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202V3 > Chapter 3 - General Flight Rules > Flashcards

Chapter 3 - General Flight Rules Flashcards

1
Q

How many hours of crew rest must commanders and supervisors ensure aircrew are provided prior to the beginning of the flight duty period?

A

12 hours

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2
Q

What is the definition of interrupted crew rest?

A

Any official business conducted after crew rest

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3
Q

Can you have your 12-hour crew rest waived after crew rest has already started?

A

No, you must be notified prior to the start of crew rest

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4
Q

If crew rest has been waived, does the PIC have to accept the reduced crew rest?

A

No

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5
Q

When may crew rest be reduced to a minimum of 10 hours by the PIC?

A

When 3 or more consecutive days of flight duty periods of at least 12 hours occur

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6
Q

When does the flight duty period being and end?

A

When an aircrew member first reports for official duty and ends after the final engine shutdown after the final flight of the completed mission

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7
Q

How long can the PIC extend FDP for unplanned mission delays?

A

A max of 2 hours

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8
Q

What is deadhead time?

A

It is an official duty performed by an aircrew member flying as a passenger while on flights orders and may be flown without crew rest

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9
Q

If you are planning to perform flight-related duties after deadhead time, do crew rest restrictions still apply?

A

Yes

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10
Q

What is the max flying time in 7 consecutive days?

A

56 hours

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11
Q

What is the max flying time in 30 consecutive days?

A

125

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12
Q

What is the max flying time in 90 consecutive days?

A

330

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13
Q

Does cockpit rest reset required crew rest?

A

no

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14
Q

For night operations, what must aircrew have?

A

An operable flashlight

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15
Q

Are nicotine patches allowed in flight?

A

Yes

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16
Q

Can EFBs be used a a PFR?

A

No

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17
Q

Can aircrew hold EFBs in their hands during critical phases of flight?

A

Yes, provided that it is operationally neccesary

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18
Q

If an airport has a control tower, what must aircrew attain from ATC? For what procedures do they need this for?

A

A clearance.

A clearance is needed before taxiing, proceeding onto a runway, takeoff or landing

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19
Q

Are you required to read back all taxi and hold short instructions?

A

Yes

20
Q

If you do not have supplemental oxygen, what altitude can you not operate above?

A

14,000

21
Q

At what altitude must you use supplemental oxygen?

A

Anytime the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 10,000 ft MSL

22
Q

If any portion of your flight is conducted in IMC, at night, or with high-g maneuvering, how long can you remain inbetween 10,000 and 12,500 ft MSL without supplemental oxygen?

A

1 hour

23
Q

How long can you be between 12,500 and 14,000 ft MSL without supplemental oxygen?

A

30 minutes

24
Q

What must aircrew immediately report to the appropriate controlling agency inf lgiht?

A

Any hazardous weather, wake turbulence, volcanic activity, large bird activity, or any other significant flight condition that may affect flight safety

25
Q

Are you required to declare Min Fuel or Emer Fuel?

A

Yes

26
Q

If your cabin altitude exceeds 18,000 ft MSL following a rapid D, what must happen after?

A

You must be evaluated by a flight surgeon prior to further flight

27
Q

How many hours after landing can decompression sickness occur?

A

Up to 12 hours

28
Q

If you experience hypoxia in flight, are you allowed to fly once you feel better after landing?

A

No you must be evaluated by a flight surgeon

29
Q

Can you turn on landing lights prior to crossing the hold short line?

A

No you must turn them on after takeoff clearance is received and the aircraft is on the active runway

30
Q

What must the yielding aircraft not do when avoiding traffic?

A

They must not pass over, under, abeam or ahead of the other aircraft unless well clear

31
Q

Who has the right away over all air traffic?

A

Aircraft in distress

32
Q

When an aircraft of the same category are converging at approximately the same altitude, who has the right away?

A

The aircraft to the other’s right

33
Q

What shall you do if you are approaching an aircraft head on?

A

Each aircraft shall alter their course to their right

34
Q

If you are about to overtake an aircraft, who has the right away and what must you do?

A

The overtaken aircraft has the right away. You, as the overtaker, must alter your course to the right

35
Q

Whom does an aircraft on final approach have the right of way over?

A

Other aircraft on the ground or in the air

36
Q

If two or more aircraft are approaching to land, who has the right away?

A

The aircraft at the lower altitude

37
Q

What is the order of priorities for right away for aircraft of different categories?

A
  1. Balloons
  2. Gliders
  3. Aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft
  4. Airships
  5. Rotary or Fixed Wing
38
Q

Regardless if an operation is conducted under IFR or VFR, who must maintain vigilance for the see and avoid principle?

A

Each pilot operating an aircraft

39
Q

If an ATC clearance is given to you containing altitude, restrictions, vectors, headings, altimeter settings, and runway assignments. Do you have to read them back, and if so in what order?

A

Yes you must, and read them back in the order that they were given.

40
Q

Descent gradients in excess of what may induce spatial D?

A

Greater than 1 degrees (1,000 ft per NM)

41
Q

Below what altitude should you avoid a descent gradient more than 10 degress NL?

A

Below 15,000 ft

42
Q

In what knot increments are speed adjustments made?

A

10 knot increments

43
Q

What margin of error must you maintain your airspeed within (when ATC assigns you a speed)?

A

+/- 10 knots or 0.02 mach

44
Q

If ATC tells you to “resume normal speed”, does that cancel the published speed restrictions on an instrument approach?

A

No

45
Q

What is the approximate separation guide for operating near other aircraft?

A

500 ft

46
Q

Under what areas and clearances must you squawk 4000?

A

When operating VFR or IFR in restricted areas, warning areas, or on a VFR mil training route

47
Q

If you get a TAS alert, are you allowed to immediately deviated from an assigned ATC clearance?

A

You are, however, do not deviate from the clearance based solely on the TAS alert. Attempt to attain visual contact and maintain safe separation. A TAS alert does not immediately grant you clearance to deviate from ATC instructions

202V3 (14 decks)

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