Chapter 3 - General Flight Rules Flashcards

1
Q

How many hours of crew rest must commanders and supervisors ensure aircrew are provided prior to the beginning of the flight duty period?

A

12 hours

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2
Q

What is the definition of interrupted crew rest?

A

Any official business conducted after crew rest

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3
Q

Can you have your 12-hour crew rest waived after crew rest has already started?

A

No, you must be notified prior to the start of crew rest

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4
Q

If crew rest has been waived, does the PIC have to accept the reduced crew rest?

A

No

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5
Q

When may crew rest be reduced to a minimum of 10 hours by the PIC?

A

When 3 or more consecutive days of flight duty periods of at least 12 hours occur

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6
Q

When does the flight duty period being and end?

A

When an aircrew member first reports for official duty and ends after the final engine shutdown after the final flight of the completed mission

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7
Q

How long can the PIC extend FDP for unplanned mission delays?

A

A max of 2 hours

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8
Q

What is deadhead time?

A

It is an official duty performed by an aircrew member flying as a passenger while on flights orders and may be flown without crew rest

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9
Q

If you are planning to perform flight-related duties after deadhead time, do crew rest restrictions still apply?

A

Yes

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10
Q

What is the max flying time in 7 consecutive days?

A

56 hours

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11
Q

What is the max flying time in 30 consecutive days?

A

125

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12
Q

What is the max flying time in 90 consecutive days?

A

330

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13
Q

Does cockpit rest reset required crew rest?

A

no

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14
Q

For night operations, what must aircrew have?

A

An operable flashlight

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15
Q

Are nicotine patches allowed in flight?

A

Yes

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16
Q

Can EFBs be used a a PFR?

A

No

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17
Q

Can aircrew hold EFBs in their hands during critical phases of flight?

A

Yes, provided that it is operationally neccesary

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18
Q

If an airport has a control tower, what must aircrew attain from ATC? For what procedures do they need this for?

A

A clearance.

A clearance is needed before taxiing, proceeding onto a runway, takeoff or landing

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19
Q

Are you required to read back all taxi and hold short instructions?

20
Q

If you do not have supplemental oxygen, what altitude can you not operate above?

21
Q

At what altitude must you use supplemental oxygen?

A

Anytime the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 10,000 ft MSL

22
Q

If any portion of your flight is conducted in IMC, at night, or with high-g maneuvering, how long can you remain inbetween 10,000 and 12,500 ft MSL without supplemental oxygen?

23
Q

How long can you be between 12,500 and 14,000 ft MSL without supplemental oxygen?

A

30 minutes

24
Q

What must aircrew immediately report to the appropriate controlling agency inf lgiht?

A

Any hazardous weather, wake turbulence, volcanic activity, large bird activity, or any other significant flight condition that may affect flight safety

25
Are you required to declare Min Fuel or Emer Fuel?
Yes
26
If your cabin altitude exceeds 18,000 ft MSL following a rapid D, what must happen after?
You must be evaluated by a flight surgeon prior to further flight
27
How many hours after landing can decompression sickness occur?
Up to 12 hours
28
If you experience hypoxia in flight, are you allowed to fly once you feel better after landing?
No you must be evaluated by a flight surgeon
29
Can you turn on landing lights prior to crossing the hold short line?
No you must turn them on after takeoff clearance is received and the aircraft is on the active runway
30
What must the yielding aircraft not do when avoiding traffic?
They must not pass over, under, abeam or ahead of the other aircraft unless well clear
31
Who has the right away over all air traffic?
Aircraft in distress
32
When an aircraft of the same category are converging at approximately the same altitude, who has the right away?
The aircraft to the other's right
33
What shall you do if you are approaching an aircraft head on?
Each aircraft shall alter their course to their right
34
If you are about to overtake an aircraft, who has the right away and what must you do?
The overtaken aircraft has the right away. You, as the overtaker, must alter your course to the right
35
Whom does an aircraft on final approach have the right of way over?
Other aircraft on the ground or in the air
36
If two or more aircraft are approaching to land, who has the right away?
The aircraft at the lower altitude
37
What is the order of priorities for right away for aircraft of different categories?
1. Balloons 2. Gliders 3. Aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft 4. Airships 5. Rotary or Fixed Wing
38
Regardless if an operation is conducted under IFR or VFR, who must maintain vigilance for the see and avoid principle?
Each pilot operating an aircraft
39
If an ATC clearance is given to you containing altitude, restrictions, vectors, headings, altimeter settings, and runway assignments. Do you have to read them back, and if so in what order?
Yes you must, and read them back in the order that they were given.
40
Descent gradients in excess of what may induce spatial D?
Greater than 1 degrees (1,000 ft per NM)
41
Below what altitude should you avoid a descent gradient more than 10 degress NL?
Below 15,000 ft
42
In what knot increments are speed adjustments made?
10 knot increments
43
What margin of error must you maintain your airspeed within (when ATC assigns you a speed)?
+/- 10 knots or 0.02 mach
44
If ATC tells you to "resume normal speed", does that cancel the published speed restrictions on an instrument approach?
No
45
What is the approximate separation guide for operating near other aircraft?
500 ft
46
Under what areas and clearances must you squawk 4000?
When operating VFR or IFR in restricted areas, warning areas, or on a VFR mil training route
47
If you get a TAS alert, are you allowed to immediately deviated from an assigned ATC clearance?
You are, however, do not deviate from the clearance based solely on the TAS alert. Attempt to attain visual contact and maintain safe separation. A TAS alert does not immediately grant you clearance to deviate from ATC instructions