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202V3 > Chapter 15 - Approach > Flashcards

Chapter 15 - Approach Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two ways to fly an instrument approach?

A

Full Procedure or via Radar Vectors

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2
Q

When are you allowed to descend below MDA or DA?

A

When sufficient visual reference with the runway environment has been established and the aircraft is in a position to execute a safe landing

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3
Q

When are you allowed to descend below 100 ft above the threshold elevation or touchdown zone elevation when using the approach lights as a reference?

A

The red termination bars or red side row bars are visible and identifiable

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4
Q

When operating with a speed restriction and you recieve clearance to fly an approach, when are you allowed to adjust your speed?

A

Approach clearances cancel any previously assigned airspeed adjustments. You are expected to make our own airspeed adjustments to complete the approach unless the adjustments are restated.

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5
Q

Where should speed adjustments not be assigned?

A

Inside the FAF or a point 5 miles from the runway, whichever is close to the runway

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6
Q

As a pilot, are you allowed to deny a speed adjustment? If so, why?

A

Yes, if the minimum safe airspeed for any operation is greater than the speed adjustment

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7
Q

What is the range of speeds for the initial approach segment for a Cat B aircraft?

A

120 to 180

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8
Q

What is the range of speeds for the final approach segment for a Cat B aircraft?

A

85 to 130

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9
Q

What is the max speed for a reversal/racetrack procedure for a Cat B aircraft? ICAO

A

140

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10
Q

Where do you find information regarding radar approaches?

A

front of the Terminal Procedures Pub

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11
Q

What is a non-radar approach?

A

An approach that does not require radar vectoring or radar services on final approach and may or may not provide vertical glideslope guidance

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12
Q

On the plan view of an approach, when are concentric rings used?

A

When all procedural and terminal route information cannot be depicted to scale

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13
Q

What distance ring is shown when necessary? What does the ring signify?

A

10NM on low altitude approaches and a 20NM ring on high altitude approaches.
Everything within the ring is shown to scale

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14
Q

What type of obstacle clearance does the ESA provide?

A

1000 ft obstacle clearance, 2000 ft obstacle clearance in mountainous areas, within 100 nm of the facility

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15
Q

What type of obstacle clearance does the Minimum Sector Altitude provide?

A

1000 ft obstacle clearance within 25 NM

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16
Q

Does an approach without a FAF still have a VDA?

A

No

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17
Q

What is TCH?

A

Threshold Crossing Height, it is the point where the VDA crosses above the threshold

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18
Q

What is a typical TCH?

A

Between 30 and 50 ft unless required by larger type aircraft

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19
Q

Are all obstructions depicted on the airfield diagram?

A

No, check NOTAMS, enroute supplement, etc

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20
Q

What is field elevation?

A

The highest point on any usable landing surface

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21
Q

What is touchdown zone elevation?

A

The highest point in the first 3000ft of the landing surface

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22
Q

How many degrees off runway centerline can an approach be and still be considered a straight in approach?

A

30 degrees

23
Q

When a fix has the word RADAR depicted with it, what does it mean?

A

ATC radar usage identifies the fix

24
Q

What type of an approach is an LNAV and what does the line of minima distinguish?

A

It is a non-precision approach and the line of minima is published as an MDA

25
Q

What are the 5 segments of an instrument approach procedure?

A
  1. Arrival
  2. Initial
  3. Intermediate
  4. Final
  5. Missed Approach
26
Q

A dead reckoning track intersects the localizer at _____ and is not more than ______ in length

A

45 degrees ; 10 NM

27
Q

What are the 4 definitions of being established on a track?

A
  1. Within half full-scale deflection
  2. Within +/- 5 degrees of the required bearing for an NDB
  3. Within full scale deflection for LOC
  4. Within 1x the required accuracy for RNAV or RNP segments flown
28
Q

What is a shuttle in a holding pattern?

A

A climb or descent conducted in a holding pattern

29
Q

What is the maximum climb in holding airspeed, unless a maximum airspeed is published?

A

310 KIAS

30
Q

When are you allowed to descend form a procedure turn fix altitude?

A

Until crossing over or outbound abeam the procedure turn fix

31
Q

When can you descend from the procedure turn altitude?

A

When you are established on the inbound segment of the approach

32
Q

What airspeeds should a procedure turn be flown at?

A

200 KIAS or less

33
Q

When can you begin descent to the procedure turn altitude immediately upon crossing over the procedure turn fix, regardless of direction of flight?

A

When there is an absence of a chart note or specified minimum altitude adjacent to the procedure turn fix

34
Q

For a Cat B aircraft flying a 45/180 procedure turn, how long do you time on the 45 degree turn leg and when do you start timing?

A

1 minute, when you initiate the 45 degree turn

35
Q

If electing to fly a racetrack (holding pattern) for a procedure turn and you use a teardrop entry, what must you limit your time to?

A

1min 30 sec

36
Q

If you are flying a racetrack entry for a procedure turn and elect to use a parallel entry, are you allowed to turn direct to the facility after flying the parallel entry?

A

No, you must intercept the inbound track

37
Q

When the procedure turn fix is based on a facility, when does timing begin?

A

When abeam the facility or on attaining the outbound heading, whichever occurs last

38
Q

When the procedure turn fix is based on a fix, when does timing begin?

A

When attaining the outbound heading

39
Q

For what conditions are step-down fixes applicable?

A

Only when flying a non-precision approach to a straight-in or circling line of minima identified as an MDA

40
Q

If you are flying a precision approach and there are step down fixes outside the final approach segment, do you have to adhere to them?

A

Yes, you must adhere to stepdown fixes when outside a final approach. If you are inside the final approach and flying a precision approach, the step down fixes do not apply to you

41
Q

When passing the station on a Non-DME Teardrop High Altitude Approach, what direction do you turn toward the outbound course?

A

You turn in the shortest direction to the outbound course and attempt to intercept it

42
Q

When are you allowed to descend from the IAF altitude on a Non-DME Teardrop High Altitude Approach?

A

When established on a parallel or intercept heading to the approach course and outbound from the IAF

43
Q

What is the required descent gradient for a Non-DME Teardrop High Altitude Approach?

A

800-1000 feet per nautical mile

44
Q

What should you do if you arrive at the IAF of a Non-DME Teardrop High Altitude Approach below the published altitude?

A

Proceed outbound 15 seconds for each 1,000 ft the aircraft is below the published altitude before starting the descent

45
Q

At what altitude do you turn if a penetration turn altitude is not published for a Non-DME Teardrop High Altitude Approach?

A

An altitude that is 1/2 the total altitude between the IAF and FAF altitudes

46
Q

When can you descend below a published penetration turn completion altitude on a Non-DME Teardrop High Altitude Approach?

A

When established on the inbound course

47
Q

What type of an approach is a visual approach?

A

It is an IFR procedure conducted under IFR in VMC

48
Q

Does clearance for a visual approach authorize the pilot to do an overhead VFR pattern?

A

No

49
Q

If you are instructed by ATC to follow another aircraft for a visual approach and you have the aircraft insight and accept the clearance, who retains responsibility for aircraft separation and wake separation?

A

The pilot

50
Q

Does a visual approach have a missed approach segment?

A

No

51
Q

In order to be approved for a visual approach, what two things must the pilot have done?

A
  1. Have either the airfield or the preceding aircraft in sight
  2. Approach must be authorized and controlled by the appropriate ATC facility
52
Q

The reported weather at the airfield must be what in order to be cleared for a Visual Approach?

A

A ceiling at or above 1000ft and visibility of 3 miles or greater

53
Q

What must you do if you want to execute an overhead pattern?

A

Cancel your IFR flight plan. The overhead maneuver is a VFR maneuver

202V3 (14 decks)

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