Chapter 15 Exam 2

Question 1

Intracranial Regulation

Answer 1

This concept represents mechanisms that facilitate or impair neurologic function. Because brain function requires perfusion of oxygenated blood and because the respiratory & cardiovascular systems are impacted by neurologic control, strong bidirectional interrelationships among these concepts exist

Question 2

Both sensory and tactile perception and motion are extensions of neurologic function that impact what?

Answer 2

Other interrelated concepts such as nutrition, development (functional ability), elimination and pain

Question 3

Explain the example of a stroke using the interrelationships of intracranial regulation.

Answer 3

• A stroke results from lack of oxygenated blood to the brain
  1) Following a stroke an individual may experience problems w/sensory and tactile perception and motion
  2) This leads to impacting nutrition, elimination, pain perception and functional ability

Question 4

Structural divisions of the nervous system

Answer 4

1) Central nervous system (CNS): brain and spinal cord
2) Peripheral nervous system (PNS) which includes all nerve fibers outside brain and spinal cord
3) Autonomic nervous system (ANS)

Question 5

Foramen magnum

Answer 5

Large oval opening at the base of the occipital bone through which the spinal cord extends from the medulla oblongata

Question 6

Meninges

Answer 6

Are between the skull and the brain.
There are 3 layers
1) Dura mater: outer fibrous layer
2) Arachnoid: middle meningeal layer, two layer fibrous, elastic membrane that covers the folds and fissures of the brain
3) Pia mater: the inner meningeal layer contains small vessels that supply blood to the brain
-between the arachnoid and the pia mater is the subarachnoid space where the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) circulates

Question 7

Falx cerebri

Answer 7

A fold of dura mater that separates the two cerebral hemispheres

Question 8

Tentorium cerebelli

Answer 8

A fold of dura mater the supports the temporal and occipital lobes and separates the cerebral hemispheres from the cerebellum

Question 9

Supratentorial and infratentorial

Answer 9

Supratentorial: structures above the tentorium cerebelli
Infratentorial: Structures below the tentorium cerebelli

Question 10

CFS is colorless, odorless fluid made in the choroid plexes of ventricles that contains?

Answer 10

Glucose, electrolytes, oxygen, water, carbon dioxide, protein, and leukolytes. It circulates around the brain and spinal cord to provide a cushion, maintain normal intracranial pressure, provide nutrition, and remove metabolic wastes

Question 11

The cerebral ventricular system consists of four interconnecting chambers or ventricles that produce and circulate CSF

Answer 11

1) One lateral ventricle in each hemisphere, with a third ventricle adjacent to the thalamus
2) A third ventricle adjacent to the thalamus
3) A fourth ventricle adjacent to the brainstem
- The CSF circulates from the lateral ventricles through the interventricular foramen to the third ventricle and through the aqueduct of Sylvius to the fourth ventricle & into the cisterna magna from there the CSF flows w/in the subarachnoid space up around the brain & down around the spinal cord.
- CSF absorbed through arachnoid villi that extend into the subarachnoid space and is returned to the venous system

Question 12

The brain consists of what?

Answer 12

1) Cerebrum
2) Diencephalon
3) Cerebellum
4) Brainstem
- It is made up of gray matter (unmyelinated cell bodies) and white matter (myelinated nerve fibers)

Question 13

What supplies most of the blood to the brain?

Answer 13

The carotid arteries & they branch off into the posterior cerebral, middle cerebral, and anterior cerebral arteries.

• Remaining blood flows through two vertebral arteries & into the posterior and anterior communicating arteries that supply blood through the circle of willis.
• Blood leaves the brain through venous sinuses that empty into the jugular veins

Question 14

Cerebrum is the largest part of the brain and is composed of two hemispheres. Each hemisphere is divided into four lobes, describe each lobe

Answer 14

1) Frontal lobes: control intellectual function, awareness of self, personality, and autonomic responses related to emotion
2) Left frontal lobe contains broca’s area which is involved in formulation of words
- the frontal lobes contain the primary motor cortex & are also responsible for functions related to voluntary motor activity

Question 15

Nerves from the motor cortex cross over in the medulla oblongata so that nerves on the right side of the frontal lobe control movement on the?

Answer 15

Left side of the body and nerves on the right side of the frontal lobe control movement on the right side of the body.

Question 16

The parietal lobes contain

Answer 16

The primary somesthetic (sensory) cortex.

- one of its major functions is to receive sensory input such as position sense, touch, shape, and texture of objects

Question 17

The sensory nerves from the body cross over the medulla, so that nerve impulses from the right side of the body are received in the?

Answer 17

Left side of the parietal lobe and impulses from the left side are received in the right side of the parietal lobe

Question 18

The temporal lobe contains?

Answer 18

The primary auditory cortex. Wernick’s area located in the left temporal lobe, is responsible for comprehension of spoken and written language. The temporal lobe also interprets auditory, visual, and somatic sensory inputs that are stored in thought and memory

Question 19

The occipital lobes contain?

Answer 19

The primary visual cortex and are responsible for receiving & interpreting visual information

Question 20

What makes up the Diencephalon?

Answer 20

1) Thalamus: Relay and integration station from the spinal cord to the cerebral cortex & other parts of the brain.
2) Hypothalamus: Several functions in maintaining homeostasis & include regulation of body temp., hunger & thirst; formation of ANS responses; & storage & secretion of hormones from pituitary gland
3) Epithalamus: Contains pineal gland which causes sleepiness & helps regulate some endocrine function
4) Subthalamus: pare of basal ganglia

Question 21

Basal Ganglia is between the cerebral cortex and midbrain and adjacent to the diencephalon, the structures that form the basal ganglia include?

Answer 21

The putamen, caudate nucleus, globus pallidus, thalamus, red nucleus, and substantia nigra.
-Function of the basal ganglia is to create smooth, coordinated voluntary movement by balancing the production of two neurotransmitters: acetylcholine and dopamine

Question 22

The brainstem is made up of?

Answer 22

The midbrain, pons & medulla oblongata.

-10 of the 12 cranial nerves originate from the brainstem

Question 23

Midbrain function

Answer 23

Function is to relay stimuli concerning muscle movement to other brain structures. Contains part of the motor tract pathways that control reflex motor movements in response to visual & auditory stimuli. Oculomotor nerve (CN III) & trochlear nerve (CN IV) originate in the midbrain

Question 24

Pons function

Answer 24

Relay impulses to brain centers & lower spinal nerves. The cranial nerves that originate in the pons are trigeminal (CN V), abducens (CN VI), facial (CN VII), and acoustic (CN VIII)

Question 25

Medulla Oblongata function

Answer 25

Contains reflex centers for controlling involuntary functions such as breathing, sneezing, swallowing, coughing, vomiting, and vasoconstriction. - Motor & sensory tracts from the frontal & parietal lobes cross from one side to the other in the medulla, so lesions on the right side of the brain create abnormal movement & sensation on the left side & vise versa. - Cranial nerves that originate in the medulla are glossopharyngeal (CN IX), vagus (CN X), spinal accessory (CN XI), and hypoglossal (CN XII)

Question 26

The cerebellum is separated from the cerebral cortex by the tentorium cerebelli. Functions of the cerebellum include?

Answer 26

Coordinating movement, equilibrium, muscle tone, and proprioception. Each of the cerebellar hemispheres controls movement for the same (ipsilateral) side of the body

Question 27

The spinal cord is a continuation of the medulla oblongata that begins at the foramen magnum and ends at the first and second lumbar (L1, L2) vertebrae. At L1 & L2 the spinal cord branches into lumbar and sacral nerve roots termed the?

Answer 27

Cauda equina

Question 28

The spinal cord consists of ____ segments, each giving rise to a pair of spinal nerves. Nerve fibers,

Answer 28

31

Question 29

White matter of the spinal cord

Answer 29

Myelinated nerves that contain ascending and descending tracts of nerve fibers. - The descending, or motor, tracts (e.g. anterior and lateral corticospinal or pyramidal tracts) carry impulses from the frontal lobe to muscles for voluntary movement. They also play a role in muscle tone and posture. - The ascending, or sensory, tracts carry sensory information from the body through the thalamus to the parietal lobe. The fasciculus gracilis track travels in the posterior (dorsal) column carrying sensations of touch, deep pressure, vibration, position of joints, stereognosis, and two-point discrimination. - the lateral spinothalamic tract carries fibers for sensation of light touch, pressure, temperature, and pain

Question 30

The gray matter of the spinal cord

Answer 30

Contains the nerve cell bodies, is arranged in a butterfly shape w/anterior and posterior horns

Question 31

Peripheral nervous system

Answer 31

Cranial nerves, spinal nerves, reflex arch

Question 32

Peripheral nervous system: Cranial nerves

Answer 32

Of the 12 pairs of cranial nerves, some have only motor fibers (five pairs) or only sensory fibers (three pairs); whereas others have both (four pairs). Each cranial nerve controls movement or sensation for the same (ipsilateral) side of the body

Question 33

Peripheral nervous system: Spinal nerves

Answer 33

The 31 pairs of spinal nerves emerge from different segments of the spinal cord: 8 pairs of cervical, 12 pairs of thoracic, 5 pairs of lumbar, 5 pairs of sacral, and 1 pair of coccygeal - The first seven cervical nerves exit above their corresponding vertebrae. There are 8 cervical nerves but 7 cervical vertebra. - Remaining spinal nerves exit below the corresponding vertebrae

Question 34

Each pair of spinal nerves is formed by the union of an efferent, or motor (ventral), root and an afferent, or sensory (dorsal), root. The motor fibers carry impulses from? Sensory nerve fibers?

Answer 34

Motor: carry impulses from the sensory receptors of the body through the spinal cord to muscles and glands Sensory fibers carry impulses from the sensory receptors of the body through the spinal cord to the brain (parietal lobe).

Question 35

Each pair of spinal nerves and its corresponding part of the spinal cord make up?

Answer 35

a spinal segment and innervate specific body segments

Question 36

The dorsal root of each spinal nerves supplies the?

Answer 36

Sensory innervation to a segment of the skin known as a dermatome (e.g. is patient complains of pain w/numbness and tingling across the right knee, the nurse knows that the fourth lumbar spinal segment is involved, perhaps compressed

Question 37

Reflex arc

Answer 37

Are tested by observing muscle movement in response to sensory stimuli. - Deep tendon reflexes are responses to stimulation of a tendon that stretches the neuromuscular spindles of a muscle group. Striking a deep tendon stimulates a sensory neuron that travels to the spinal cord where it stimulates an interneuron that stimulates a motor neuron to create movement. - Superficial reflexes are tested in same manner. Each reflex corresponds to a specific spinal segment

Question 38

Autonomic Nervous System (ANS)

Answer 38

Regulates the internal environment of the body in conjunction w/endocrine system. It has two components: sympathetic nervous system (SNS) & the parasympathetic nervous system (PNS)

Question 39

Autonomic Nervous System (ANS): Sympathetic nervous system

Answer 39

Arises from the thoracolumbar segments of the spinal cord and is activated during stress (fight or flight responses). Actions: Increases BP, HR, vasoconstricting peripheral blood vessels, inhibiting gastrointestinal peristalsis, dilating bronchi

Question 40

Autonomic Nervous System (ANS): Parasympathetic nervous system

Answer 40

Arises from craniosacral segments of the spinal cord & controls vegetative functions (breed and feed, rest and digest). Actions: functions associated w/conserving energy such as decreasing HR and force of myocardial contractions, decreasing BP & respirations, & stimulating gastrointestinal peristalsis

Question 41

Cranial nerves

Answer 41

``` I. Olfactory II. Optic III. Oculomotor IV. Trochlear V. Trigeminal VI. Abducens VII. Facial VIII. Acoustic or vestibulocochlear IX. Glossopharyngeal X. Vagus XI. Spinal accessory XII. Hypoglossal ```

Question 42

Cranial Nerve I

Answer 42

Olfactory: sensory, smell

Question 43

Cranial Nerve II

Answer 43

Optic: sensory, sight

Question 44

Cranial Nerve III

Answer 44

Oculomotor: Motor, raise eyelids, most extraocular movements Parasympathetic: pupillary constriction, change lens shape

Question 45

Cranial Nerve IV

Answer 45

Trochlear: motor, downward, inner eye movement

Question 46

Cranial nerve V

Answer 46

Trigeminal: motor, Jaw opening and clenching chewing and mastication sensory, sensation to cornea, iris, lacrimal glands, conjunctiva, eyelids, forehead, nose, nasal & mouth mucosa, teeth, tongue, ear, facial skin

Question 47

Cranial nerve VI

Answer 47

Aducens: motor, lateral eye movement

Question 48

Cranial nerve VII

Answer 48

Facial Motor: movement of facial expression muscles except jaw, close eyes, labial speech sounds (b,m,w, and rounded vowels) Sensory: taste on the anterior two thirds of tongue, sensation to pharynx Parasympathetic: secretion of saliva and tears

Question 49

Cranial nerve VIII

Answer 49

Acoustic or vestibulocochlear | Sensory: hearing and equilibrium

Question 50

Cranial nerve IX

Answer 50

Glossopharyngeal Motor: voluntary muscles for swallowing and phonation Sensory: sensation of nasopharynx, gag reflex, taste on the posterior one third of tongue Parasympathetic: secretion of salivary glands, carotid reflex

Question 51

Cranial nerve X

Answer 51

Vagus Motor: voluntary muscles of phonation (guttural speech sounds) and swallowing Sensory: sensation behind ear and part of external ear canal Parasympathetic: secretion of digestive enzymes; peristalsis; carotid reflex; involuntary action of heart, lungs, and digestive tract

Question 52

Cranial nerve XI

Answer 52

Spinal accessory | Motor: turn head, shrug shoulders, some actions for phonation

Question 53

Cranial nerve XII

Answer 53

Hypoglossal | Motor: tongue movement for speech sound articulation (l, t, n) and swallowing

Question 54

Mnemonic for the cranial nerves

Answer 54

On: olfactory Some: sensory Old: Optic Say: sensory Olympus: Oculomotor Marry: motor Towering: trochlear Money: motor Top: Trigeminal But: both A: Abducens My: motor Finn: Facial Brother: both And: Acoustic (vestibulocochlear) Says: sensory German: Glossopharyngeal Bad: both Viewed: Vagus Business to: both Some: Spinal accessory Marry: motor Hops: Hypoglossal Money: motor

Question 55

Previous injury to the central nervous system may leave residual deficits such as?

Answer 55

Weakness or spasticity that you can anticipate during the exam. Injury to the frontal lobe can cause changes in memory and cognition

Question 56

Risk factors for cerebrovascular accident (stroke)

Answer 56

- Age - Gender - Family history - Race - Smoking - Alcohol - High blood cholesterol - Obesity - Hypertension - Diabetes mellitus - Disorders that increase risk: previous cva, transient ischemic attack (TIA), heart attack - Atrial fibrillation

Question 57

Examination for neuro health

Answer 57

``` Routine techniques -Assess mental status and LOC -Evaluate speech -Notice cranial nerve functions -Observe gait -Evaluate extremities for muscle strength and tone Techniques for special circumstances -Assess cranial nerves -Assess cerebellum -Assess sensory function -Test deep tendon reflexes ```

Question 58

Which cranial nerves are tested together?

Answer 58

The oculomotor (CN III), trochlear (CN IV), & abducens (CN VI) are tested together because they control muscles that provide eye movement

Question 59

Bitter & sour tastes

Answer 59

Cranial nerve IX Glossopharyngeal (posterior one third)

Question 60

Salty and sweet tastes

Answer 60

Cranial nerve VII Facial (anterior two thirds)

Question 61

Which cranial nerves do you evaluate for movement of the soft palate and gag reflex?

Answer 61

Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) & the vagus nerve (CN X)'

Question 62

Stereognosis

Answer 62

Identification of a familiar object by mouth

Question 63

Graphesthesia

Answer 63

Draw a letter or number on palm and ask patient to identify by touch

Question 64

Evaluation of Cortical Sensory Function

Answer 64

Stereognosis Two point discrimination Graphesthesia

Question 65

Location of tendons for evaluation of deep tendon reflexes

Answer 65

1) Triceps reflex 2) Biceps reflex 3) Brachioradialis reflex 4) Patellar reflex 5) Achilles reflex 6) Babinski's reflex 7) Ankle clonus

Question 66

Triceps reflex

Answer 66

Expected response is the contraction of the triceps muscle that causes visible or palpable extension of the elbow

Question 67

Biceps reflex

Answer 67

Expected response is the contraction of the biceps muscle that causes visible or palpable flexion of the elbow

Question 68

Brachioradialis reflex

Answer 68

Expected response is pronation of the forearm and flexion of the elbow

Question 69

Patellar reflex

Answer 69

Expected response is contraction of the quadriceps muscle causing extension of the lower leg

Question 70

Achilles tendon reflex

Answer 70

Expected response is the contraction of the gastrocnemius muscle, causing plantar flexion of the food

Question 71

Check for the plantar reflex (Babinski's reflex)

Answer 71

Expected response should be plantar flexion of all toes

Question 72

Disorders of the CNS

Answer 72

1) Multiple sclerosis: Progressive demyelination of nerve fibers of the brain and spinal cord 2) Meningitis: Inflammation of the meninges that surround the brain and spinal cord 3) Encephalitis: Inflammation of the brain tissue and meninges 4) Spinal cord injury: Any traumatic disruption of the spinal cord. Injury to the cervical spinal cord may result in quadriplegia or tetraplegia, whereas injury to the thoracic and lumbar spinal cord may result in paraplegia 5) Craniocerebral Injury (head injury): Any injury to the scalp, skull, or brain that is sufficient to alter normal function. Open head injuries result from fractures or penetrating wounds; closed head injuries result from blunt head injury producing cerebral concussion or contusion. 6) Parkinson's Disease: Chronic & progressive movement disorder resulting from the degeneration of the dopamine producing neurons in the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia 7) Cerebrovascular Accident (Stroke): When cerebral blood vessels become occluded by a thrombus or embolus or when intracranial hemorrhage occurs, the brain tissues become ischemic, resulting in a CVA or stroke 8) Alzheimer's Disease: This is an incurable, degenerative neurologic disorder that begins with a decline in memory.

Question 73

Disorders of peripheral nerves

Answer 73

1) Myasthenia Gravis: This neuromuscular disease is characterized by weakness of voluntary muscles that improves with rest and administration of anticholinesterase drugs. Three types of myasthenia: 1 ocular, which affects only the eyes; 2 bulbar, which involves the nerves that innervate the muscles needed for swallowing; and 3 generalized, which affects skeletal muscles of the arms, legs, and trunk 2) Guillain-Barre Syndrome: This acute syndrome is characterized by widespread demyelination of motor nerves of the peripheral nervous system. Patients usually have a respiratory or gastrointestinal viral infection weeks before the onset

Question 74

During a health history, a patient reports having difficulty swallowing. Based on this report, which assessment technique does the nurse use to collect more data about the patient's ability to swallow?

Answer 74

Observe the rising of the soft palate when the patient says "ahh"

Question 75

As a patient is walking into the exam room, the nurse notices his unsteady gait. What findings does the nurse anticipate during the neurologic exam?

Answer 75

A tremor is observed in his hands while he touches his finger to his thumb on the same hand

Question 76

During a symptom analysis the patient reports a pain that radiates from the right lateral thigh, over the knee, and around to the right medial ankle. The nurse refers to the dermatome map to determine that the patient's description of pain is consistent with dysfunction of which spinal nerve

Answer 76

Fourth lumbar L4

Question 77

Which question gives the nurse additional information about a patient's report of his hands shaking for the last two months?

Answer 77

"Does the shaking occur when your hands are at rest or when you are picking up an item?"

Question 78

Which technique does the nurse use to test the triceps reflex?

Answer 78

Holds the patient's relaxed arm with elbow flexed at a 90-degree angle in one hand and strikes the appropriate tendon just above the elbow with either end of the reflex hammer

Question 79

Which patient behavior indicates to the nurse that the patient's facial cranial nerve (CN VIII) is intact?

Answer 79

The sides of the mouth are symmetric when the patient smiles

Question 80

``` The nurse is preparing to assess a patient’s peripheral nervous sensory function. Which assessment test would the nurse use? Light touch sensation Two-point discrimination Romberg Rinne ```

Answer 80

Light touch sensation Light touch can also be assessed with vibratory sensation and position sense of joints. Two-point discrimination evaluates cortical sensory function. Romberg assesses balance. Rinne is a screening test for hearing.

Question 81

``` Sensory neurologic testing cannot realistically be performed with children until they are: at least 6 months old. toddlers. kindergarten age. middle school age. ```

Answer 81

kindergarten age. Kindergarten children will need to be able to follow some basic directions. Six-month-old babies are too young because they need to be able to follow directions. Toddlers are bit too young. Middle school children can be tested well before this age.

Question 82

Which statement regarding variations in neurologic functioning is true? African-American adults have an enhanced reflex response. American Indian children tend to develop early motor skills more rapidly than other children. Asians have a greater sensation than do whites. The function of the neurologic system is consistent across racial lines.

Answer 82

The function of the neurologic system is consistent across racial lines. Generally speaking, there is very little racial variation in regard to neurologic function. Reflexes do not vary by race. American Indian children tend to develop motor skills faster than other ethnic groups, but this difference is only for the first few years of life. Sensation does not vary by race.

Question 83

``` The nurse assesses an active reflex response. Which score should be documented? 1+ 2+ 3+ 4+ ```

Answer 83

2+ 2+ is the expected response. 1+ indicates a sluggish or diminished response. 3+ is considered a slightly hyperactive response, but it is not necessarily pathologic. 4+ indicates a brisk, hyperactive response with intermittent clonus and is usually indicative of a disease process.

Question 84

The nurse is assessing an older adult’s neurologic status. The nurse should be aware that the neurologic responses of older adults: should be the same as those of younger adults. may be slower than those of younger adults. are present but difficult to evaluate. are enhanced as a result of irritability.

Answer 84

may be slower than those of younger adults. Some abnormal findings are more common in the older adult. There may be a decline in function, thus differences should be expected. Evaluation of the findings should not be difficult. Some changes may be the result of a decline in function, not of irritability.

Question 85

``` The nurse is assessing the olfactory nerve. Which instructions should the nurse give to the patient before assessment? “Lie down on your back.” “Close your eyes.” “Close both of your nostrils.” “Breathe through your mouth.” mell. ```

Answer 85

“Close your eyes.” The test is to determine identification of an item through the sense of smell. Closing eyes will enhance the assessment. The patient does not need to lie down for this examination. The patient will need to breathe through the nostrils to assess the sense of smell.

Question 86

``` The nurse notices that a patient is able to understand what is said but has trouble formulating a response. The nurse suspects: Parkinson disease. Guillain-Barré syndrome. receptive aphasia. expressive aphasia. ```

Answer 86

expressive aphasia. Expressive aphasia may be the result of a head injury or CVA. Parkinson disease is a disease that is characterized by a progressive tremor. Guillain-Barré syndrome is characterized by weakness and paresthesia. Receptive aphasia describes a patient who can talk but has a hard time understanding what is said.

Question 87

The nurse notes that the patient is able to touch each finger to his thumb in rapid sequence. This finding indicates that the patient: has intact trochlear and abducens cranial nerves. has appropriate cerebellar function. has an intact spinal accessory nerve. has appropriate kinesthetic sensation.

Answer 87

has appropriate cerebellar function. Option B is also evaluated by coordination tests such as hopping in place and the Romberg test. Option A is assessed by assessing extraocular movement. Option C is assessed by shoulder shrug. Option D is assessed by asking the patient about a change of position.

Question 88

``` A 52-year-old obese male who smokes and has diabetes has risk factors for: seizures. Guillain-Barré syndrome. multiple sclerosis. cerebrovascular accident. ```

Answer 88

cerebrovascular accident. These are strong risk factors for a stroke. Hypertension is another possible problem. Seizures result from hyperexcitation of neurons in the brain; these are not risk factors. Guillain-Barré syndrome is caused by demyelination of nerves of the peripheral nervous system; these are not risk factors. Multiple sclerosis is a neuromuscular disease; these are not risk factors.

Question 89

``` The nurse is assessing a patient’s neurologic status. What assessment should the nurse perform? (Select all that apply.) Romberg test Glasgow Coma Scale Tonic neck Corneal reflex Mini-Mental State Exam Recall test ```

Answer 89

``` Glasgow Coma Scale Corneal reflex Mini-Mental State Exam Recall test Options B, D, E, and F can be performed to assess neurologic status. The Romberg test is used to assess balance. Tonic neck is used with infants to check infantile reflexes. ```

Question 90

This is an ability to recognize an object by feeling it

Answer 90

Stereognosis

Question 91

Oscillation of the eyes

Answer 91

Nystagmus

Question 92

Acronym to remember signs of a stroke

Answer 92

FAST

Question 93

This is an ability to recognize a number traced on the skin

Answer 93

Graphesthesia

Question 94

Regulates vital signs, appetite, sleep

Answer 94

Hypothalamus

Question 95

Client understands person, place, time, event

Answer 95

LOC

Question 96

Cerebellar disorder detected when unable to touch finger to nose

Answer 96

Dysmetria

Question 97

This tract senses pain

Answer 97

Spinothalamic

Question 98

Lack of sensation of vibration with a tuning fork may reveal this abnormality

Answer 98

Neuropathy

Question 99

Temporal lobe is responsible for this function

Answer 99

Auditory

Question 100

This scale assesses the level of consciousness

Answer 100

Glasgow coma scale

Question 101

This test checks the function of the cerebellum by patting knees with the hands

Answer 101

RAM (Rapid Alternating Movement)

Question 102

This cranial nerve IX, responsible for movement of the uvula and soft palate

Answer 102

Glossopharyngeal

Question 103

Bell's palsy is a dysfunction of this nerve

Answer 103

Facial

Question 104

If a DTR is absent, you can ask the person to perform this type of exercise to initiate a response

Answer 104

Isometric

Question 105

Rapid, rhythmic contraction seen when performing DTR's

Answer 105

Clonus

Question 106

When the Broca's area is damaged, this results in

Answer 106

Aphasia

Question 107

Assessing muscles that aid in chewing checks this cranial nerve

Answer 107

Trigeminal

Question 108

development of an infant progresses in this manner

Answer 108

cephalocaudal

Question 109

a pathologic reflex normally present prior to one year of age

Answer 109

babinski

Question 110

Wernicke's area assists with comprehension of...

Answer 110

language

Question 111

exaggerated reflex

Answer 111

hyperreflexia

Question 112

checking this reflex assesses the C5 and C6 nerves

Answer 112

biceps

Question 113

a dysfunction of cranial nerve III causing drooping of they eye lid

Answer 113

ptosis

Question 114

the trigeminal nerve can be checked in an infant by initiating this response

Answer 114

rooting

Question 115

positive romberg test would reveal this

Answer 115

ataxia

Question 116

the area of skin supplied with afferent nerve fibers by a single posterior spinal root

Answer 116

dermatome

Question 117

the hypoglossal nerve is responsible for this

Answer 117

tongue

Question 118

A disorder in which both eyes do not line up in the same direction, so they do not look at the same object at the same time.

Answer 118

Strabismus