-based
Stateless
Client-server
Cacheable
98
A fully automated network that focuses on using software to maintain the network is known as what?
1. Intent-based network
2. Software-defined network
3. Traditional network
4. Automated network
Intent-based network
99
Which of the following are essential functions of IBN? (Select **_three_**.)
Speed
Assurance
Translation
Security
Activation
Easily configured
Assurance
Translation
Activation
100
Match each Cisco DNA solution to its associated benefit.
Machine learning continually improves network intelligence to predict problems before they occur.-**Cisco DNA Assurance**
Delivers better user experiences for applications residing on-premise or in the cloud.-**SD-WAN**
Enables network access in minutes for any user or device to any application without compromising security.**-SD-Access**
Reduces risk and protects the organization from threats - even in encrypted traffic.-**Cisco DNA Security**
Machine learning continually improves network intelligence to predict problems before they occur.-**Cisco DNA Assurance**
Delivers better user experiences for applications residing on-premise or in the cloud.-**SD-WAN**
Enables network access in minutes for any user or device to any application without compromising security.**-SD-Access**
Reduces risk and protects the organization from threats - even in encrypted traffic.-**Cisco DNA Security**
